問題一覧
1
The usual dose range of Dimercaprol is
2.5-5 mg/kg of body weight. What would
be the dose range for a person weighing
165 lbs?
0.187 g – 0.375 g
2
If a drug inhaler contains 20 mg of the
active drug, how many inhalation doses
can be delivered if each inhalation dose
contains 90 micrograms?
222 doses
3
John was smoking 28 sticks of cigarettes
per day for about 43 years. Calculate the
smoker’s pack year history.
60 pack years
4
What would be the selling price of a
compounded product if the following
base costs were computed:
1. Labor (15 minutes) – Php 28.95
2. Supplies – Php 27.90
3. Electricity – Php 1.50
4. Depreciation cost of equipment to be
used – Php 84.20
Mark up is at 60%.
Php 227.88
5
The physician ordered an infusion of
NSS 500 mL in 3 hours using a 15 drops/
mL set. With 1½ hours remaining, you
discover that only 150 mL is left in the
bag. At what rate in drops per minute
will the infusion be reset?
20 drops/min
6
A nutritional product contains 10 grams
of carbohydrates, 15 grams of proteins,
and 5 grams of fat in each 100-mL
serving. What is the caloric content of
one serving?
145 kcal
7
The dimensions of the Nicotine
transdermal patch system are 4.7
cm by 4.8 cm. What would be the
corresponding dimensions in inches?
1.85 inches x 1.89 inches
8
A patient weighing 120 lbs was
administered 2.1 grams of a drug that
was intended to be dosed at 30 mg/
kg. What can you say about the dose
administered?
Overdose
9
Aminophylline solution, when exposed
to air, may develop:
Crystals of theophylline
10
Which of these hypoglycemic drugs can
cause weight loss?
Metformin
11
Which of the following is the reason why
the drug Sumatriptan was prescribed to
a patient?
For cluster headaches
12
Which of the following refers to an
acquired abnormal response that is
not expected to result from a known
pharmacologic response, mediated by
immunological mechanisms?
Hypersensitivity reaction
13
Which of the following will NOT facilitate
drug absorption?
I. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be
absorbed in its hydrophobic form in
an environment that has low pH
II. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be
absorbed in its hydrophilic form in an
environment that has low pH
III. For a weakly basic drug, it must
be absorbed in its polar form in an
alkaline environment
IV. For a weakly basic drug, it must be
absorbed in its nonpolar form in an
alkaline environment
II, III
14
Which of the following is/are true
regarding the condition BPH?
I. It is a malignancy in the prostate
II. It can be treated using alpha blockers
III. It presents with an elevated PSA
II, III
15
Miconazole is a potent inhibitor of
CYP2C9. What would be the resulting
effect when a topical preparation
(cream) of Miconazole interacts with
another drug that will be metabolized
by CYP2C9?
No interaction is likely to happen since systemic absorption of Miconazole from the cream is so low
16
The following are manifestations of
chemical incompatibility, EXCEPT:
immiscibility
17
Physicochemical incompatibilities can
be detected by:
I. Change in color
II. Formation of precipitate
III. Evolution of gas
I, II, III
18
Varenicline is a drug used for _____.
Smoking cessation
19
Which of the following BEST describes
the drug interaction between anti-TB
medications?
Synergism
20
Tina is taking ampalaya supplements.
This may potentially have an additive
pharmacodynamic effect with what
medication she is taking?
Antidiabetic drugs
21
Which of the following refer to drugs
that bear a” heightened risk” of causing
significant patient harm when used in
error?
High alert medications
22
A diabetic patient suffering from
hypertension is having Enalapril.
However, he complained of sever dry
cough which has been associated to
the drug. Which would be the best
alternative for Enalapril for this patient?
Losartan
23
Senolytic drugs are also known as:
Anti-aging drugs
24
A patient who is planning to travel
is inquiring on when to take the
Meclizine tablet. Which of the following
information is accurate?
Take 1 hour before travel
25
What characteristic of Dopamine is
an important advantage in its use in
cardiogenic shock?
Produces dose-dependent increases in cardiac output and renal perfusion
26
In drug interaction references, “drug
affected by the interaction” is referred to
as the _____.
Object drug
27
Which insulin consists of a 14-Carbon
fatty acid?
Insulin Detemir
28
Which of the following may cause drug-
induced “kernicterus” in the neonates?
Sulfisoxazole
29
A patient was diagnosed to have
allergies to beta lactam antibiotics.
Which of the following is not a beta
lactam antibiotic to which the patient
may not be allergic to?
Doxycycline
30
The pharmacist was reviewing a new
order of Aldactone for a patient who is
receiving an ACE inhibitor. Which of the
following significant interactions should
be noted by the pharmacist?
Both drugs may interact to cause an elevation in blood potassium levels
31
Which of the following conditions may
contribute to drug administration
errors?
I. Failure to check the patient’s identity
prior to administration
II. Counterchecking of the drug by a
second nurse prior to administration
III. Storage of look-alike preparations side
by side in the patient’s medication
cabinet
I, III
32
Which of the following is/are opioid
IV preparations that can be used to
produce a general anesthetic effect?
I. Meperidine
II. Thiopental
III. Midazolam
I
33
What adverse effect may result in the
intake of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?
Rhabdomyolysis
34
A patient presented a prescription of
penicillin and probenecid, which of the
following effects of drug interaction will
most likely occur?
Probenecid blocks the active tubular secretion; increase in penicillin half-life
35
A patient presented a prescription of
penicillin and probenecid, which of the
following effects of drug interaction will
most likely occur?
Classify the type of drug interaction: .
Pharmacokinetic: Excretion
36
Digoxin toxicity due to the depletion
of electrolytes brought by intake of
diuretics is an example of ___________
Pharmacodynamic interaction
37
Which of the following has been found
to reduce sleep onset latency in many
sleep-related disorders in both adults
and children?
Melatonin
38
What is the interaction between
Warfarin and Vitamin K?
Antagonistic
39
Which of the following is INCORRECT for
extended-release products?
They have shorter intervals for succeeding doses
40
Which of the following will facilitate
excretion?
I. For a weakly acidic drug, it will be
excreted in its hydrophobic form in an
environment that has low pH
II. For a weakly acidic drug, it will be
excreted in its hydrophilic form in an
environment that has high pH
III. For a weakly basic drug, it will be
excreted in its polar form in an acidic
environment
IV. For a weakly basic drug, it will be
excreted in its nonpolar form in an
alkaline environment
II, III
41
The following are manifestations of EPS (EXTRAPYRAMIDAL SYNDROME)
EXCEPT:
I. Akinesia
II. Anuria
III. Akathisia
II
42
A patient took ginseng while on
Warfarin therapy in hopes of alleviating
his condition. What effect may occur
after?
Patient is at risk for bleeding
43
Taking Griseofulvin with high fatty meal
will most likely result to _______.
Increase in the absorption of Griseofulvin
44
What would be the mechanism of
interaction between drinking alcohol
and taking CNS depressants?
Pharmacodynamic: Additive
45
The serum creatinine of a 65-year-old
female weighing 150 lbs was 1.5 mg/dL.
What is her creatinine clearance?
40.2 mL/minute
46
Which of the following drugs would
be best subjected to Therapeutic Drug
Monitoring?
I. Phenytoin
II. Gentamicin
III. Carbamazepine
I, II, III
47
Which of the following hormones
is detected in the urine of pregnant
women?
Human chorionic gonadotropin
48
Which of the following is NOT indicated
for motion sickness?
Memantine
49
A patient was prescribed the drug
Febuxostat and asked you, the
pharmacist, regarding its use. She
showed you her laboratory result. Which
of the following results in her laboratory
examination is the reason for the
prescription of this drug?
High uric acid
50
The healthcare provider administered
Naloxone for a patient at the Emergency
Room. Which of the following physical
assessment data would be most
important to indicate that the drug has
been effective?
Respiratory rate has normalized
51
Which of the following medications can
INCREASE the likelihood of patient fall?
I. Zolpidem
II. Loratadine
III. Olanzapine
I, III
52
Which of the following deficiencies
is/are the most common cause/s of
megaloblastic anemia?
I. Fe Deficiency
II. Vitamin B12 Deficiency
III. Folic Acid Deficiency
II and III
53
For medical information sources, what
category would journal articles belong?
Primary literature
54
A new test for HIV does not detect the
presence of the virus in someone who is
infected. This is known as a ______.
False negative result
55
Which of the following is hypertonic to
the blood?
9% NaCl solution
56
The pharmacy received a prescription
for Rosuvastatin. Which of the following
parameters should be monitored by the
patient in relation to a known adverse
effect of this drug?
Liver function test
57
Increased levels of which of the following
may be associated with a decreased risk
of atherosclerosis?
High-density lipoprotein
58
Which of the following refers to the
science that evaluates the value of a
pharmaceutical product or drug therapy
compared to its effects?
Pharmacoeconomics
59
In a drug interaction scenario, what
would BEST describe the result if Drug A
induced the metabolism of Drug B?
Decrease in the blood concentration of Drug B
60
Which of the following drugs INCREASE
the clearance of another drug?
I. Grapefruit juice
II. Phenytoin
III. Chronic alcoholism
IV. Carbamazepine
II, III, IV
61
Which of the following is the correct
Tall Man lettering for Dopamine and
Dobutamine?
DOPamine, DOBUTamine
62
Which of the following are microvascular
complications related to diabetes
resulting from poor glycemic control
due to non-compliance to the treatment
plan?
I. Retinopathy
II. Nephropathy
III. Cardiomegaly
I, II
63
Which of the following medications is
most likely to cause drug interactions
and endocrine side effects?
Cimetidine
64
Which of the following medicines will
bring down the patient’s cholesterol
levels?
I. Atorvastatin
II. Cholestyramine
III. Fenofibrate
AOTA
65
Which of the following procedures
/ equipment is used to determine
pulmonary function?
Peak flow measurement
66
Medication distribution system that is
considered the most advantageous in
hospital setting:
Unit dose drug delivery system
67
The purpose of the Pharmacy and
Therapeutics Committee are the
following:
Advisory and educational
68
Secretary of the Pharmacy and
Therapeutic Committee:
Pharmacist
69
Which of the following opioids does NOT
require an S2 license?
Tramadol
70
The pharmacist was asked to compare
Amoxicillin and Ampicillin. Which of
the following statements are TRUE
regarding the two?
I. They both have similar spectrum of
activity
II. Hypersensitivity reactions may occur
for both
III. Ampicillin is better absorbed orally
compared to Amoxicillin
I, II
71
List the three types of cautions found
in drug product inserts from MOST to
LEAST serious:
I. Precaution
II. Contraindication
III. Warning
II, III, I
72
Which of the following needles has the
smallest diameter?
30G x ½ in
73
Which of the following is/are TRUE
regarding IV glutathione?
I. It affects the production of melatonin
II. Its approved indication by FDA
Philippines is as adjunct in Cisplatin
chemotherapy
III. Its approved indication by FDA
Philippines is for skin lightening
II
74
Botulinum A toxin is indicated for ______.
Cosmetic purposes
75
The pharmacist was asked to explain the
difference between THROMBOLYTICS
and ANTI-THROMBOTIC agents and to
give an example. Which of the following
is the CORRECT response?
Thrombolytics dissolves clots example is Reteplase, while antithrombotic reduces thrombus formation example is Aspirin
76
In monitoring the inventory of drugs at
the pharmacy, which of the following
transactions will DECREASE the “Stock-
on-Hand” of a certain drug?
I. Receiving of a delivery from the
supplier
II. Dispensing of the drug to the patient
III. Returning the drug to the supplier
after a recall order
II, III
77
Quinidine sulfate 200 mg capsule and
Quinidine sulfate 200 mg tablet are
_____ products.
Pharmaceutical alternative
78
Drugs with names ending in “-sartan”
belong to what classification?
ACE Inhibitor
79
Which of the following should be
made available as regular stock items
at the hospital pharmacy intended for
pediatric in-patients?
I. Infant formula for newborn babies
II. Oral liquid formulation such as drops
and suspensions
III. Preparations with flavors to cater to
preference of patient
IV. Various preparations of food
supplements
II, III, IV
80
Which drug inventory system follows
a procedure in which each peripheral
facility identifies the drug quantities to
be “requisitioned” from the procurement
unit or warehouse?
Pull system
81
Which of the following components
of parenteral nutrition is/are
micronutrients?
I. Electrolytes
II. Dextrose
III. Triglycerides
I
82
The following are characteristics of a
PPN, EXCEPT:
I. Administered through a central venous
catheter
II. Two types of solutions are commonly
used
III. It is used in an extended period of
intensive nutritional support
IV. Low glucose concentration
I, III
83
Peripheral vein injection may be
considered a suitable route for IV
administration when _______.
I. A non-irritating drug is given
II. Given as a short-term therapy
III. Hypertonic solutions are given
I, II
84
Which of the following statements are
TRUE regarding “palliative care” for cancer
patients?
I. Provides relief from pain and other
distressing symptoms
II. Integrates the psychological and
spiritual aspects of patient care
III. Addresses cure for the disease such as
the surgical removal of the tumor
I, II
85
Which of the following parameters
should be considered when storing
medications?
I. Temperature
II. Air velocity
III. Particle count
IV. Relative humidity
I, IV
86
What is referred to as enzyme inhibitor
in the entry Ampicillin + Sulbactam?
Sulbactam
87
How many percent (%) belongs to the
category of Cephalosporin?
54.8
88
How many percent (%) belongs to the
category of Aminoglycoside?
3.9
89
If the dose prescribed is 20mg/kg/day
every 12 hours, what will be the daily
dose if the patient weighs 40 kg?
1600 mg
90
The dose of the patient was changed
to Clarithromycin 125mg/mL one
tablespoon twice a day for 7 days and
was advised to go home. If only the 35
mL bottle prescription is available how
many bottles are needed to complete
the whole regimen?
6 bottles
91
Which of the following medications was
prescribed for immediate relief for her
difficulty of breathing?
Ipratropium bromide
92
Upon admission, the doctor prescribed
Doxycycline to the patient. Which of
the medications the patient is currently
taking will affect its absorption?
I. Warfarin
II. Aluminum magnesium hydroxide
III. Ferrous sulfate
IV. Vitamin C
II, III
93
Upon discharge, the Attending Physician (AP) ordered that his medications during his hospitalization be continued and added the drug Lipitor. What can the pharmacist provide for this medication order in relation to Simvastatin that the patient is currently taking?
Refer to the AP for possible changes in the discharged medications since there is therapeutic duplication for the 2 drugs
94
Which of the following is important in
monitoring the effects of heparin?
aPTT
95
Which of the following drugs belongs to
the same pharmacologic class as Drug
LMWH (Low Molecular Weight Heparin)?
Enoxaparin
96
Which of the following would be the
indication of Drug LMH to the patient?
DVT treatment
97
What is the usual ROA of LMWH?
Subcutaneous
98
The patient was given a central
anesthetic drug administered through
inhalation. Which of the following is the
agent given to the patient?
Sevoflurane
99
Which of the following is/are non-opioids
IV preparations that can be used to
produce general anesthesia?
I. Meperidine
II. Thiopental
III. Midazolam
II, III
100
During the rounds of a clinical
pharmacist, the patient asked her why
he was prescribed Fondaparinux after
his surgery. Which of the following is the
correct response?
It is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation
Module 2 Part 1
Module 2 Part 1
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 2 Part 1
Module 2 Part 1
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 1
Module 1
ユーザ名非公開 · 13問 · 1年前Module 1
Module 1
13問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2
Module 2
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 2
Module 2
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Antibiotics
Antibiotics
ユーザ名非公開 · 10問 · 1年前Antibiotics
Antibiotics
10問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2 Part 2
Module 2 Part 2
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 2 Part 2
Module 2 Part 2
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2 (Part 2)
Module 2 (Part 2)
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 2 (Part 2)
Module 2 (Part 2)
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2 Part 3
Module 2 Part 3
ユーザ名非公開 · 85問 · 1年前Module 2 Part 3
Module 2 Part 3
85問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 4
Module 4
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 4
Module 4
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 4 Part 2
Module 4 Part 2
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 4 Part 2
Module 4 Part 2
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 4 Part 3
Module 4 Part 3
ユーザ名非公開 · 60問 · 1年前Module 4 Part 3
Module 4 Part 3
60問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2 (Part 4)
Module 2 (Part 4)
ユーザ名非公開 · 68問 · 1年前Module 2 (Part 4)
Module 2 (Part 4)
68問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Randome Questions
Randome Questions
ユーザ名非公開 · 13問 · 1年前Randome Questions
Randome Questions
13問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
1
1
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前1
1
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2 (Part 5)
Module 2 (Part 5)
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 2 (Part 5)
Module 2 (Part 5)
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
2
2
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前2
2
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2 (Part 6)
Module 2 (Part 6)
ユーザ名非公開 · 68問 · 1年前Module 2 (Part 6)
Module 2 (Part 6)
68問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 4 Part 1
Module 4 Part 1
ユーザ名非公開 · 5問 · 1年前Module 4 Part 1
Module 4 Part 1
5問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
問題一覧
1
The usual dose range of Dimercaprol is
2.5-5 mg/kg of body weight. What would
be the dose range for a person weighing
165 lbs?
0.187 g – 0.375 g
2
If a drug inhaler contains 20 mg of the
active drug, how many inhalation doses
can be delivered if each inhalation dose
contains 90 micrograms?
222 doses
3
John was smoking 28 sticks of cigarettes
per day for about 43 years. Calculate the
smoker’s pack year history.
60 pack years
4
What would be the selling price of a
compounded product if the following
base costs were computed:
1. Labor (15 minutes) – Php 28.95
2. Supplies – Php 27.90
3. Electricity – Php 1.50
4. Depreciation cost of equipment to be
used – Php 84.20
Mark up is at 60%.
Php 227.88
5
The physician ordered an infusion of
NSS 500 mL in 3 hours using a 15 drops/
mL set. With 1½ hours remaining, you
discover that only 150 mL is left in the
bag. At what rate in drops per minute
will the infusion be reset?
20 drops/min
6
A nutritional product contains 10 grams
of carbohydrates, 15 grams of proteins,
and 5 grams of fat in each 100-mL
serving. What is the caloric content of
one serving?
145 kcal
7
The dimensions of the Nicotine
transdermal patch system are 4.7
cm by 4.8 cm. What would be the
corresponding dimensions in inches?
1.85 inches x 1.89 inches
8
A patient weighing 120 lbs was
administered 2.1 grams of a drug that
was intended to be dosed at 30 mg/
kg. What can you say about the dose
administered?
Overdose
9
Aminophylline solution, when exposed
to air, may develop:
Crystals of theophylline
10
Which of these hypoglycemic drugs can
cause weight loss?
Metformin
11
Which of the following is the reason why
the drug Sumatriptan was prescribed to
a patient?
For cluster headaches
12
Which of the following refers to an
acquired abnormal response that is
not expected to result from a known
pharmacologic response, mediated by
immunological mechanisms?
Hypersensitivity reaction
13
Which of the following will NOT facilitate
drug absorption?
I. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be
absorbed in its hydrophobic form in
an environment that has low pH
II. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be
absorbed in its hydrophilic form in an
environment that has low pH
III. For a weakly basic drug, it must
be absorbed in its polar form in an
alkaline environment
IV. For a weakly basic drug, it must be
absorbed in its nonpolar form in an
alkaline environment
II, III
14
Which of the following is/are true
regarding the condition BPH?
I. It is a malignancy in the prostate
II. It can be treated using alpha blockers
III. It presents with an elevated PSA
II, III
15
Miconazole is a potent inhibitor of
CYP2C9. What would be the resulting
effect when a topical preparation
(cream) of Miconazole interacts with
another drug that will be metabolized
by CYP2C9?
No interaction is likely to happen since systemic absorption of Miconazole from the cream is so low
16
The following are manifestations of
chemical incompatibility, EXCEPT:
immiscibility
17
Physicochemical incompatibilities can
be detected by:
I. Change in color
II. Formation of precipitate
III. Evolution of gas
I, II, III
18
Varenicline is a drug used for _____.
Smoking cessation
19
Which of the following BEST describes
the drug interaction between anti-TB
medications?
Synergism
20
Tina is taking ampalaya supplements.
This may potentially have an additive
pharmacodynamic effect with what
medication she is taking?
Antidiabetic drugs
21
Which of the following refer to drugs
that bear a” heightened risk” of causing
significant patient harm when used in
error?
High alert medications
22
A diabetic patient suffering from
hypertension is having Enalapril.
However, he complained of sever dry
cough which has been associated to
the drug. Which would be the best
alternative for Enalapril for this patient?
Losartan
23
Senolytic drugs are also known as:
Anti-aging drugs
24
A patient who is planning to travel
is inquiring on when to take the
Meclizine tablet. Which of the following
information is accurate?
Take 1 hour before travel
25
What characteristic of Dopamine is
an important advantage in its use in
cardiogenic shock?
Produces dose-dependent increases in cardiac output and renal perfusion
26
In drug interaction references, “drug
affected by the interaction” is referred to
as the _____.
Object drug
27
Which insulin consists of a 14-Carbon
fatty acid?
Insulin Detemir
28
Which of the following may cause drug-
induced “kernicterus” in the neonates?
Sulfisoxazole
29
A patient was diagnosed to have
allergies to beta lactam antibiotics.
Which of the following is not a beta
lactam antibiotic to which the patient
may not be allergic to?
Doxycycline
30
The pharmacist was reviewing a new
order of Aldactone for a patient who is
receiving an ACE inhibitor. Which of the
following significant interactions should
be noted by the pharmacist?
Both drugs may interact to cause an elevation in blood potassium levels
31
Which of the following conditions may
contribute to drug administration
errors?
I. Failure to check the patient’s identity
prior to administration
II. Counterchecking of the drug by a
second nurse prior to administration
III. Storage of look-alike preparations side
by side in the patient’s medication
cabinet
I, III
32
Which of the following is/are opioid
IV preparations that can be used to
produce a general anesthetic effect?
I. Meperidine
II. Thiopental
III. Midazolam
I
33
What adverse effect may result in the
intake of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?
Rhabdomyolysis
34
A patient presented a prescription of
penicillin and probenecid, which of the
following effects of drug interaction will
most likely occur?
Probenecid blocks the active tubular secretion; increase in penicillin half-life
35
A patient presented a prescription of
penicillin and probenecid, which of the
following effects of drug interaction will
most likely occur?
Classify the type of drug interaction: .
Pharmacokinetic: Excretion
36
Digoxin toxicity due to the depletion
of electrolytes brought by intake of
diuretics is an example of ___________
Pharmacodynamic interaction
37
Which of the following has been found
to reduce sleep onset latency in many
sleep-related disorders in both adults
and children?
Melatonin
38
What is the interaction between
Warfarin and Vitamin K?
Antagonistic
39
Which of the following is INCORRECT for
extended-release products?
They have shorter intervals for succeeding doses
40
Which of the following will facilitate
excretion?
I. For a weakly acidic drug, it will be
excreted in its hydrophobic form in an
environment that has low pH
II. For a weakly acidic drug, it will be
excreted in its hydrophilic form in an
environment that has high pH
III. For a weakly basic drug, it will be
excreted in its polar form in an acidic
environment
IV. For a weakly basic drug, it will be
excreted in its nonpolar form in an
alkaline environment
II, III
41
The following are manifestations of EPS (EXTRAPYRAMIDAL SYNDROME)
EXCEPT:
I. Akinesia
II. Anuria
III. Akathisia
II
42
A patient took ginseng while on
Warfarin therapy in hopes of alleviating
his condition. What effect may occur
after?
Patient is at risk for bleeding
43
Taking Griseofulvin with high fatty meal
will most likely result to _______.
Increase in the absorption of Griseofulvin
44
What would be the mechanism of
interaction between drinking alcohol
and taking CNS depressants?
Pharmacodynamic: Additive
45
The serum creatinine of a 65-year-old
female weighing 150 lbs was 1.5 mg/dL.
What is her creatinine clearance?
40.2 mL/minute
46
Which of the following drugs would
be best subjected to Therapeutic Drug
Monitoring?
I. Phenytoin
II. Gentamicin
III. Carbamazepine
I, II, III
47
Which of the following hormones
is detected in the urine of pregnant
women?
Human chorionic gonadotropin
48
Which of the following is NOT indicated
for motion sickness?
Memantine
49
A patient was prescribed the drug
Febuxostat and asked you, the
pharmacist, regarding its use. She
showed you her laboratory result. Which
of the following results in her laboratory
examination is the reason for the
prescription of this drug?
High uric acid
50
The healthcare provider administered
Naloxone for a patient at the Emergency
Room. Which of the following physical
assessment data would be most
important to indicate that the drug has
been effective?
Respiratory rate has normalized
51
Which of the following medications can
INCREASE the likelihood of patient fall?
I. Zolpidem
II. Loratadine
III. Olanzapine
I, III
52
Which of the following deficiencies
is/are the most common cause/s of
megaloblastic anemia?
I. Fe Deficiency
II. Vitamin B12 Deficiency
III. Folic Acid Deficiency
II and III
53
For medical information sources, what
category would journal articles belong?
Primary literature
54
A new test for HIV does not detect the
presence of the virus in someone who is
infected. This is known as a ______.
False negative result
55
Which of the following is hypertonic to
the blood?
9% NaCl solution
56
The pharmacy received a prescription
for Rosuvastatin. Which of the following
parameters should be monitored by the
patient in relation to a known adverse
effect of this drug?
Liver function test
57
Increased levels of which of the following
may be associated with a decreased risk
of atherosclerosis?
High-density lipoprotein
58
Which of the following refers to the
science that evaluates the value of a
pharmaceutical product or drug therapy
compared to its effects?
Pharmacoeconomics
59
In a drug interaction scenario, what
would BEST describe the result if Drug A
induced the metabolism of Drug B?
Decrease in the blood concentration of Drug B
60
Which of the following drugs INCREASE
the clearance of another drug?
I. Grapefruit juice
II. Phenytoin
III. Chronic alcoholism
IV. Carbamazepine
II, III, IV
61
Which of the following is the correct
Tall Man lettering for Dopamine and
Dobutamine?
DOPamine, DOBUTamine
62
Which of the following are microvascular
complications related to diabetes
resulting from poor glycemic control
due to non-compliance to the treatment
plan?
I. Retinopathy
II. Nephropathy
III. Cardiomegaly
I, II
63
Which of the following medications is
most likely to cause drug interactions
and endocrine side effects?
Cimetidine
64
Which of the following medicines will
bring down the patient’s cholesterol
levels?
I. Atorvastatin
II. Cholestyramine
III. Fenofibrate
AOTA
65
Which of the following procedures
/ equipment is used to determine
pulmonary function?
Peak flow measurement
66
Medication distribution system that is
considered the most advantageous in
hospital setting:
Unit dose drug delivery system
67
The purpose of the Pharmacy and
Therapeutics Committee are the
following:
Advisory and educational
68
Secretary of the Pharmacy and
Therapeutic Committee:
Pharmacist
69
Which of the following opioids does NOT
require an S2 license?
Tramadol
70
The pharmacist was asked to compare
Amoxicillin and Ampicillin. Which of
the following statements are TRUE
regarding the two?
I. They both have similar spectrum of
activity
II. Hypersensitivity reactions may occur
for both
III. Ampicillin is better absorbed orally
compared to Amoxicillin
I, II
71
List the three types of cautions found
in drug product inserts from MOST to
LEAST serious:
I. Precaution
II. Contraindication
III. Warning
II, III, I
72
Which of the following needles has the
smallest diameter?
30G x ½ in
73
Which of the following is/are TRUE
regarding IV glutathione?
I. It affects the production of melatonin
II. Its approved indication by FDA
Philippines is as adjunct in Cisplatin
chemotherapy
III. Its approved indication by FDA
Philippines is for skin lightening
II
74
Botulinum A toxin is indicated for ______.
Cosmetic purposes
75
The pharmacist was asked to explain the
difference between THROMBOLYTICS
and ANTI-THROMBOTIC agents and to
give an example. Which of the following
is the CORRECT response?
Thrombolytics dissolves clots example is Reteplase, while antithrombotic reduces thrombus formation example is Aspirin
76
In monitoring the inventory of drugs at
the pharmacy, which of the following
transactions will DECREASE the “Stock-
on-Hand” of a certain drug?
I. Receiving of a delivery from the
supplier
II. Dispensing of the drug to the patient
III. Returning the drug to the supplier
after a recall order
II, III
77
Quinidine sulfate 200 mg capsule and
Quinidine sulfate 200 mg tablet are
_____ products.
Pharmaceutical alternative
78
Drugs with names ending in “-sartan”
belong to what classification?
ACE Inhibitor
79
Which of the following should be
made available as regular stock items
at the hospital pharmacy intended for
pediatric in-patients?
I. Infant formula for newborn babies
II. Oral liquid formulation such as drops
and suspensions
III. Preparations with flavors to cater to
preference of patient
IV. Various preparations of food
supplements
II, III, IV
80
Which drug inventory system follows
a procedure in which each peripheral
facility identifies the drug quantities to
be “requisitioned” from the procurement
unit or warehouse?
Pull system
81
Which of the following components
of parenteral nutrition is/are
micronutrients?
I. Electrolytes
II. Dextrose
III. Triglycerides
I
82
The following are characteristics of a
PPN, EXCEPT:
I. Administered through a central venous
catheter
II. Two types of solutions are commonly
used
III. It is used in an extended period of
intensive nutritional support
IV. Low glucose concentration
I, III
83
Peripheral vein injection may be
considered a suitable route for IV
administration when _______.
I. A non-irritating drug is given
II. Given as a short-term therapy
III. Hypertonic solutions are given
I, II
84
Which of the following statements are
TRUE regarding “palliative care” for cancer
patients?
I. Provides relief from pain and other
distressing symptoms
II. Integrates the psychological and
spiritual aspects of patient care
III. Addresses cure for the disease such as
the surgical removal of the tumor
I, II
85
Which of the following parameters
should be considered when storing
medications?
I. Temperature
II. Air velocity
III. Particle count
IV. Relative humidity
I, IV
86
What is referred to as enzyme inhibitor
in the entry Ampicillin + Sulbactam?
Sulbactam
87
How many percent (%) belongs to the
category of Cephalosporin?
54.8
88
How many percent (%) belongs to the
category of Aminoglycoside?
3.9
89
If the dose prescribed is 20mg/kg/day
every 12 hours, what will be the daily
dose if the patient weighs 40 kg?
1600 mg
90
The dose of the patient was changed
to Clarithromycin 125mg/mL one
tablespoon twice a day for 7 days and
was advised to go home. If only the 35
mL bottle prescription is available how
many bottles are needed to complete
the whole regimen?
6 bottles
91
Which of the following medications was
prescribed for immediate relief for her
difficulty of breathing?
Ipratropium bromide
92
Upon admission, the doctor prescribed
Doxycycline to the patient. Which of
the medications the patient is currently
taking will affect its absorption?
I. Warfarin
II. Aluminum magnesium hydroxide
III. Ferrous sulfate
IV. Vitamin C
II, III
93
Upon discharge, the Attending Physician (AP) ordered that his medications during his hospitalization be continued and added the drug Lipitor. What can the pharmacist provide for this medication order in relation to Simvastatin that the patient is currently taking?
Refer to the AP for possible changes in the discharged medications since there is therapeutic duplication for the 2 drugs
94
Which of the following is important in
monitoring the effects of heparin?
aPTT
95
Which of the following drugs belongs to
the same pharmacologic class as Drug
LMWH (Low Molecular Weight Heparin)?
Enoxaparin
96
Which of the following would be the
indication of Drug LMH to the patient?
DVT treatment
97
What is the usual ROA of LMWH?
Subcutaneous
98
The patient was given a central
anesthetic drug administered through
inhalation. Which of the following is the
agent given to the patient?
Sevoflurane
99
Which of the following is/are non-opioids
IV preparations that can be used to
produce general anesthesia?
I. Meperidine
II. Thiopental
III. Midazolam
II, III
100
During the rounds of a clinical
pharmacist, the patient asked her why
he was prescribed Fondaparinux after
his surgery. Which of the following is the
correct response?
It is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation