6

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

Which of the microorganisms can grow best in cold temperatures (0-10 deg C)?

Psychrophile

This type of water has had all contaminants and minerals removed by means of vaporization of water followed by condensation in a purer state. It may be used as a solvent for reagent preparation.

Purified water

What are the conditions for moist heat sterilization using an autoclave?

121ºC, 15 psi, 15-20 minutes

This component of a mother’s breast milk contains a high concentration of antibodies that protect newborns from certain diseases.

Colostrum

After receiving flu vaccine, a person may develop ______ immunity.

Artificially acquired active

Which of the following should not be administered to a two-month-old baby? I. MMR II. Polio III. Diphtheria IV. Pertussis

A hapten is a substance that:

Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule

A presumptive diagnosis of syphilis requires the use of 2 types of laboratory serologic tests - nontreponemal and treponemal. Which of the following may be considered as (a) nontreponemal test/s? I. VDRL III. TPHA II. RPR IV. FTA-Abs

I,II

In favorable conditions, a bacterial endospore will return to its vegetative state. This process is referred to as:

Germination

The causative agent of pneumonia typically associated with inhalation of air from air- conditioners:

Legionella pneumophila

Characteristics of Staphylococcus epidermidis except:

Coagulase-positive

Which microorganisms from the list below are resistant to the damaging effects of heat? I. Bacillus subtilis II. Clostridium botulinum III. Staphylococcus aureus IV. Escherichia coli

I, II

The advantageous effect (to bacteria) attributable to the bacterial capsule.

Prevention of phagocytosis

This group B streptococcus is the most common causative agent of meningitis and sepsis in neonates.

Streptococcus agalactiae

True statements regarding the various pathotypes of E. coli: I. The most virulent form is enterohemorrhagic E. coli or EHEC, which causes bloody diarrhea. II. The most common EHEC strain is E. coli O157:H7, wherein O157 is a lipopolysaccharide antigen and H7 is a flagellar antigen. III. Enteroinvasive E. coli or EIEC is characterized by shigella-like dysentery. IV. Enteroinvasive E. coli causes infantile diarrhea, while enterotoxigenic E. coli causes traveler’s diarrhea.

I, II, III

Neisseria meningitidis can be differentiated from Neisseria gonorrhoeae by its ability to ferment a particular carbohydrate, which is:

Maltose

Bacteriostatic, except: I. Chloramphenicol II. Metronidazole III. Vancomycin IV. Erythromycin

II, III

Source of Vancomycin

S. orientalis

Mycoplasmas are susceptible to penicillins.

Not True

An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. What body part would most likely be swabbed to confirm the presence of this microorganism?

Nostrils

A patient presents to the clinic complaining of 2 weeks experiencing fever and diarrhea, as well as rose spots on abdomen. What drug should be prescribed for the patient’s condition?

Ceftriaxone

Dermatophyte affecting the scalp.

Tinea capitis

Virions are mature infectious viral particles composed of nucleic acid (RNA/ DNA) without a protein coat. Prions are infectious particles composed solely of protein with no detectable nucleic acid.

Second statement is correct.

The following statements about influenza virus and rabies virus are correct, except: I. They are enveloped, negative-stranded RNA viruses. II. Vaccines containing killed organisms are available for both viruses. III. They each have a single antigenic type.

II, III

Naked DNA viruses, except: I. Poxvirus II. Retrovirus III. Paramyxovirus IV. Parvovirus

I, II, III

Which of the following viruses is incorrectly described? I. HSV: enveloped RNA virus II. HPV: naked DNA virus III. Influenza: enveloped RNA virus IV. Poliovirus: naked RNA virus

I only

Correctly paired virus and viral family classification: I. Varicella zoster: Herpesviridae II. Marburg virus: Filoviridae III. Rubeola virus: Paramyxoviridae IV. Rubella virus: Coronaviridae

I, II, III

The following viruses gain entry via the intestinal tract, except: I. Mumps virus II. Poliovirus III. Rotavirus IV. Hepatitis A virus

I only

In 1970s, DOH declared the eradication of smallpox. Reasons why we were able to eradicate smallpox include all those listed below, except:

There is a subclinical stage.

The following are advantages of oral poliovirus vaccine over the injected version, except

Will not revert to virulence

Drug approved for and typically administered to CoVID patients on ventilators or supplemental oxygen to reduce the risk of death.

Dexamethasone

The most common helminth to infect humans worldwide.

Ascaris lumbricoides

DOC for toxoplasmosis

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

Old McDonald had a farm, and on his farm, he had some pigs, The pigsty was near the water well where he would fetch water to drink & wash. One day, he experienced abdominal pains & diarrhea. When the physician checks his stools, what protozoan will he most likely detect to be the cause of McDonald’s symptoms?

Balantidium coli

_____ is used for the “radical cure” of malaria.

Primaquine

Metazoan found in bagsit fish in the Ilocos region.

Capillaria philippinensis

True statements regarding Plasmodium species: I. Blood smear of a patient infected with P. falciparum may reveal lancet shaped erythrocytes. II. P. vivax and P. ovale have an exoerythrocytic stage in their life cycle. III. P. falciparum infection is referred to as malignant tertian malaria. IV. The most common plasmodial specie causing the most fatal form of malaria is P. malariae.

I, II, III

The World Health Organizations has identified the microorganisms responsible for most nosocomial infections as the “ESKAPE“ pathogens. True statements regarding these microorganisms: I. Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are the causative agents of hospital-acquired pneumonia. II. Acinetobacter baumanni is typically contracted from the administration of parenteral solutions. III. There are strains of Staphylococcus aureus resistant to methicillin and vancomycin. IV. Escherichia coli and Enterococcus species are also included in this acronym.

I, II, III

Major risk factors for hypertension and cardiovascular diseases, except:

None of the above

The hardening of the arteries due to build-up of plaque is known as

Atherosclerosis

A disinfectant may be described as a chemical agent that:

Kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the spores.

The DOH declared an outbreak of which disease in the Philippines in 2018 continuing into 2019?

Measles

Which of the following contains the highest amount of cholesterol?

Egg

Nosocomial infections are:

Developed while patient is in the hospital.

The ‘4 o’clock habit’ initiative of the Department of Health aims to eliminate the ____________.

Dengue Virus

A program that has backyard gardening community projects and putting of herbal plants as its major activities.

Herbal and Traditional Medicine

Spread of disease via indirect contact happens when pathogen is present on non-living objects, called:

Fomite

Which of the following are airborne diseases? I. Tuberculosis III. Measles II. COVID-19 IV. Influenza

I, II, III

Functions of quality control as part of GMP include the following, except:

Auditing

Total quality means:

Quality is everybody’s business.

Defined as the sum total of organized arrangements made with the objective of ensuring that products will be consistently of the quality required by their intended use.

Quality assurance

This enumerates the characteristics of all the materials that go into the product and the permissible range of purity of each ingredient.

Raw material specification

Defined as the closeness of agreement between the reference value(true value) and the measured value (actual value).

Accuracy

A researcher is analyzing a plant for the content of a particular cyanogenic glycoside, amygdalin. What type of analysis would this be classified as?

Ultimate analysis

When a drug product falls below required specifications of potency, what type of defect is it?

Internal

What element of the production line poses the greatest risk for product contamination?

Personnel

Indicator used in permanganometry:

None of the above

In basic conditions, methyl orange would appear:

Yellow

This substance will impart enough alkalinity to suppress the Al-EDTA complex in the presence of a Mg-EDTA complex:

Triethanolamine

In titration, this is the term for the solution of known concentration that is used to react with the analyte.

Both Titrand & Standard solution

Endpoint refers to the point at which the titration is observed to be complete. The equivalence point AKA the stoichiometric point, which occurs after the endpoint, it is when the number of moles of titrant have reacted with an equal number of moles of analyte..

First statement is correct.

What is the basis of selecting the right indicator for a given acid-base titration?

pH at equivalence point

For number 63 and 64, refer to the following procedure for the preparation and standardization of 0.5 N Alcoholic Potassium Hydroxide. “Accurately weigh 5 g of potassium biphthalate, previously crushed lightly and dried at 120 C for 2hours, and dissolve in 75 mL of CO2-free water. Add 2 drops of phenolphthalein TS, and titrate with sodium hydroxide solution until a permanent pink color is produced.” What is responsible for the pink coloration at endpoint?

Conjugate base of phenolphthalein

For number 63 and 64, refer to the following procedure for the preparation and standardization of 0.5 N Alcoholic Potassium Hydroxide. “Accurately weigh 5 g of potassium biphthalate, previously crushed lightly and dried at 120 C for 2 hours, and dissolve in 75 mL of CO2-free water. Add 2 drops of phenolphthalein TS, and titrate with sodium hydroxide solution until a permanent pink color is produced.” What is the estimated pH range of the resulting pink solution?

8-10

A buret with a glass stopcock is used in acidimetry. An example of its use would be in the direct assay of sodium bicarbonate.

Both statements are correct.

Adsorption indicators are used in Fajans method of precipitimetry. Examples of such include tetrabromophenolphthalein ethyl ester, tetrabromofluorescein, and eriochrome black.

First statement is correct.

This method of analysis involves a change in the valence of the reacting products.

Oxidation-Reduction

H2O2 is assayed using what type of Permanganometry method?

Direct

In Iodimetry, the indicator is usually added before the endpoint. This method is used to assay reducing agents.

Second statement is correct.

Approximate temperature equivalent of bright red heat

800-1000 °C

Which of the following is used in the method II of water content determination? I. Karl Fischer reagent II. Toluene III. Xylene

II, III

The primary standard for Karl Fischer reagent is _____________.

Sodium tartrate

The components of the Karl Fischer reagent include all those listed below, except

Ethanol

An analyst computed a loss on drying that is 0.08% above the specified maximum limit. If product monographs allow only a 1.5% limit, determine the total weight lost if the retained sample weight is 9.374 g.

0.150 g

The hydroxylamine (titrimetric) method, which involves the use of a cassia flask, is one of two methods to determine the presence of _____ in a sample,

Aldehydes and ketones

In phenol content determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the Cassia flask reached 2.7mL obtained from a sample of 10mL after treatment with KOH solution. The percentage of oil is:

73%

This method that employs a suspended weight in measuring tablet hardness.

Erweka

Acceptable hardness for sublingual tablets

3 kg

Temperature employed in dissolution testing

37 ± 0.5 °C

Tablet friability apparatus also test the friability of:

NOTA

A female rat is used in the bioassay of vasopressin, while a sheep is used for parathyroid hormone.

Both statements are incorrect.

The following methods are used in the microbiological assay of antibiotics, except: I. Turbidimetric III. Paper disc II. Chromatographic IV. Azeotropic

II, IV

Test organism in the assay of Nystatin

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Common microbial contaminant of hand creams.

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Which of the following gases can be used to sterilize heat-labile pharmaceuticals?

Ethylene Oxide

This microorganism is used as an indicator for membrane filtration.

Pseudomonas diminuta

What animal is used in the testing of ophthalmic containers?

Albino rabbits

HEPA filters remove _____ of the particles in air with a size of _____.

99.97%, 0.3 µm

This method is used to test for the efficiency of membrane filters.

Bubble point

Which of the following is the correct acceptance criteria for pyrogen testing in rabbits?

≤ 3.3 °C for 8 rabbits

Nitrogen in organic substances is quantitatively measured by which of the following methods?

Kjeldahl method

The analytical method employed in the assay of trace metals.

AAS

Fingerprint region in the electromagnetic spectrum

Medium IR

Bending of light

Refraction

Which of the following is used in measuring the refractive index?

Abbe

The reflected light in a suspension can be measured by turbidimetry. Meanwhile, the fluorescence of Vitamins B1 and B2 can be measured by nephelometry.

Both statements are incorrect.

In normal phase column chromatography, the mobile phase is ____ than the stationary phase.

Less polar

The following principles are employed in chromatographic separations, except: I. Absorption II. Partition III. Ion exchange IV. Affinity

I only

Which of the following is the most widely used chromatographic method in drug analysis?

HPLC

100

The stationary phase in gas chromatography is a/an ___________.

High boiling point liquid

Module 2 Part 1

ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前

Module 2 Part 1