問題一覧
1
The first recognized representative of the
pharmaceutical profession.
Hospital pharmacist
2
The following are categorized under
specialty hospital, except
East Avenue Medical Center
3
A hospital with a dialysis clinic falls under
what classification of general hospital?
Level 3
4
Nursing homes belong to what category of health facilities?
Category B
5
Category C of health facilities according to AO 2012-0012
Diagnostic/Therapeutic
6
The active medical staff consists of
individuals who are being considered for
advancement to the associate medical
staff. Courtesy medical staff consists of
practitioners who are eligible for staff
membership, who are given privileges to
admit an occasional patient to the hospital.
Second statement is correct
7
Former staff members
Honorary medical staff
8
Inventory system in a hospital pharmacy
should be maintained adopting:
Both
9
Required area for a pharmacy in a hospital
with 25 bed capacity:
30 sq. m.
10
Include costs of emergency room and clinic visits, hospital readmission, and death
Clinical outcomes
11
Include patient satisfaction and quality-of-life assessment
Humanistic outcomes
12
Applied when comparing two drugs of equal efficacy and equal tolerability.
CMA
13
It measures the consequences in terms of
the quality adjusted life year (QALY) gained.
CUA
14
Members of the Pharmacy Therapeutics
Committee (PTC) shall be composed
of experts from different major clinical
departments. Officio or non-voting
members shall be the chief nurse,
administrator, and medical officer from
Philippine Health Insurance (PHIC).
First statement is correct
15
The following describes the pharmacist as a member of the PTC, except
NOTA
16
Primary purpose of PTC
Advisory & Educational
17
Cornerstone of drug management in the
hospital. Principal concern of PTC.
Hospital Formulary
18
List of drugs that meets the health care
needs of the majority of the population
Core List
19
Drug distribution system generally used by small and/or private hospitals
Individual prescription order
20
Method of UDDDS where drugs are
distributed to patients taken from satellite
pharmacies
Decentralized
21
Any preventable event that may cause or
lead to inappropriate medication use or
patient harm while the medication is in
the control of the health-care professional, patient, or consumer.
Medication error
22
Nurse Roz failed to chart a drug that
was ordered for a patient. What type of
medication error did she commit?
I. Prescribing error
II. Dispensing error
III. Administration/Medication error
IV. Omission
lll, & lV
23
Pharmacist Shaina failed to spot an error
made by the physician and proceeded to a supply error. What type of medication error
did she commit?
I. Prescribing error
II. Dispensing error
III. Administration/Medication error
IV. Omission
ll only
24
Marasmus is a result of a deficiency in total caloric intake. Kwashiorkor is an acute process that can develop within weeks and is associated with visceral protein depletion
Both statements are correct
25
The major reason for use of the
central venous TPN rather than the
peripheral route is the development
of thrombophlebitis. A central venous
route can be used when the dextrose
concentration is 10% or less.
First statement is correct
26
Preferred for administration of irritating
drugs or hypertonic solutions
Both Subclavian and Central
27
This intermittent infusion method
eliminates the need for a second
venipuncture or further dilution of the
supplementary preparation.
Piggyback
28
Which of the following compounded sterile products should NOT be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood?
Cisplatin
29
Ringer’s injection
I. Na lactate III. KCl
II. NaCl IV. CaCl2
II, lll, & lV
30
Irrigating solution used in the dialysis of
patients
Dialysate
31
Major intracellular ion
Both Potassium and Phosphorus
32
Which of the following needle gauges has
the largest shaft diameter?
20 G, 3 ½ inches
33
Decreased BUN may indicate
Hepatic damage
34
Detectable after a myocardial infarction
CK-MB
35
Increased in parasitic infections and allergic reactions
Eosinophils
36
A pregnant patient is diagnosed with
hypertension. She is prescribed with a drug to manage her condition. What could be this drug that produces a positive coombs’
test?
Methyldopa
37
Which diagnostic test may be useful for a
patient on statin therapy?
I. AST III. SGPT
II. ALT IV. SGOT
l, ll, lll, & lV
38
Can give rise to hypercalcemia
I. High PTH III. Thiazide diuretics
II. Low PTH IV. Loop diuretics
l & lll
39
A 50-year-old man presents with
bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L. All of the
following could be a cause of his low
bicarbonate level except
Diuretic therapy
40
Cyanide
Asphyxiant
41
Injection into the spinal fluid
Intrathecal
42
IV preparation having a volume of 500 mL
Large volume parenterals
43
Indications of Total Parenteral Nutrition
(TPN)
I. Crohn’s disease
II. Acute diarrhea
III. Bowel obstruction
l & lll
44
Fetal hydantoin syndrome falls under what
ADR classification?
Type D
45
ADR classification of counterfeit drugs
Type F
46
Medication error that resulted in need for
treatment or intervention and caused
temporary patient harm.
Category E
47
Medication error that resulted in need
for increased patient monitoring but no
patient harm
Category D
48
According to the New York Heart
Association (NYHA) classification of
functional limitations for heart failure
patients, if the degree of effort necessary
to elicit HF symptoms equals those that
would limit normal individuals, then this
patient belongs to
Class I
49
The following are subjective data, except
Respiratory rate
50
James has smoked 15 cigarette sticks a day for 20 years. What is his smoking pack-
years?
15
51
Phase of clinical trials involving healthy
human subjects
Phase 1
52
Use of investigational new drug on a limited number of patients.
Phase 2
53
Primary literature includes which of the
following?
I. Clinical trials IV. Compendia
II. PubMed V. Textbooks
III. Journals
I & III
54
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tertiary resources?
Tertiary resources include textbooks and computer databases.
55
Gold standard trial design as it can strongly
established causality
RCT
56
Rx means
AOTA
57
“Shake Well”
AOTA
58
The following are associated with errors
when written on the medication order,
except:
Warfarin 0.5 mg
59
Which of the following shows a correct tall-man lettering?
I. hydrOXYZINE III. hydrALAZINE
II. HYDROXYzine IV. HYDRALAzine
l & lll
60
Right ear
a.d.
61
ss.
one-half
62
Shall not be filled, except
Erroneous Rx
63
Only generic name is written but is not
legible
Impossible Rx
64
Rx
Nifedipine (Norvasc)
30 mg tab # 60
Sig. 1 tab a day
Impossible Rx
65
A precipitant drug is the drug, chemical,
or food element causing the interaction.
An object drug is the drug affected by the
interaction.
Both statements are correct
66
A drug interaction that could occur; limited data are available.
Possible
67
A drug interaction that is very likely but
might not be proven clinically
Probable
68
Zolpidem + Midazolam falls under what type of drug interactions?
Pharmacodynamic
69
The following are true for a drug interaction
involving tranylcypromine, except
Has pharmacodynamic interaction with avocado
70
Milk + Levofloxacin
I. Pharmacokinetic
II. Pharmacodynamic
III. Biopharmaceutical
l & lll
71
A patient with iron deficiency anemia is
taking ferrous sulfate and concurrently
undergoing antimicrobial therapy,
specifically prescribed tetracycline. The
following are not true, except:
The hematinic can chelate the antibiotic
72
A patient on warfarin therapy takes
clarithromycin. Which of the following is a
possible occurrence?
Hemorrhage
73
Enzyme inducer
Chronic alcoholism
74
The following drugs are highly absorbed
following fatty food intake, except
I. Griseofulvin
II. Vitamin K
III. Vitamin C
Ill only
75
Which is true when Ketoconazole and
Magnesium hydroxide are taken together?
Failure in antifungal therapy
76
A TDM was done for a patient that exhibits recurrent infection. It was found out that the plasma level of an antibiotic given did not reach the desired concentration.
Which of the following can be a possible
reason?
Taking a supplement derived from sacred bark
77
The following are true regarding the fate of drugs in the intestinal flora, except:
Estrogen contraceptives are metabolized to inactive metabolites by the flora.
78
A patient was prescribed with anti-asthma
medications:
Theophylline Mometasone
Montelukast Terbutaline
Which of the following gives immediate
relief?
Terbutaline
79
Can be used in the management of BPH
Saw palmetto
80
This vasoconstrictor, in combination with
lidocaine, allows local anesthesia with
minimal bleeding and without systemic
absorption of the lidocaine while repairing
a skin wound.
Epinephrine
81
All of the following statements concerning
contraindications with chronic use of over-the-counter (OTC) analgesic agents are correct except which one?
Aspirin, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen are implicated in Reye syndrome
82
Indicated for neutropenia associated with
chemotherapy
Filgrastim
83
A 58-year-old white male who has a history of essential hypertension and bronchial asthma has recently been diagnosed with
prostatic hypertrophy. His medication
history includes the following drugs:
I. Propranolol IV. Finasteride
II. Ipratropium V. Prazosin
III. Metaproterenol
Which agent would be most likely to cause
postural hypotension?
V
84
A 22-year-old female presents with sneezing, watery and itchy eyes, and a runny nose.
She has no significant medical history,
but she is in the midst of final exams and
must remain alert. What would be the best recommendation for her symptoms?
Fexofenadine
85
BMI of 27.8 is considered
Overweight
86
A medication order calls for 1000 milliliters of a dextrose intravenous infusion to be administered over an 8-hour period. Using an intravenous administration set that
delivers 10 drops/milliliter, how many drops per minute should be delivered to the patient?
21 drops/min
87
Rx
Fluconazole tabs 100 mg
Disp. ____ tabs
Sig: tab ii stat, then 3 mg/kg b.i.d. × 7 days
thereafter.
Calculate the number of tablets to
dispense to a patient weighing 146 lb.
30
88
Medication Order:
heparin 15 units/kg/h.
Preparation Administered:
25,000 heparin units in 500 mL normal
saline solution.
Calculate:
infusion rate, in mL/h, for a 187-lb patient.
——-
89
Rx
Allopurinol ………..20 mg/mL
Cherry syrup …….60 mL
Methylcellulose suspension ad ….120 mL
Sig. Take one teaspoonful daily in am.
How many allopurinol 300-mg tablets
should be used in compounding this
prescription?
8 tabs
90
An empty 25-mL specific gravity bottle
weighs 21.04 g, 46.05 g when filled with
water, and 52.93 g when filled with the
syrup mixture. What is the specific gravity
of the syrup?
1.275
91
Calculate the creatinine clearance, using the Cockcroft-Gault equation, for a 35-year-old male patient, 68 inches tall, weighing 180 lb, and with a serum creatinine of 2.6 mg/
dL.
45.9 mL/min
92
The formula for Tolu balsam syrup NF is as follows:
Tolu balsam tincture 10 mL
Magnesium carbonate 2 g
Sucrose 164 g
Purified water qs 200 mL
How much magnesium carbonate would
be needed to prepare 4 fl.oz. of this
syrup?
1180 mg
93
To prepare 100 mL of a clarithromycin
suspension containing 125 mg/5 mL,
a pharmacist adds 55 mL of purified
water to the granules contained in the
commercial package. Calculate the
content of clarithromycin in the package,
in milligrams.
2500 mg
94
The package insert information for a 500-
mg vial of ceftriaxone sodium states that 1
mL of diluent should be added to produce
a final concentration of 350 mg/mL. How
much solution will have to be injected to
administer a 500-mg dose
1.43 mL
95
If an albuterol inhaler contains 20 mg of
albuterol, how many inhalation doses
can be delivered if each inhalation dose
contains 90 mcg?
222
96
If an injection containing a medication, 50
mg/10 mL, is diluted to 1 L, calculate the
percent strength of the resulting solution.
0.005%
97
How many milliliters of a 10% w/v stock
solution should be used in preparing 1
gallon of a 0.05% w/v solution?
18.9 mL
98
Convert 227.1 Fahrenheit to centigrade
108.4°C
99
Express 0.02% w/v as a ratio strength
1:500 w/v
100
3.76 gr is equivalent to
244, 400 mcg
Module 2 Part 1
Module 2 Part 1
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 2 Part 1
Module 2 Part 1
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 1
Module 1
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Module 1
13問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2
Module 2
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 2
Module 2
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Antibiotics
Antibiotics
ユーザ名非公開 · 10問 · 1年前Antibiotics
Antibiotics
10問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2 Part 2
Module 2 Part 2
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 2 Part 2
Module 2 Part 2
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2 (Part 2)
Module 2 (Part 2)
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 2 (Part 2)
Module 2 (Part 2)
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2 Part 3
Module 2 Part 3
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Module 2 Part 3
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Module 4
Module 4
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Module 4
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 4 Part 2
Module 4 Part 2
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 4 Part 2
Module 4 Part 2
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 4 Part 3
Module 4 Part 3
ユーザ名非公開 · 60問 · 1年前Module 4 Part 3
Module 4 Part 3
60問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2 (Part 4)
Module 2 (Part 4)
ユーザ名非公開 · 68問 · 1年前Module 2 (Part 4)
Module 2 (Part 4)
68問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Randome Questions
Randome Questions
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Randome Questions
13問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
1
1
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前1
1
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Module 2 (Part 5)
Module 2 (Part 5)
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前Module 2 (Part 5)
Module 2 (Part 5)
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
2
2
ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前2
2
100問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 2 (Part 6)
Module 2 (Part 6)
ユーザ名非公開 · 68問 · 1年前Module 2 (Part 6)
Module 2 (Part 6)
68問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
Module 4 Part 1
Module 4 Part 1
ユーザ名非公開 · 5問 · 1年前Module 4 Part 1
Module 4 Part 1
5問 • 1年前ユーザ名非公開
問題一覧
1
The first recognized representative of the
pharmaceutical profession.
Hospital pharmacist
2
The following are categorized under
specialty hospital, except
East Avenue Medical Center
3
A hospital with a dialysis clinic falls under
what classification of general hospital?
Level 3
4
Nursing homes belong to what category of health facilities?
Category B
5
Category C of health facilities according to AO 2012-0012
Diagnostic/Therapeutic
6
The active medical staff consists of
individuals who are being considered for
advancement to the associate medical
staff. Courtesy medical staff consists of
practitioners who are eligible for staff
membership, who are given privileges to
admit an occasional patient to the hospital.
Second statement is correct
7
Former staff members
Honorary medical staff
8
Inventory system in a hospital pharmacy
should be maintained adopting:
Both
9
Required area for a pharmacy in a hospital
with 25 bed capacity:
30 sq. m.
10
Include costs of emergency room and clinic visits, hospital readmission, and death
Clinical outcomes
11
Include patient satisfaction and quality-of-life assessment
Humanistic outcomes
12
Applied when comparing two drugs of equal efficacy and equal tolerability.
CMA
13
It measures the consequences in terms of
the quality adjusted life year (QALY) gained.
CUA
14
Members of the Pharmacy Therapeutics
Committee (PTC) shall be composed
of experts from different major clinical
departments. Officio or non-voting
members shall be the chief nurse,
administrator, and medical officer from
Philippine Health Insurance (PHIC).
First statement is correct
15
The following describes the pharmacist as a member of the PTC, except
NOTA
16
Primary purpose of PTC
Advisory & Educational
17
Cornerstone of drug management in the
hospital. Principal concern of PTC.
Hospital Formulary
18
List of drugs that meets the health care
needs of the majority of the population
Core List
19
Drug distribution system generally used by small and/or private hospitals
Individual prescription order
20
Method of UDDDS where drugs are
distributed to patients taken from satellite
pharmacies
Decentralized
21
Any preventable event that may cause or
lead to inappropriate medication use or
patient harm while the medication is in
the control of the health-care professional, patient, or consumer.
Medication error
22
Nurse Roz failed to chart a drug that
was ordered for a patient. What type of
medication error did she commit?
I. Prescribing error
II. Dispensing error
III. Administration/Medication error
IV. Omission
lll, & lV
23
Pharmacist Shaina failed to spot an error
made by the physician and proceeded to a supply error. What type of medication error
did she commit?
I. Prescribing error
II. Dispensing error
III. Administration/Medication error
IV. Omission
ll only
24
Marasmus is a result of a deficiency in total caloric intake. Kwashiorkor is an acute process that can develop within weeks and is associated with visceral protein depletion
Both statements are correct
25
The major reason for use of the
central venous TPN rather than the
peripheral route is the development
of thrombophlebitis. A central venous
route can be used when the dextrose
concentration is 10% or less.
First statement is correct
26
Preferred for administration of irritating
drugs or hypertonic solutions
Both Subclavian and Central
27
This intermittent infusion method
eliminates the need for a second
venipuncture or further dilution of the
supplementary preparation.
Piggyback
28
Which of the following compounded sterile products should NOT be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood?
Cisplatin
29
Ringer’s injection
I. Na lactate III. KCl
II. NaCl IV. CaCl2
II, lll, & lV
30
Irrigating solution used in the dialysis of
patients
Dialysate
31
Major intracellular ion
Both Potassium and Phosphorus
32
Which of the following needle gauges has
the largest shaft diameter?
20 G, 3 ½ inches
33
Decreased BUN may indicate
Hepatic damage
34
Detectable after a myocardial infarction
CK-MB
35
Increased in parasitic infections and allergic reactions
Eosinophils
36
A pregnant patient is diagnosed with
hypertension. She is prescribed with a drug to manage her condition. What could be this drug that produces a positive coombs’
test?
Methyldopa
37
Which diagnostic test may be useful for a
patient on statin therapy?
I. AST III. SGPT
II. ALT IV. SGOT
l, ll, lll, & lV
38
Can give rise to hypercalcemia
I. High PTH III. Thiazide diuretics
II. Low PTH IV. Loop diuretics
l & lll
39
A 50-year-old man presents with
bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L. All of the
following could be a cause of his low
bicarbonate level except
Diuretic therapy
40
Cyanide
Asphyxiant
41
Injection into the spinal fluid
Intrathecal
42
IV preparation having a volume of 500 mL
Large volume parenterals
43
Indications of Total Parenteral Nutrition
(TPN)
I. Crohn’s disease
II. Acute diarrhea
III. Bowel obstruction
l & lll
44
Fetal hydantoin syndrome falls under what
ADR classification?
Type D
45
ADR classification of counterfeit drugs
Type F
46
Medication error that resulted in need for
treatment or intervention and caused
temporary patient harm.
Category E
47
Medication error that resulted in need
for increased patient monitoring but no
patient harm
Category D
48
According to the New York Heart
Association (NYHA) classification of
functional limitations for heart failure
patients, if the degree of effort necessary
to elicit HF symptoms equals those that
would limit normal individuals, then this
patient belongs to
Class I
49
The following are subjective data, except
Respiratory rate
50
James has smoked 15 cigarette sticks a day for 20 years. What is his smoking pack-
years?
15
51
Phase of clinical trials involving healthy
human subjects
Phase 1
52
Use of investigational new drug on a limited number of patients.
Phase 2
53
Primary literature includes which of the
following?
I. Clinical trials IV. Compendia
II. PubMed V. Textbooks
III. Journals
I & III
54
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tertiary resources?
Tertiary resources include textbooks and computer databases.
55
Gold standard trial design as it can strongly
established causality
RCT
56
Rx means
AOTA
57
“Shake Well”
AOTA
58
The following are associated with errors
when written on the medication order,
except:
Warfarin 0.5 mg
59
Which of the following shows a correct tall-man lettering?
I. hydrOXYZINE III. hydrALAZINE
II. HYDROXYzine IV. HYDRALAzine
l & lll
60
Right ear
a.d.
61
ss.
one-half
62
Shall not be filled, except
Erroneous Rx
63
Only generic name is written but is not
legible
Impossible Rx
64
Rx
Nifedipine (Norvasc)
30 mg tab # 60
Sig. 1 tab a day
Impossible Rx
65
A precipitant drug is the drug, chemical,
or food element causing the interaction.
An object drug is the drug affected by the
interaction.
Both statements are correct
66
A drug interaction that could occur; limited data are available.
Possible
67
A drug interaction that is very likely but
might not be proven clinically
Probable
68
Zolpidem + Midazolam falls under what type of drug interactions?
Pharmacodynamic
69
The following are true for a drug interaction
involving tranylcypromine, except
Has pharmacodynamic interaction with avocado
70
Milk + Levofloxacin
I. Pharmacokinetic
II. Pharmacodynamic
III. Biopharmaceutical
l & lll
71
A patient with iron deficiency anemia is
taking ferrous sulfate and concurrently
undergoing antimicrobial therapy,
specifically prescribed tetracycline. The
following are not true, except:
The hematinic can chelate the antibiotic
72
A patient on warfarin therapy takes
clarithromycin. Which of the following is a
possible occurrence?
Hemorrhage
73
Enzyme inducer
Chronic alcoholism
74
The following drugs are highly absorbed
following fatty food intake, except
I. Griseofulvin
II. Vitamin K
III. Vitamin C
Ill only
75
Which is true when Ketoconazole and
Magnesium hydroxide are taken together?
Failure in antifungal therapy
76
A TDM was done for a patient that exhibits recurrent infection. It was found out that the plasma level of an antibiotic given did not reach the desired concentration.
Which of the following can be a possible
reason?
Taking a supplement derived from sacred bark
77
The following are true regarding the fate of drugs in the intestinal flora, except:
Estrogen contraceptives are metabolized to inactive metabolites by the flora.
78
A patient was prescribed with anti-asthma
medications:
Theophylline Mometasone
Montelukast Terbutaline
Which of the following gives immediate
relief?
Terbutaline
79
Can be used in the management of BPH
Saw palmetto
80
This vasoconstrictor, in combination with
lidocaine, allows local anesthesia with
minimal bleeding and without systemic
absorption of the lidocaine while repairing
a skin wound.
Epinephrine
81
All of the following statements concerning
contraindications with chronic use of over-the-counter (OTC) analgesic agents are correct except which one?
Aspirin, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen are implicated in Reye syndrome
82
Indicated for neutropenia associated with
chemotherapy
Filgrastim
83
A 58-year-old white male who has a history of essential hypertension and bronchial asthma has recently been diagnosed with
prostatic hypertrophy. His medication
history includes the following drugs:
I. Propranolol IV. Finasteride
II. Ipratropium V. Prazosin
III. Metaproterenol
Which agent would be most likely to cause
postural hypotension?
V
84
A 22-year-old female presents with sneezing, watery and itchy eyes, and a runny nose.
She has no significant medical history,
but she is in the midst of final exams and
must remain alert. What would be the best recommendation for her symptoms?
Fexofenadine
85
BMI of 27.8 is considered
Overweight
86
A medication order calls for 1000 milliliters of a dextrose intravenous infusion to be administered over an 8-hour period. Using an intravenous administration set that
delivers 10 drops/milliliter, how many drops per minute should be delivered to the patient?
21 drops/min
87
Rx
Fluconazole tabs 100 mg
Disp. ____ tabs
Sig: tab ii stat, then 3 mg/kg b.i.d. × 7 days
thereafter.
Calculate the number of tablets to
dispense to a patient weighing 146 lb.
30
88
Medication Order:
heparin 15 units/kg/h.
Preparation Administered:
25,000 heparin units in 500 mL normal
saline solution.
Calculate:
infusion rate, in mL/h, for a 187-lb patient.
——-
89
Rx
Allopurinol ………..20 mg/mL
Cherry syrup …….60 mL
Methylcellulose suspension ad ….120 mL
Sig. Take one teaspoonful daily in am.
How many allopurinol 300-mg tablets
should be used in compounding this
prescription?
8 tabs
90
An empty 25-mL specific gravity bottle
weighs 21.04 g, 46.05 g when filled with
water, and 52.93 g when filled with the
syrup mixture. What is the specific gravity
of the syrup?
1.275
91
Calculate the creatinine clearance, using the Cockcroft-Gault equation, for a 35-year-old male patient, 68 inches tall, weighing 180 lb, and with a serum creatinine of 2.6 mg/
dL.
45.9 mL/min
92
The formula for Tolu balsam syrup NF is as follows:
Tolu balsam tincture 10 mL
Magnesium carbonate 2 g
Sucrose 164 g
Purified water qs 200 mL
How much magnesium carbonate would
be needed to prepare 4 fl.oz. of this
syrup?
1180 mg
93
To prepare 100 mL of a clarithromycin
suspension containing 125 mg/5 mL,
a pharmacist adds 55 mL of purified
water to the granules contained in the
commercial package. Calculate the
content of clarithromycin in the package,
in milligrams.
2500 mg
94
The package insert information for a 500-
mg vial of ceftriaxone sodium states that 1
mL of diluent should be added to produce
a final concentration of 350 mg/mL. How
much solution will have to be injected to
administer a 500-mg dose
1.43 mL
95
If an albuterol inhaler contains 20 mg of
albuterol, how many inhalation doses
can be delivered if each inhalation dose
contains 90 mcg?
222
96
If an injection containing a medication, 50
mg/10 mL, is diluted to 1 L, calculate the
percent strength of the resulting solution.
0.005%
97
How many milliliters of a 10% w/v stock
solution should be used in preparing 1
gallon of a 0.05% w/v solution?
18.9 mL
98
Convert 227.1 Fahrenheit to centigrade
108.4°C
99
Express 0.02% w/v as a ratio strength
1:500 w/v
100
3.76 gr is equivalent to
244, 400 mcg