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Mock Lab and Org
100問 • 3ヶ月前
  • Liane
  • 通報

    問題一覧

  • 1

    Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems?

    ISO 9001

  • 2

    Which term best fits: part of a quality system that includes laboratory operations whose objective is to ensure that the data generated by the laboratory are of known accuracy to some stated, quantitative degree of probability?

    Quality Assurance

  • 3

    Which type of quality control sample is used to evaluate the effects of sample matrices on the performance of an analytical method?

    Matrix spike

  • 4

    Locating the adulterated portion of a lot for sampling is an example of which sampling approach?

    Selective sampling

  • 5

    Which term describes a quantity of material that is assumed to represent a single population for sampling purposes?

    Lot

  • 6

    What is Republic Act No. 6969 commonly known as?

    Toxic Substances, Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act of 1990

  • 7

    Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of chemists and chemical technicians embodied in the Code of Ethics?

    None of the above.

  • 8

    Which term describes a method consisting of a set of instructions issued by a national standards body?

    Standard method

  • 9

    What is a detailed written instruction to achieve uniformity in the performance of a specific function?

    Standard operating procedure (SOP)

  • 10

    Which of the following is NOT a good sampling practice?

    Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.

  • 11

    What is the main ISO standard used by testing and calibration laboratories to gain accreditation and formally demonstrate their competence to carry out tests and/or calibrations?

    ISO/IEC 17025

  • 12

    For a facility involved in the production of vitamin C tablets, which quality management/assurance standard(s) should be followed?

    All of the above

  • 13

    Which component of a laboratory Quality Management System ensures deviations are systematically investigated and resolved through root cause analysis, with actions tracked to prevent recurrence?

    Corrective and preventive actions (CAPA)

  • 14

    A laboratory adopts a pesticide residue method validated in an international reference laboratory. To comply with ISO/IEC 17025, what is the minimum requirement before routine use in the adopting lab?

    Conduct method verification under the lab's own conditions

  • 15

    A lab uses Levey-Jennings control charts to monitor a glucose assay QC sample. Repeated points falling outside +2SD but within +3SD most likely indicate which type of error?

    Systematic error

  • 16

    Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?

    Adding water to a strong acid

  • 17

    Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for hydrofluoric acid (HF) burns?

    Calcium gluconate

  • 18

    If a fire extinguisher has a red body and a blue band, what is its content/type?

    Foam type

  • 19

    A fire breaks out in a storage room containing Class D combustible metals. An untrained staff member uses a CO2 extinguisher. Which outcome is most likely, and why?

    Fire worsens because CO2 can react violently with burning metals

  • 20

    During a fire drill, a lab worker discovers a magnesium fire (combustible metal). According to RA 9514, which extinguisher should be used?

    Yellow-body

  • 21

    Which of the following is NOT a proper practice for storing materials and equipment?

    Store hazardous chemicals inside the fume hood.

  • 22

    Which of the following are possible routes of exposure to the hazardous effects of waste?

    All of the above

  • 23

    Which solid waste management practice refers to the controlled decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms into a humus-like product?

    Composting

  • 24

    What type of chemical can cause an allergic reaction in the airways following inhalation?

    Respiratory sensitizer

  • 25

    Which hazardous waste characteristic applies to wastes that can contaminate groundwater by leaching specific toxic substances when improperly disposed of?

    Toxicity

  • 26

    In order to properly maintain chemical laboratory equipment, which of the following should you NOT do?

    Place the equipment in a hot, humid location.

  • 27

    When handling acid wastes, what type of protective gloves should be used?

    Rubber gloves

  • 28

    When working with concentrated acids (except hydrofluoric acid), which of the following statements are true? I. Gloves covering the whole arm or nitrile gloves should be worn. II. Half- or full-face masks with gas- and/or vapor-removing respirators should be worn. III. Wearing safety boots or foot covering is optional as long as the person is working under the hood. IV. Wearing an apron is optional as long as a laboratory gown is worn.

    I and II

  • 29

    Which of the following is NOT a minimum requirement for hazardous waste storage facilities?

    Be enclosed and not ventilated.

  • 30

    An institution that handles chemicals relies on which person or office to make the initial determination of whether a waste is hazardous and to label the waste accordingly?

    Department of Environment and Natural Resources

  • 31

    Why should hazardous waste be kept separate from other waste?

    All of the above

  • 32

    Which of the following should be done when handling flammable and combustible liquids?

    All of the above

  • 33

    What action should be taken if a waste container is found to have a minor leak?

    Transfer the contents to another compatible container

  • 34

    According to the NFPA (fire diamond), which color refers to flammability?

    Red

  • 35

    Which lab coat is most suitable for handling organic solvents such as acetone or chloroform?

    Chemical-resistant Tyvek coat

  • 36

    What is the appropriate respiratory protection in a confined space with oxygen deficiency?

    Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

  • 37

    Which of the following can be disposed down the drain?

    None of the above

  • 38

    Organic peroxides are dangerous when:

    All of the above

  • 39

    Which of the following is NOT a good practice in storing chemicals?

    Store chemicals directly on the floor.

  • 40

    When handling concentrated acids (except hydrofluoric acid), which of the following PPE must be worn?

    All of the above

  • 41

    When using a fume hood, all of the following must be done except:

    Using the hood as a storage area for volatile chemicals when an appropriate storage cabinet is not available.

  • 42

    When working with chemicals that present splash hazards, what is the most appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) to use?

    Goggles

  • 43

    According to the GHS, which of the following is NOT covered by the Gas Cylinder pictogram?

    Explosive gas

  • 44

    According to the GHS, which hazard is indicated by the pictogram of a flame over a circle?

    Oxidizer

  • 45

    A GHS-compliant technical document that contains information on health hazards, storage, precautionary measures, and emergency procedures for chemicals is called a:

    Safety Data Sheet

  • 46

    What is the recommended flushing time for eye exposure to strong alkalis?

    60 minutes

  • 47

    When a chemical splashes in the eye, rinse for:

    15 minutes

  • 48

    Which of the following is an acceptable practice when working in a chemical laboratory?

    Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles while performing the analysis

  • 49

    Reporting that the concentration of total cyanide in drinking water is 0.05 mg/L (below the maximum allowable level of 0.07 mg/L) when it is actually above that limit is:

    False negative

  • 50

    The fire triangle consists of which of the following?

    Oxygen, Heat, Fuel

  • 51

    According to DENR Administrative Order 2013-22, appropriate waste labels shall include:

    All of the above

  • 52

    All of the following statements about hazardous waste containers are true, except:

    Any type of container, including food containers, can be used to contain hazardous waste.

  • 53

    Which feature of laboratory infrastructure design directly prevents cross-contamination of incompatible activities, such as sample preparation and waste storage?

    Segregated laboratory work zones with unidirectional workflow

  • 54

    A laboratory technician stores blood-contaminated pipette tips in a yellow biohazard bin. Under hazardous waste classification, which class applies?

    Class 6

  • 55

    Which of the following is the most appropriate container for storing hexane?

    Amber bottle

  • 56

    What type of container should be used when handling or storing hydrogen fluoride (HF)?

    Polyethylene or PTFE

  • 57

    Which of the following acids or acid mixtures should NOT be collected or stored in glass containers?

    Hydrofluoric acid (HF)

  • 58

    Ammonia solution (aqueous NH3) can be stored with the following chemicals, except which one?

    Acetic acid solution

  • 59

    Which measure best illustrates substitution in the hierarchy of controls?

    Replacing benzene with toluene in the procedure

  • 60

    According to DENR DAO 2013-22, a hazardous waste label must include generator information. Which omission would result in non-compliance during inspection?

    Name and address of the generating facility

  • 61

    Which of the following compounds would show the longest λmax (longest wavelength maximum) in its UV spectrum?

    1,3,5-hexatriene

  • 62

    In which IR region are stretching vibrations of O–H and N–H (and many C–H stretches) typically found?

    4000 to 2500 cm^-1

  • 63

    Which factors affect the infrared frequency of a C–X vibration (for example, in CHX)? (Select all that apply.)

    Mass of X (reduced mass effect), Strength (force constant) of the C–X bond, Type of C–X vibration (stretch vs. bend)

  • 64

    Early IR instruments scanned one wavelength at a time. Why can modern instruments acquire IR spectra much faster?

    Because Fourier-transform IR (FTIR) instruments measure all frequencies simultaneously using an interferometer and then use a Fourier transform to obtain the spectrum

  • 65

    Which of the following compounds would show IR absorptions near 3000 cm^-1 and near 1650 cm^-1?

    Cyclohexene

  • 66

    In which species are all the carbon atoms sp2 hybridized?

    C2H4 (ethylene)

  • 67

    What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in a carboxyl group (–COOH)?

    sp2

  • 68

    In the Lewis structure of propane (C3H8), the ten covalent bonds account for how many valence electrons?

    20

  • 69

    Which of the following structures represents a molecule different from the others?

    CH3CH2CH3 (propane)

  • 70

    In which species is the C–N bond the shortest?

    CH3CN (acetonitrile)

  • 71

    Which of the following gases is expected to be most soluble in water at 25°C?

    NH3

  • 72

    Which compound has the highest boiling point?

    Phenol (C6H5OH)

  • 73

    Which of the following alcohols would be most soluble in water?

    Propanol (C3H7OH)

  • 74

    What is the correct molecular formula for benzene?

    C6H6

  • 75

    Which of these compounds contains a carboxyl (–COOH) group?

    Propanoic acid

  • 76

    What is the IUPAC name for CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO?

    Pentanal

  • 77

    Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name for the straight-chain alkane with seven carbon atoms?

    Heptane

  • 78

    Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name for a seven-carbon chain that has a double bond at C-3, an ethyl substituent at C-3 and a bromo substituent at C-5?

    5-Bromo-3-ethylhept-3-ene

  • 79

    How many different constitutional isomers have the formula C5H12?

    3

  • 80

    How many different alcohols (not counting stereoisomers) have the molecular formula C4H10O?

    4

  • 81

    Which of the following complete combustion reactions of one mole will consume the most oxygen?

    Complete combustion of one mole of octane (C8H18)

  • 82

    Which of the following statements about cycloalkanes is incorrect?

    They have tetrahedral bond angles.

  • 83

    Which of the following is NOT a reagent used to hydrogenate an alkyne (i.e., to add H2 across the triple bond)?

    BH3 followed by H2O2, NaOH (hydroboration–oxidation conditions)

  • 84

    Which reagent would convert a terminal alkyne to an aldehyde (anti-Markovnikov hydration)?

    BH3 then H2O2, NaOH (hydroboration–oxidation of the alkyne)

  • 85

    When ethyne (acetylene) is subjected to ozonolysis (oxidative cleavage of the triple bond), what are the principal end products?

    Formic acid (HCOOH)

  • 86

    Which of the following compounds will react readily with chlorine (Cl2) by electrophilic addition?

    Ethene (C2H4), Ethyne/acetylene (C2H2)

  • 87

    Arrange the following compounds in order of reactivity toward electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS), from most reactive to least reactive: Aniline (ArNH2), Toluene (ArCH3), Phenol (ArOH), Benzene (ArH), Benzoic acid (ArCO2H).

    Aniline > Phenol > Toluene > Benzene > Benzoic acid

  • 88

    Why do benzene and many of its derivatives undergo substitution reactions rather than addition reactions?

    Because substitution preserves the integrity of the benzene ring and its stable aromatic π-bonding (aromaticity).

  • 89

    What reagents are typically required for the bromination of benzene via electrophilic aromatic substitution?

    Bromine (Br2) with a Lewis acid catalyst such as FeBr3

  • 90

    Which of the following statements is NOT true for SN1 reactions?

    They occur through a single-step concerted reaction.

  • 91

    Which of the following is NOT true for SN1 reactions?

    They occur through a single-step concerted reaction

  • 92

    Which alkyl halide will most likely undergo an SN2 mechanism?

    Bromomethane (methyl bromide)

  • 93

    A low concentration of nucleophile favors which substitution mechanism?

    Neither SN1 nor SN2

  • 94

    Which statement(s) about nucleophilic substitution reactions are correct? 1) The reaction of NaOH with 2-chloro-2-methylbutane predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism. 2) The reaction of NaOH with 1-chloropentane predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism. 3) The reaction of NaOH with 1-chloropentane occurs at a slower rate than the reaction with 1-bromopentane.

    Statements 2 and 3 are correct

  • 95

    The gentle oxidation of ethanol produces which of the following products?

    Ethanal (acetaldehyde, CH3CHO)

  • 96

    The gentle oxidation of ethanol produces which of the following products?

    Ethanal (acetaldehyde, CH3CHO)

  • 97

    Which compound is an aldehyde?

    Ethanal (acetaldehyde, CH3CHO)

  • 98

    The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the molecular formula of this compound?

    C4H8O2 (CH3CH2CH2COOH)

  • 99

    A reaction in which a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol to form an organic compound and water is called:

    Esterification

  • 100

    Which of the following is produced when hydrogen is reacted with 2‑butanone (a ketone)?

    Secondary alcohol (2‑butanol)

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    問題一覧

  • 1

    Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems?

    ISO 9001

  • 2

    Which term best fits: part of a quality system that includes laboratory operations whose objective is to ensure that the data generated by the laboratory are of known accuracy to some stated, quantitative degree of probability?

    Quality Assurance

  • 3

    Which type of quality control sample is used to evaluate the effects of sample matrices on the performance of an analytical method?

    Matrix spike

  • 4

    Locating the adulterated portion of a lot for sampling is an example of which sampling approach?

    Selective sampling

  • 5

    Which term describes a quantity of material that is assumed to represent a single population for sampling purposes?

    Lot

  • 6

    What is Republic Act No. 6969 commonly known as?

    Toxic Substances, Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act of 1990

  • 7

    Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of chemists and chemical technicians embodied in the Code of Ethics?

    None of the above.

  • 8

    Which term describes a method consisting of a set of instructions issued by a national standards body?

    Standard method

  • 9

    What is a detailed written instruction to achieve uniformity in the performance of a specific function?

    Standard operating procedure (SOP)

  • 10

    Which of the following is NOT a good sampling practice?

    Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.

  • 11

    What is the main ISO standard used by testing and calibration laboratories to gain accreditation and formally demonstrate their competence to carry out tests and/or calibrations?

    ISO/IEC 17025

  • 12

    For a facility involved in the production of vitamin C tablets, which quality management/assurance standard(s) should be followed?

    All of the above

  • 13

    Which component of a laboratory Quality Management System ensures deviations are systematically investigated and resolved through root cause analysis, with actions tracked to prevent recurrence?

    Corrective and preventive actions (CAPA)

  • 14

    A laboratory adopts a pesticide residue method validated in an international reference laboratory. To comply with ISO/IEC 17025, what is the minimum requirement before routine use in the adopting lab?

    Conduct method verification under the lab's own conditions

  • 15

    A lab uses Levey-Jennings control charts to monitor a glucose assay QC sample. Repeated points falling outside +2SD but within +3SD most likely indicate which type of error?

    Systematic error

  • 16

    Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?

    Adding water to a strong acid

  • 17

    Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for hydrofluoric acid (HF) burns?

    Calcium gluconate

  • 18

    If a fire extinguisher has a red body and a blue band, what is its content/type?

    Foam type

  • 19

    A fire breaks out in a storage room containing Class D combustible metals. An untrained staff member uses a CO2 extinguisher. Which outcome is most likely, and why?

    Fire worsens because CO2 can react violently with burning metals

  • 20

    During a fire drill, a lab worker discovers a magnesium fire (combustible metal). According to RA 9514, which extinguisher should be used?

    Yellow-body

  • 21

    Which of the following is NOT a proper practice for storing materials and equipment?

    Store hazardous chemicals inside the fume hood.

  • 22

    Which of the following are possible routes of exposure to the hazardous effects of waste?

    All of the above

  • 23

    Which solid waste management practice refers to the controlled decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms into a humus-like product?

    Composting

  • 24

    What type of chemical can cause an allergic reaction in the airways following inhalation?

    Respiratory sensitizer

  • 25

    Which hazardous waste characteristic applies to wastes that can contaminate groundwater by leaching specific toxic substances when improperly disposed of?

    Toxicity

  • 26

    In order to properly maintain chemical laboratory equipment, which of the following should you NOT do?

    Place the equipment in a hot, humid location.

  • 27

    When handling acid wastes, what type of protective gloves should be used?

    Rubber gloves

  • 28

    When working with concentrated acids (except hydrofluoric acid), which of the following statements are true? I. Gloves covering the whole arm or nitrile gloves should be worn. II. Half- or full-face masks with gas- and/or vapor-removing respirators should be worn. III. Wearing safety boots or foot covering is optional as long as the person is working under the hood. IV. Wearing an apron is optional as long as a laboratory gown is worn.

    I and II

  • 29

    Which of the following is NOT a minimum requirement for hazardous waste storage facilities?

    Be enclosed and not ventilated.

  • 30

    An institution that handles chemicals relies on which person or office to make the initial determination of whether a waste is hazardous and to label the waste accordingly?

    Department of Environment and Natural Resources

  • 31

    Why should hazardous waste be kept separate from other waste?

    All of the above

  • 32

    Which of the following should be done when handling flammable and combustible liquids?

    All of the above

  • 33

    What action should be taken if a waste container is found to have a minor leak?

    Transfer the contents to another compatible container

  • 34

    According to the NFPA (fire diamond), which color refers to flammability?

    Red

  • 35

    Which lab coat is most suitable for handling organic solvents such as acetone or chloroform?

    Chemical-resistant Tyvek coat

  • 36

    What is the appropriate respiratory protection in a confined space with oxygen deficiency?

    Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

  • 37

    Which of the following can be disposed down the drain?

    None of the above

  • 38

    Organic peroxides are dangerous when:

    All of the above

  • 39

    Which of the following is NOT a good practice in storing chemicals?

    Store chemicals directly on the floor.

  • 40

    When handling concentrated acids (except hydrofluoric acid), which of the following PPE must be worn?

    All of the above

  • 41

    When using a fume hood, all of the following must be done except:

    Using the hood as a storage area for volatile chemicals when an appropriate storage cabinet is not available.

  • 42

    When working with chemicals that present splash hazards, what is the most appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) to use?

    Goggles

  • 43

    According to the GHS, which of the following is NOT covered by the Gas Cylinder pictogram?

    Explosive gas

  • 44

    According to the GHS, which hazard is indicated by the pictogram of a flame over a circle?

    Oxidizer

  • 45

    A GHS-compliant technical document that contains information on health hazards, storage, precautionary measures, and emergency procedures for chemicals is called a:

    Safety Data Sheet

  • 46

    What is the recommended flushing time for eye exposure to strong alkalis?

    60 minutes

  • 47

    When a chemical splashes in the eye, rinse for:

    15 minutes

  • 48

    Which of the following is an acceptable practice when working in a chemical laboratory?

    Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles while performing the analysis

  • 49

    Reporting that the concentration of total cyanide in drinking water is 0.05 mg/L (below the maximum allowable level of 0.07 mg/L) when it is actually above that limit is:

    False negative

  • 50

    The fire triangle consists of which of the following?

    Oxygen, Heat, Fuel

  • 51

    According to DENR Administrative Order 2013-22, appropriate waste labels shall include:

    All of the above

  • 52

    All of the following statements about hazardous waste containers are true, except:

    Any type of container, including food containers, can be used to contain hazardous waste.

  • 53

    Which feature of laboratory infrastructure design directly prevents cross-contamination of incompatible activities, such as sample preparation and waste storage?

    Segregated laboratory work zones with unidirectional workflow

  • 54

    A laboratory technician stores blood-contaminated pipette tips in a yellow biohazard bin. Under hazardous waste classification, which class applies?

    Class 6

  • 55

    Which of the following is the most appropriate container for storing hexane?

    Amber bottle

  • 56

    What type of container should be used when handling or storing hydrogen fluoride (HF)?

    Polyethylene or PTFE

  • 57

    Which of the following acids or acid mixtures should NOT be collected or stored in glass containers?

    Hydrofluoric acid (HF)

  • 58

    Ammonia solution (aqueous NH3) can be stored with the following chemicals, except which one?

    Acetic acid solution

  • 59

    Which measure best illustrates substitution in the hierarchy of controls?

    Replacing benzene with toluene in the procedure

  • 60

    According to DENR DAO 2013-22, a hazardous waste label must include generator information. Which omission would result in non-compliance during inspection?

    Name and address of the generating facility

  • 61

    Which of the following compounds would show the longest λmax (longest wavelength maximum) in its UV spectrum?

    1,3,5-hexatriene

  • 62

    In which IR region are stretching vibrations of O–H and N–H (and many C–H stretches) typically found?

    4000 to 2500 cm^-1

  • 63

    Which factors affect the infrared frequency of a C–X vibration (for example, in CHX)? (Select all that apply.)

    Mass of X (reduced mass effect), Strength (force constant) of the C–X bond, Type of C–X vibration (stretch vs. bend)

  • 64

    Early IR instruments scanned one wavelength at a time. Why can modern instruments acquire IR spectra much faster?

    Because Fourier-transform IR (FTIR) instruments measure all frequencies simultaneously using an interferometer and then use a Fourier transform to obtain the spectrum

  • 65

    Which of the following compounds would show IR absorptions near 3000 cm^-1 and near 1650 cm^-1?

    Cyclohexene

  • 66

    In which species are all the carbon atoms sp2 hybridized?

    C2H4 (ethylene)

  • 67

    What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in a carboxyl group (–COOH)?

    sp2

  • 68

    In the Lewis structure of propane (C3H8), the ten covalent bonds account for how many valence electrons?

    20

  • 69

    Which of the following structures represents a molecule different from the others?

    CH3CH2CH3 (propane)

  • 70

    In which species is the C–N bond the shortest?

    CH3CN (acetonitrile)

  • 71

    Which of the following gases is expected to be most soluble in water at 25°C?

    NH3

  • 72

    Which compound has the highest boiling point?

    Phenol (C6H5OH)

  • 73

    Which of the following alcohols would be most soluble in water?

    Propanol (C3H7OH)

  • 74

    What is the correct molecular formula for benzene?

    C6H6

  • 75

    Which of these compounds contains a carboxyl (–COOH) group?

    Propanoic acid

  • 76

    What is the IUPAC name for CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO?

    Pentanal

  • 77

    Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name for the straight-chain alkane with seven carbon atoms?

    Heptane

  • 78

    Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name for a seven-carbon chain that has a double bond at C-3, an ethyl substituent at C-3 and a bromo substituent at C-5?

    5-Bromo-3-ethylhept-3-ene

  • 79

    How many different constitutional isomers have the formula C5H12?

    3

  • 80

    How many different alcohols (not counting stereoisomers) have the molecular formula C4H10O?

    4

  • 81

    Which of the following complete combustion reactions of one mole will consume the most oxygen?

    Complete combustion of one mole of octane (C8H18)

  • 82

    Which of the following statements about cycloalkanes is incorrect?

    They have tetrahedral bond angles.

  • 83

    Which of the following is NOT a reagent used to hydrogenate an alkyne (i.e., to add H2 across the triple bond)?

    BH3 followed by H2O2, NaOH (hydroboration–oxidation conditions)

  • 84

    Which reagent would convert a terminal alkyne to an aldehyde (anti-Markovnikov hydration)?

    BH3 then H2O2, NaOH (hydroboration–oxidation of the alkyne)

  • 85

    When ethyne (acetylene) is subjected to ozonolysis (oxidative cleavage of the triple bond), what are the principal end products?

    Formic acid (HCOOH)

  • 86

    Which of the following compounds will react readily with chlorine (Cl2) by electrophilic addition?

    Ethene (C2H4), Ethyne/acetylene (C2H2)

  • 87

    Arrange the following compounds in order of reactivity toward electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS), from most reactive to least reactive: Aniline (ArNH2), Toluene (ArCH3), Phenol (ArOH), Benzene (ArH), Benzoic acid (ArCO2H).

    Aniline > Phenol > Toluene > Benzene > Benzoic acid

  • 88

    Why do benzene and many of its derivatives undergo substitution reactions rather than addition reactions?

    Because substitution preserves the integrity of the benzene ring and its stable aromatic π-bonding (aromaticity).

  • 89

    What reagents are typically required for the bromination of benzene via electrophilic aromatic substitution?

    Bromine (Br2) with a Lewis acid catalyst such as FeBr3

  • 90

    Which of the following statements is NOT true for SN1 reactions?

    They occur through a single-step concerted reaction.

  • 91

    Which of the following is NOT true for SN1 reactions?

    They occur through a single-step concerted reaction

  • 92

    Which alkyl halide will most likely undergo an SN2 mechanism?

    Bromomethane (methyl bromide)

  • 93

    A low concentration of nucleophile favors which substitution mechanism?

    Neither SN1 nor SN2

  • 94

    Which statement(s) about nucleophilic substitution reactions are correct? 1) The reaction of NaOH with 2-chloro-2-methylbutane predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism. 2) The reaction of NaOH with 1-chloropentane predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism. 3) The reaction of NaOH with 1-chloropentane occurs at a slower rate than the reaction with 1-bromopentane.

    Statements 2 and 3 are correct

  • 95

    The gentle oxidation of ethanol produces which of the following products?

    Ethanal (acetaldehyde, CH3CHO)

  • 96

    The gentle oxidation of ethanol produces which of the following products?

    Ethanal (acetaldehyde, CH3CHO)

  • 97

    Which compound is an aldehyde?

    Ethanal (acetaldehyde, CH3CHO)

  • 98

    The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the molecular formula of this compound?

    C4H8O2 (CH3CH2CH2COOH)

  • 99

    A reaction in which a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol to form an organic compound and water is called:

    Esterification

  • 100

    Which of the following is produced when hydrogen is reacted with 2‑butanone (a ketone)?

    Secondary alcohol (2‑butanol)