Module 3

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

The usual dose range of Dimercaprol is 2.5-5 mg/kg of body weight. What would be the dose range for a person weighing 165 lbs?

0.187 g – 0.375 g

If a drug inhaler contains 20 mg of the active drug, how many inhalation doses can be delivered if each inhalation dose contains 90 micrograms?

222 doses

John was smoking 28 sticks of cigarettes per day for about 43 years. Calculate the smoker’s pack year history.

60 pack years

What would be the selling price of a compounded product if the following base costs were computed: 1. Labor (15 minutes) – Php 28.95 2. Supplies – Php 27.90 3. Electricity – Php 1.50 4. Depreciation cost of equipment to be used – Php 84.20 Mark up is at 60%.

Php 227.88

The physician ordered an infusion of NSS 500 mL in 3 hours using a 15 drops/ mL set. With 1½ hours remaining, you discover that only 150 mL is left in the bag. At what rate in drops per minute will the infusion be reset?

20 drops/min

A nutritional product contains 10 grams of carbohydrates, 15 grams of proteins, and 5 grams of fat in each 100-mL serving. What is the caloric content of one serving?

145 kcal

The dimensions of the Nicotine transdermal patch system are 4.7 cm by 4.8 cm. What would be the corresponding dimensions in inches?

1.85 inches x 1.89 inches

A patient weighing 120 lbs was administered 2.1 grams of a drug that was intended to be dosed at 30 mg/ kg. What can you say about the dose administered?

Overdose

Aminophylline solution, when exposed to air, may develop:

Crystals of theophylline

Which of these hypoglycemic drugs can cause weight loss?

Metformin

Which of the following is the reason why the drug Sumatriptan was prescribed to a patient?

For cluster headaches

Which of the following refers to an acquired abnormal response that is not expected to result from a known pharmacologic response, mediated by immunological mechanisms?

Hypersensitivity reaction

Which of the following will NOT facilitate drug absorption? I. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be absorbed in its hydrophobic form in an environment that has low pH II. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be absorbed in its hydrophilic form in an environment that has low pH III. For a weakly basic drug, it must be absorbed in its polar form in an alkaline environment IV. For a weakly basic drug, it must be absorbed in its nonpolar form in an alkaline environment

II, III

Which of the following is/are true regarding the condition BPH? I. It is a malignancy in the prostate II. It can be treated using alpha blockers III. It presents with an elevated PSA

II, III

Miconazole is a potent inhibitor of CYP2C9. What would be the resulting effect when a topical preparation (cream) of Miconazole interacts with another drug that will be metabolized by CYP2C9?

No interaction is likely to happen since systemic absorption of Miconazole from the cream is so low

The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibility, EXCEPT:

immiscibility

Physicochemical incompatibilities can be detected by: I. Change in color II. Formation of precipitate III. Evolution of gas

I, II, III

Varenicline is a drug used for _____.

Smoking cessation

Which of the following BEST describes the drug interaction between anti-TB medications?

Synergism

Tina is taking ampalaya supplements. This may potentially have an additive pharmacodynamic effect with what medication she is taking?

Antidiabetic drugs

Which of the following refer to drugs that bear a” heightened risk” of causing significant patient harm when used in error?

High alert medications

A diabetic patient suffering from hypertension is having Enalapril. However, he complained of sever dry cough which has been associated to the drug. Which would be the best alternative for Enalapril for this patient?

Losartan

Senolytic drugs are also known as:

Anti-aging drugs

A patient who is planning to travel is inquiring on when to take the Meclizine tablet. Which of the following information is accurate?

Take 1 hour before travel

What characteristic of Dopamine is an important advantage in its use in cardiogenic shock?

Produces dose-dependent increases in cardiac output and renal perfusion

In drug interaction references, “drug affected by the interaction” is referred to as the _____.

Object drug

Which insulin consists of a 14-Carbon fatty acid?

Insulin Detemir

Which of the following may cause drug- induced “kernicterus” in the neonates?

Sulfisoxazole

A patient was diagnosed to have allergies to beta lactam antibiotics. Which of the following is not a beta lactam antibiotic to which the patient may not be allergic to?

Doxycycline

The pharmacist was reviewing a new order of Aldactone for a patient who is receiving an ACE inhibitor. Which of the following significant interactions should be noted by the pharmacist?

Both drugs may interact to cause an elevation in blood potassium levels

Which of the following conditions may contribute to drug administration errors? I. Failure to check the patient’s identity prior to administration II. Counterchecking of the drug by a second nurse prior to administration III. Storage of look-alike preparations side by side in the patient’s medication cabinet

I, III

Which of the following is/are opioid IV preparations that can be used to produce a general anesthetic effect? I. Meperidine II. Thiopental III. Midazolam

What adverse effect may result in the intake of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

Rhabdomyolysis

A patient presented a prescription of penicillin and probenecid, which of the following effects of drug interaction will most likely occur?

Probenecid blocks the active tubular secretion; increase in penicillin half-life

A patient presented a prescription of penicillin and probenecid, which of the following effects of drug interaction will most likely occur? Classify the type of drug interaction: .

Pharmacokinetic: Excretion

Digoxin toxicity due to the depletion of electrolytes brought by intake of diuretics is an example of ___________

Pharmacodynamic interaction

Which of the following has been found to reduce sleep onset latency in many sleep-related disorders in both adults and children?

Melatonin

What is the interaction between Warfarin and Vitamin K?

Antagonistic

Which of the following is INCORRECT for extended-release products?

They have shorter intervals for succeeding doses

Which of the following will facilitate excretion? I. For a weakly acidic drug, it will be excreted in its hydrophobic form in an environment that has low pH II. For a weakly acidic drug, it will be excreted in its hydrophilic form in an environment that has high pH III. For a weakly basic drug, it will be excreted in its polar form in an acidic environment IV. For a weakly basic drug, it will be excreted in its nonpolar form in an alkaline environment

II, III

The following are manifestations of EPS (EXTRAPYRAMIDAL SYNDROME) EXCEPT: I. Akinesia II. Anuria III. Akathisia

A patient took ginseng while on Warfarin therapy in hopes of alleviating his condition. What effect may occur after?

Patient is at risk for bleeding

Taking Griseofulvin with high fatty meal will most likely result to _______.

Increase in the absorption of Griseofulvin

What would be the mechanism of interaction between drinking alcohol and taking CNS depressants?

Pharmacodynamic: Additive

The serum creatinine of a 65-year-old female weighing 150 lbs was 1.5 mg/dL. What is her creatinine clearance?

40.2 mL/minute

Which of the following drugs would be best subjected to Therapeutic Drug Monitoring? I. Phenytoin II. Gentamicin III. Carbamazepine

I, II, III

Which of the following hormones is detected in the urine of pregnant women?

Human chorionic gonadotropin

Which of the following is NOT indicated for motion sickness?

Memantine

A patient was prescribed the drug Febuxostat and asked you, the pharmacist, regarding its use. She showed you her laboratory result. Which of the following results in her laboratory examination is the reason for the prescription of this drug?

High uric acid

The healthcare provider administered Naloxone for a patient at the Emergency Room. Which of the following physical assessment data would be most important to indicate that the drug has been effective?

Respiratory rate has normalized

Which of the following medications can INCREASE the likelihood of patient fall? I. Zolpidem II. Loratadine III. Olanzapine

I, III

Which of the following deficiencies is/are the most common cause/s of megaloblastic anemia? I. Fe Deficiency II. Vitamin B12 Deficiency III. Folic Acid Deficiency

II and III

For medical information sources, what category would journal articles belong?

Primary literature

A new test for HIV does not detect the presence of the virus in someone who is infected. This is known as a ______.

False negative result

Which of the following is hypertonic to the blood?

9% NaCl solution

The pharmacy received a prescription for Rosuvastatin. Which of the following parameters should be monitored by the patient in relation to a known adverse effect of this drug?

Liver function test

Increased levels of which of the following may be associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis?

High-density lipoprotein

Which of the following refers to the science that evaluates the value of a pharmaceutical product or drug therapy compared to its effects?

Pharmacoeconomics

In a drug interaction scenario, what would BEST describe the result if Drug A induced the metabolism of Drug B?

Decrease in the blood concentration of Drug B

Which of the following drugs INCREASE the clearance of another drug? I. Grapefruit juice II. Phenytoin III. Chronic alcoholism IV. Carbamazepine

II, III, IV

Which of the following is the correct Tall Man lettering for Dopamine and Dobutamine?

DOPamine, DOBUTamine

Which of the following are microvascular complications related to diabetes resulting from poor glycemic control due to non-compliance to the treatment plan? I. Retinopathy II. Nephropathy III. Cardiomegaly

I, II

Which of the following medications is most likely to cause drug interactions and endocrine side effects?

Cimetidine

Which of the following medicines will bring down the patient’s cholesterol levels? I. Atorvastatin II. Cholestyramine III. Fenofibrate

AOTA

Which of the following procedures / equipment is used to determine pulmonary function?

Peak flow measurement

Medication distribution system that is considered the most advantageous in hospital setting:

Unit dose drug delivery system

The purpose of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee are the following:

Advisory and educational

Secretary of the Pharmacy and Therapeutic Committee:

Pharmacist

Which of the following opioids does NOT require an S2 license?

Tramadol

The pharmacist was asked to compare Amoxicillin and Ampicillin. Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the two? I. They both have similar spectrum of activity II. Hypersensitivity reactions may occur for both III. Ampicillin is better absorbed orally compared to Amoxicillin

I, II

List the three types of cautions found in drug product inserts from MOST to LEAST serious: I. Precaution II. Contraindication III. Warning

II, III, I

Which of the following needles has the smallest diameter?

30G x ½ in

Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding IV glutathione? I. It affects the production of melatonin II. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is as adjunct in Cisplatin chemotherapy III. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is for skin lightening

Botulinum A toxin is indicated for ______.

Cosmetic purposes

The pharmacist was asked to explain the difference between THROMBOLYTICS and ANTI-THROMBOTIC agents and to give an example. Which of the following is the CORRECT response?

Thrombolytics dissolves clots example is Reteplase, while antithrombotic reduces thrombus formation example is Aspirin

In monitoring the inventory of drugs at the pharmacy, which of the following transactions will DECREASE the “Stock- on-Hand” of a certain drug? I. Receiving of a delivery from the supplier II. Dispensing of the drug to the patient III. Returning the drug to the supplier after a recall order

II, III

Quinidine sulfate 200 mg capsule and Quinidine sulfate 200 mg tablet are _____ products.

Pharmaceutical alternative

Drugs with names ending in “-sartan” belong to what classification?

ACE Inhibitor

Which of the following should be made available as regular stock items at the hospital pharmacy intended for pediatric in-patients? I. Infant formula for newborn babies II. Oral liquid formulation such as drops and suspensions III. Preparations with flavors to cater to preference of patient IV. Various preparations of food supplements

II, III, IV

Which drug inventory system follows a procedure in which each peripheral facility identifies the drug quantities to be “requisitioned” from the procurement unit or warehouse?

Pull system

Which of the following components of parenteral nutrition is/are micronutrients? I. Electrolytes II. Dextrose III. Triglycerides

The following are characteristics of a PPN, EXCEPT: I. Administered through a central venous catheter II. Two types of solutions are commonly used III. It is used in an extended period of intensive nutritional support IV. Low glucose concentration

I, III

Peripheral vein injection may be considered a suitable route for IV administration when _______. I. A non-irritating drug is given II. Given as a short-term therapy III. Hypertonic solutions are given

I, II

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding “palliative care” for cancer patients? I. Provides relief from pain and other distressing symptoms II. Integrates the psychological and spiritual aspects of patient care III. Addresses cure for the disease such as the surgical removal of the tumor

I, II

Which of the following parameters should be considered when storing medications? I. Temperature II. Air velocity III. Particle count IV. Relative humidity

I, IV

What is referred to as enzyme inhibitor in the entry Ampicillin + Sulbactam?

Sulbactam

How many percent (%) belongs to the category of Cephalosporin?

54.8

How many percent (%) belongs to the category of Aminoglycoside?

3.9

If the dose prescribed is 20mg/kg/day every 12 hours, what will be the daily dose if the patient weighs 40 kg?

1600 mg

The dose of the patient was changed to Clarithromycin 125mg/mL one tablespoon twice a day for 7 days and was advised to go home. If only the 35 mL bottle prescription is available how many bottles are needed to complete the whole regimen?

6 bottles

Which of the following medications was prescribed for immediate relief for her difficulty of breathing?

Ipratropium bromide

Upon admission, the doctor prescribed Doxycycline to the patient. Which of the medications the patient is currently taking will affect its absorption? I. Warfarin II. Aluminum magnesium hydroxide III. Ferrous sulfate IV. Vitamin C

II, III

Upon discharge, the Attending Physician (AP) ordered that his medications during his hospitalization be continued and added the drug Lipitor. What can the pharmacist provide for this medication order in relation to Simvastatin that the patient is currently taking?

Refer to the AP for possible changes in the discharged medications since there is therapeutic duplication for the 2 drugs

Which of the following is important in monitoring the effects of heparin?

aPTT

Which of the following drugs belongs to the same pharmacologic class as Drug LMWH (Low Molecular Weight Heparin)?

Enoxaparin

Which of the following would be the indication of Drug LMH to the patient?

DVT treatment

What is the usual ROA of LMWH?

Subcutaneous

The patient was given a central anesthetic drug administered through inhalation. Which of the following is the agent given to the patient?

Sevoflurane

Which of the following is/are non-opioids IV preparations that can be used to produce general anesthesia? I. Meperidine II. Thiopental III. Midazolam

II, III

100

During the rounds of a clinical pharmacist, the patient asked her why he was prescribed Fondaparinux after his surgery. Which of the following is the correct response?

It is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation

Module 2 Part 1

ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前

Module 2 Part 1