CD FINAL 2

157問 • 1年前

問題一覧

A palient diagnosed with hepatitis A asks how they contracted the disease. The nurse knows the most likely route of transmission is:

Ingestion of contaminated food or water

A patient with chronic hepatitis B is being started on antiviral therapy. Which of the following drugs is commonly prescribed for chronic hepatitis B?

Tenofovir

A nurse is caring for a patient with hepatitis C. Which of the following is the most common long-term complication of chronic hepatitis C?

Liver cirrhosis

A nurse is teaching a patient diagnosed with hepatitis B. Which statement indicates the patient understands how to prevent transmission of the disease?

"I need to avoid sexual activity or use protection."

Which laboratory test confirms an active hepatitis B infection?

HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen)

Which of the following patients is most at risk for developing hepatitis D?

A patient with chronic hepatitis B

A patient with hepatitis A asks the nurse about the likelihood of developing chronic liver disease. The nurse's best response is:

"Hepatitis A is self-limiting and does not cause chronic liver disease."

A patient with chronic hepatitis B asks if they can donate blood. The nurse's best response is

"No, you are not eligible to donate blood."

What is the most effective way to prevent hepatitis E infection in endemic areas?

Practice good hygiene and ensure safe drinking water

Which population is most at risk for contracting hepatitis B?

Healthcare workers who do not receive the HBV vaccine

Japanese Encephalitis is an example of which of the following types of illness?

Vectorborne

Which of the following is the primary vector responsible for transmitting dengue virus to humans?

Aedes aegypti mosquito

What is a common clinical symptom of severe dengue (dengue hemorrhagic fever)?

Hemorrhage (bleeding)

Which diagnostic test is commonly used to confirm dengue infection in the early stages of illness?

Rapid antigen test

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a patient suspected of having malaria. Which of the following laboratory findings is most indicative of a malaria infection?

Presence of Plasmodium parasites in the blood smear

A patient diagnosed with malaria is being treated with chloroquine. Which of the following is a necessary action by the nurse to ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment?

Monitor the patient for visual disturbances and headache.

Which clinical finding would prompt immediate intervention by the nurse for a patient diagnosed with malaria and treated with quinine?

Hypoglycemia

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Zika virus infection. The patient asks about the long-term effects of the virus. Which of the following complications should the nurse mention as a potential long-term effect associated with Zika virus infection?

Guillain-Barré syndrome

A pregnant woman in her first trimester who recently returned from a trip to a Zika-endemic area consults at the prenatal clinic. She is asymptomatic but concemed about the risk of Zika virus infection. Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate initial step in managing her case?

Recommend PCR testing for Zika virus RNA in blood and urine

What is the recommended treatment for lymphatic filariasis?

Antiparasitic medications

What is the hallmark symptom of lymphatic filariasis?

Elephantiasis

What is the primary route of entry for filarial parasites into the human body?

Bites from infected mosquitoes

Which part of the immunological system suffers the greatest damage as a result of HIV infection?

CD4+ T-lymphocytes

In comparison with HIV infection in adults, HIV infection in infants and children:

Has a shorter incubation period

The nurse counsels a client to have the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (EIA) test in order to:

Indicate the presence of the antibody to HIV

A nurse examining a child in the early stages of HIV infection would expect to see:

Failure to thrive and developmental delays

When working with a client who is HIV positive, the nurse serves as an educator, teaching about the modes of transmission, and serves as a(n):

Role model, providing supportive care

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with human immune deficiency virus. The clients CD4+ cell count is 399/mm3. What action by the nurse is best?

Counsel the client on safer sex practices/abstinence.

The nurse is presenting information to a community group on safer sex practices. The nurse should teach that which sexual practice is the riskiest?

Anal intercourse

The nurse providing direct client care uses specific practices to reduce the chance of acquiring infection with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) from clients. Which practice is most effective?

Consistent use of Standard Precautions

A client with human immune deficiency virus is admitted to the hospital with fever, night sweats, and severe cough. Laboratory results include a CD4+ cell count of 180/mm3 and a negative tuberculosis (TB) skin test 4 days ago. What action should the nurse take first?

Place the client under Airborne Precautions.

A nurse is talking with a client about a negative enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV) antibodies. The test is negative and the client states Whew! I was really worried about that result. What action by the nurse is most important?

Assess the clients sexual activity and patterns.

A client with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) has had a sudden decline in status with a large increase in viral load. What action should the nurse take first?

Assess the client for adherence to the drug regimen.

A client with HIV wasting syndrome has inadequate nutrition. What assessment finding by the nurse best indicates that goals have been met for this client problem?

Has a weight gain of 2 pounds/1 month

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome is hospitalized and has weeping Kaposis sarcoma lesions. The nurse dresses them with sterile gauze. When changing these dressings, which action is most important?

Disposing of soiled dressings properly

A student nurse is learning about human immune deficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which statements about HIV infection are correct? (Select all that apply.) 1. CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV virus particles 2. Antibodies produced are incomplete and do not function well 3. Macrophages stop functioning properly. 4. Opportunistic infections and cancer are leading causes of death. 5. People with stage 1 HIV disease are not infectious to others

All except 5

A pregnant patient with untreated syphilis delivers a stillborn baby with characteristic findings of hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, rhinitis, rash, and skeletal abnormalities. Which term describes this constellation of symptoms and signs associated with congenital syphilis?

Hutchinson's triad

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common complication of:

Gonorrhea

A 22-year-old female presents to the clinic for a routine gynecological examination. She reports no symptoms but mentions having multiple sexual partners in the past year. The nurse practitioner decides to perform screening for sexually transmitted infections (STls). Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for detecting Chlamydia trachomatis infection in this patient?

Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with dysuria and urethral discharge. He reports recent unprotected sexual intercourse with multiple partners. The healthcare provider suspects Chlamydia trachomatis infection. Which medication is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated urogenital Chlamydia infection in this patient?

Azithromycin

An example of a bacterial STD is:

Syphilis

All of the following infections are common causes of Vaginitis except?

Chlamydia

A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with painful oral lesions and fever. Physical examination reveals multiple vesicular lesions on his lips and oral mucosa. The healthcare provider suspects primary herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection. Which antiviral medication is the first-line treatment for primary HSV infection in this patient?

Acyclovir

A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of painless growths on her genital area. Upon examination, the healthcare provider observes multiple flesh-colored papules resembling cauliflower-like lesions. The patient reports a history of unprotected sexual intercourse with multiple partners. Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is most likely responsible for the development of these lesions?

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Which infectious agent is classified to be a non-tuberculosis mycobacteria?

Mycobacterium Avium

Primary Diagnostic procedure for TB is?

DSSM

A 52-year old female patient is receiving medical treatment for a possible tuberculosis infection. The patient is a U.S. resident but grew-up in a foreign country. She reports that as a child she received the BCG vaccine (bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccine). Which physician's order below would require the nurse to ask the doctor for an order clarification?

PPD (Mantoux test)

A 55-year old male patient is admitted with an active tuberculosis infection. The nurse will place the patient in________ precautions and will always wear__________ providing patient care?

airborne, respirator

Which statement is correct regarding mycobacterium tuberculosis?

It is known as being an aerobic type of bacteria.

Your patient with a diagnosis of latent tuberculosis infection needs a bronchoscopy. During transport to endoscopy, the patient will need to wear?

No special PPE is needed

A positive PPD result for health care workers like us nurses will mean;

greater or equal to 10 mm

A patient has a positive PPD skin test that shows an 8 mm induration. As the nurse you know that:

the patient will need a chest x-ray and sputum culture to confirm the test results before treatment is provided

A patient has a PPD skin test (Mantoux test). As the nurse you tell the patient to report back to the office in _______ so the results can be interpreted?

48-72 hours

A 45-year old man, who is a prisoner for 2 years and was an IV drug user, has arrived to the clinic to have his PPD skin test assessed. What is considered a positive result?

10 mm induration

The physician orders an acid-fast bacilli sputum culture smear on a patient with possible tuberculosis. How will you collect this?

Collect 3 different sputum specimens on 3 different days

As the nurse you know that one of the reasons for an increase in multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis is:

Noncompliance due to duration of medication treatment needed

You note your patient's sweat and urine is orange. You reassure the patient and educate him that which medication below is causing this finding?

Rifampin

Nurse Almend is handling a child with pertussis. During the assessment, Nurse Almend will observed on which of the following characteristic of the child's cough?

A hacking cough that ends with a whooping sound

A clinical instructor is providing teachings among nursing students about the stages of pertussis. Which of the following is the phase of a pertussis infection manifested by coughing spells?

Paroxysmal phase

The recommended antimicrobial agents for chemoprophylaxis or treatment of Whooping cough (Pertussis) are EXCEPT

Amantadine

Nurse Almend is caring for a child diagnosed with diphtheria in a healthcare facility. Which medication is the first-line treatment for diphtheria infection in this patient?

Diphtheria antitoxin

A 6-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a sore throat, low-grade fever, and difficulty breathing. Physical examination reveals a grayish-white membrane covering the tonsils and throat. The healthcare provider suspects diphtheria infection. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis of diphtheria in this patient?

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for diphtheria toxin gene

A 45-year-old female presents to the clinic with fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, and fatigue. She reports recent contact with a family member diagnosed with influenza. Physical examination reveals bilateral fine crackles on auscultation. The healthcare provider suspects influenza infection. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis of influenza in this patient?

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for influenza virus

A nurse is providing education to a group of individuals about the importance of influenza vaccination. Which statement by a participant indicates a need for further clarification?

"The influenza vaccine provides lifelong immunity against all strains of influenza virus."

A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the emergency department with worsening dyspnea and cough. He reports exposure to a family member diagnosed with influenza. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates consistent with viral pneumonia. Which antiviral medication is the first-line treatment for influenza in this patient?

Oseltamivir

Which of the following is a treatment for severe influenza which prevents viral budding from the host cells?

Peramivir

Which of the following is not a transmission mode for infection spread of COVID-19?

Airborne

Individuals can acquire the infection by touching contaminated surfaces, accdg to CDC the virus can stay into the wood for;

5 days

Basic reproduction number of COVID 19 accdg to WHO is estimated to be;

The Ro can be reduced through public health interventions, except;

Quarantine protocols

P.3 Variant was earliest to be documented in from the Philippines last Jan, 2021 and labeled by WHO

Theta

Super-spreading events are when the transmission of the virus is suddenly amplified- that is, a single person transmits the virus to disproportionately large number of secondary contacts. Certain situations may contribute to a super-spreading event, except;

None.

This type of test is typically highly accurate and usually does not need to be repeated. Some may indicate the need to re-test in certain circumstances. It can diagnose active COVID-19 infection;

Molecular Test

Which is a common source of contamination for health care providers;

Doffing

What level of PPE should be use during any aerosolizing procedure;

Maximal PPE

When you first see a patient, you notice they are breathing rapidly and appear in respiratory distress They are able to greet you but appear breathless when talking. What is the most appropriate next step?

Give oxygen

Interventions should be done immediately once the abnormality on ABCs is identified. Which should be performed by the nurse first?

Oxygen

Definitive COVID-19 Diagnostic test must be performed which of the following step is not correct in performing an RT-PCR Nasal Swab;

leave in place for 2-3 seconds

Management for Mild Dyspneic COVID patients includes all but;

Supine position

Give supplemental oxygen therapy immediately to patients with respiratory distress, hypoxemia, or shock— there are no absolute contraindications to the administration of supplemental oxygen. Which of the following is the first to be administered;

Nasal Cannula

As per WHO guidelines, following positioning, supplemental oxygen and stabilization. The target 02 saturation for adults will be;

>90 %

Which of the following is considered to be part of the therapeutic management for COVID-19?

All of the above

Which is a Monoclonal Antibody cocktail drug for COVID 19?

Bamlanivimab

All of the following vaccines can be kept in cold storage with temperature of 2 to 8 C, Except;

Sputnik V

The first ever FDA Approved Vaccine is?

Comirnaty

Booster dose when a client received a primary vaccination of SINOVAC should be administered at least how many months after the last dose;

3 mos

The following are DOH's recommended Heterologous Booster when the primary vaccination is SINOVAC, EXCEPT one;

Janssen

In a patient with COVID-19, which of the following radiographic findings is associated with a higher risk of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Consolidation with air bronchograms

What is the main mechanism of action of remdesivir, an antiviral medication used to treat COVID-19?

Inhibition of viral RNA replication

What is the primary purpose of positioning COVID-19 patients in the prone position?

To enhance oxygenation and ventilation

What is the primary mechanism of action of monoclonal antibodies in the treatment of COVID-19?

Blocking the interaction of the virus with host cells

The most common cause of infectious meningitis?

Bacteria

A positive Kernig's Sign will mean that;

A pain felt during the extension of the knee from a hip and knee flexion

A 25-year-old college student presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of fever. severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. Physical examination reveals petechial rash and signs of meningeal irritation. The healthcare provider suspects meningococcal meningitis. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis in this patient?

Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis

A 30-year-old male presents to the clinic with fever, chills, headache, and a purpuric rash. He reports recent attendance at a crowded music festival. Physical examination reveals hypotension and signs of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The healthcare provider suspects meningococcemia.Which treatment intervention is the priority for this patient?

Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics

A 50-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a deep puncture wound on his foot from stepping on a rusty nail. He reports not receiving a tetanus booster shot for over 10 years. The healthcare provider suspects tetanus infection. Which treatment intervention is most appropriate for preventing tetanus in this patient?

Administer tetanus toxoid vaccine

A 35-year-old female presents to the clinic with muscle stiffness and spasms, especially in the jaw (lockjaw), after sustaining a puncture wound on her hand. She reports not receiving a tetanus booster shot for over 15 years. The healthcare provider suspects tetanus infection. Which medication is the first-line treatment for tetanus in this patient?

Benzodiazepines

A nurse is caring for a patient with tetanus in the intensive care unit. The patient is receiving treatment with tetanus immune globulin (TIG). Which nursing intervention is a priority in the management of tetanus?

Monitor for signs of respiratory distress

A nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with paralytic poliomyelitis. Which nursing intervention is a priority in the management of this patient?

Monitor for signs of respiratory distress

100

A 6-year-old child presents to the clinic with sudden onset of fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Physical examination reveals muscle weakness and asymmetrical flaccid paralysis of the lower extremities. The healthcare provider suspects poliomyelitis infection. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis of poliomyelitis in this patient?

Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis

Astignars random QS

Kyla Angelique Son · 19問 · 1年前

Astignars random QS