Eval Exam Lab and Org

74問 • 3ヶ月前

問題一覧

Which of the following terms refers to a single sample intended to represent conditions measured at that specific moment?

Grab sample

Which of the following is NOT considered a good sampling practice?

Collecting samples only from the top layer of a large bulk material

Which of the following situations best illustrates sampling bias?

Collecting samples only from the top layer of a large bulk material

Which of the following best distinguishes Quality Assurance (QA) from Quality Control (QC) within a laboratory quality management system?

QA focuses on process design to prevent errors; QC focuses on detecting errors in results

A laboratory notices a consistent upward trend in its Levey-Jennings control chart over several days. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

A possible systematic error affecting accuracy

RA 9003 is known for setting requirements about which of the following?

Solid waste management in the Philippines

Which of the following are important characteristics of a quality control (QC) sample in a laboratory setting?

All of the above

Which of the following is most appropriate for neutralizing or handling a liquid acid spill in the laboratory?

Soda ash

What is the role of the airflow monitor on a fume hood?

It indicates if airflow is sufficient for safe operation

Which of the following correctly matches a fume hood component with its function?

Baffles - adjust airflow evenly throughout the hood interior

Which of the following statements about the laboratory chemical hood are true? I. All work should be carried out at least 15 cm (6 inches) inside from the front edge of the hood. II. Before starting work, ensure the hood exhaust system is functioning properly. III. Store hazardous chemicals in the hood to contain fumes. IV. The performance of the laboratory chemical hood is highly dependent on its location.

I, II, and IV

What is the recommended minimum distance between an eyewash station and a safety shower to allow simultaneous use?

5 feet

Which fire extinguisher type is best suited for extinguishing fires involving energized electrical equipment (Class C fires), and why?

Carbon dioxide - because it displaces oxygen without conducting electricity

Under RA 9514 (Philippine Fire Code), which class of fire involves flammable liquids and gases, and what type of extinguisher is typically recommended?

Class B - Foam or dry chemical extinguisher

Considering the fire triangle, removing which element is the most effective method for using a foam extinguisher?

Oxygen, by smothering the fire surface

In a high-humidity lab where fogging is a concern, what type of goggles is recommended to maintain clear visibility?

Antifog goggles

A laboratory consistently experiences inconsistent chemical disposal practices and recurring minor chemical spills. Based on key safety elements, which combination of interventions would most directly address these issues?

Implement a chemical hygiene plan and reinforce safety training

Which piece of equipment or resource is most critical for responding to a biological spill or exposure?

Biohazard spill kits and disinfectants

Which combination of NFPA ratings indicates a substance that is extremely flammable, poses a severe health hazard, and is unstable at high temperatures?

Health: 4, Flammability: 4, Reactivity: 1

Which type of substance can ignite spontaneously upon exposure to air due to rapid oxidation by oxygen or moisture?

Pyrophoric substances

Where can common chemical hazards in the laboratory typically be found or identified?

Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP), Safety Data Sheets (SDS), Globally Harmonized System (GHS) labels/pictograms

Which preventive measure is most critical to prevent eye and skin injuries from corrosive substances?

Availability and use of chemical spill kits and appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), including eye protection and face shields

An SDS contains the corrosion pictogram (symbol showing liquid damaging a hand and a metal surface). What hazards correspond to this pictogram?

Causes skin corrosion and serious eye damage, May be corrosive to metals

Which hazardous waste characteristic applies to liquid wastes with a flash point less than 60°C (140°F) or solids capable of spontaneous combustion at normal temperature and pressure?

Ignitability

A waste with a pH less than 2 or greater than 12.5 is classified as which hazardous characteristic?

Corrosive

Which class contains materials that may intensify fires by releasing oxygen?

Class 5 — Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides

Which waste is correctly matched with its hazardous class?

Ammonium nitrate — Class 5 (oxidizer)

This type of waste, when placed in a landfill, is reasonably expected not to undergo any significant physical, chemical, or biological changes that could pose health or safety hazards. What is it called?

Inert wastes

Which type of chemical hazard commonly encountered in laboratories may cause allergic reactions or increased sensitivity after repeated exposure?

Sensitizer

Who is the person or entity that produces hazardous waste through institutional, commercial, industrial, or trade activities?

Waste generator

A manufacturing facility replaces a solvent-based paint with a water-based alternative to reduce worker exposure. This is an example of:

Substitution

An organization develops a comprehensive schedule for rotating workers through high-noise areas to minimize individual exposure time. This is an example of which control type?

Administrative control

Which of the following best represents the correct order of effectiveness from most to least in the hierarchy of controls?

Elimination > Substitution > Engineering Controls > Administrative Controls > PPE

Which method is least appropriate for sampling a chemical process stream that fluctuates throughout the day?

Taking a single grab sample at a random time

Which component of a Quality Management System describes the roles, responsibilities, and reporting lines within a lab?

Organizational Structure

What is the primary reason for including blank samples in laboratory quality control?

Detect contamination or baseline interference

What is a biological hazard commonly found in labs?

Pathogenic bacteria, viruses, fungi

Which system uses standardized symbols and phrases to communicate chemical hazards globally?

Globally Harmonized System (GHS)

How many standardized sections are found in a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

Which of the following wastes is most likely to be classified as reactive rather than toxic?

Sodium metal shavings

Which of the following statements about carbon is not correct?

Carbon expands its valence shell to accommodate more than eight electrons and thus forms double and triple bonds.

Which of the following is NOT a constitutional (structural) isomer of 2-butene (C4H8)?

cis-2-butene (a stereoisomer of 2-butene, not a constitutional isomer)

What is the IUPAC name of the compound (CH3)2CHCH=CHCH3?

4-methyl-2-pentene

What is the correct molecular formula of the hydrocarbon CH3CH2CH=CHCH2CH3 (hex-3-ene)?

C6H12

How many hydrogen atoms does one molecule of propene have?

Which of the following is not an electrophile?

NH3 (ammonia)

Which class of compounds does not contain a C=O (carbonyl) double bond in its molecules?

Alcohols

Methanal (formaldehyde) is commonly used as a:

Preservative

During symmetrical bond breaking (homolytic cleavage), which species are formed?

Radicals

Which of the following statements correctly describes enantiomers?

They are stereoisomers that are non-identical mirror-image configurations

Three compounds have very similar molar masses: I. n-hexane (C6H14) II. dimethyl ether (CH3OCH3) III. ethanol (CH3CH2OH). What is the correct order of increasing strength of their intermolecular forces?

I < II < III

Which class of compounds consists exclusively of saturated hydrocarbons?

Alkanes

Which compound will rapidly decolorize Br2 in CCl4?

1-hexene

In what way does the reactivity of propyne (CH3C≡CH) differ from propene (CH3CH=CH2)?

Propyne can be deprotonated by a strong base such as NaNH2, while propene cannot.

How many sigma and pi bonds are present in benzene?

12 sigma and 3 pi

The most activating substituent in electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS) is:

-NH2

Which of the following substituents is not an ortho/para directing group in EAS?

-CN

Which of the following is the rate-determining step in electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS)?

Addition of the electrophile to the aromatic π system to form the arenium (sigma) carbocation

Which of the following is not a product of the reaction of benzene with CH3Cl and AlCl3 (Friedel–Crafts alkylation with methyl chloride)?

Isopropylbenzene

Why are alkyl halides very reactive toward nucleophiles?

They have an electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group

What does SN2 mean?

One-step nucleophilic substitution involving both the alkyl halide and the nucleophile

Which type of alkyl halide can typically undergo both SN1 and SN2 reactions (depending on conditions)?

Secondary alkyl halide (e.g., 2-chlorobutane)

Which of the following reactions is favored by a polar aprotic solvent?

SN2

Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?

Ethanol (CH3CH2OH)

What is the general formula of an ether?

R-O-R

Carbon is found in the highest oxidation state in which class of organic compounds (among the choices)?

Aldehydes

Dehydration of an alcohol typically yields a(n):

Alkene

Which test will most reliably distinguish between an alcohol and an ether with the formula C4H10O?

The alcohol will have the higher normal boiling point

Which statement most accurately describes the properties and typical reactions of ketones and esters?

Ketones react by nucleophilic addition; esters react by nucleophilic (acyl) substitution

Ketones react with reducing agents to form:

Secondary alcohols

Which of the following reactions will not produce aldehydes?

Oxidation of secondary alcohols

Which of the following is a common industrial source of alcohol?

Sugar

Which of the following is a tertiary amine?

(CH3)3N (trimethylamine)

Which of the following is a likely property of an amine with the molecular formula C6H11N?

Strong, unpleasant odor

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問題一覧

Which of the following terms refers to a single sample intended to represent conditions measured at that specific moment?

Grab sample

Which of the following is NOT considered a good sampling practice?

Collecting samples only from the top layer of a large bulk material

Which of the following situations best illustrates sampling bias?

Collecting samples only from the top layer of a large bulk material

Which of the following best distinguishes Quality Assurance (QA) from Quality Control (QC) within a laboratory quality management system?

QA focuses on process design to prevent errors; QC focuses on detecting errors in results

A laboratory notices a consistent upward trend in its Levey-Jennings control chart over several days. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

A possible systematic error affecting accuracy

RA 9003 is known for setting requirements about which of the following?

Solid waste management in the Philippines

Which of the following are important characteristics of a quality control (QC) sample in a laboratory setting?

All of the above

Which of the following is most appropriate for neutralizing or handling a liquid acid spill in the laboratory?

Soda ash

What is the role of the airflow monitor on a fume hood?

It indicates if airflow is sufficient for safe operation

Which of the following correctly matches a fume hood component with its function?

Baffles - adjust airflow evenly throughout the hood interior

I, II, and IV

What is the recommended minimum distance between an eyewash station and a safety shower to allow simultaneous use?

5 feet

Which fire extinguisher type is best suited for extinguishing fires involving energized electrical equipment (Class C fires), and why?

Carbon dioxide - because it displaces oxygen without conducting electricity

Under RA 9514 (Philippine Fire Code), which class of fire involves flammable liquids and gases, and what type of extinguisher is typically recommended?

Class B - Foam or dry chemical extinguisher

Considering the fire triangle, removing which element is the most effective method for using a foam extinguisher?

Oxygen, by smothering the fire surface

In a high-humidity lab where fogging is a concern, what type of goggles is recommended to maintain clear visibility?

Antifog goggles

Implement a chemical hygiene plan and reinforce safety training

Which piece of equipment or resource is most critical for responding to a biological spill or exposure?

Biohazard spill kits and disinfectants

Which combination of NFPA ratings indicates a substance that is extremely flammable, poses a severe health hazard, and is unstable at high temperatures?

Health: 4, Flammability: 4, Reactivity: 1

Which type of substance can ignite spontaneously upon exposure to air due to rapid oxidation by oxygen or moisture?

Pyrophoric substances

Where can common chemical hazards in the laboratory typically be found or identified?

Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP), Safety Data Sheets (SDS), Globally Harmonized System (GHS) labels/pictograms

Which preventive measure is most critical to prevent eye and skin injuries from corrosive substances?

Availability and use of chemical spill kits and appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), including eye protection and face shields

An SDS contains the corrosion pictogram (symbol showing liquid damaging a hand and a metal surface). What hazards correspond to this pictogram?

Causes skin corrosion and serious eye damage, May be corrosive to metals

Which hazardous waste characteristic applies to liquid wastes with a flash point less than 60°C (140°F) or solids capable of spontaneous combustion at normal temperature and pressure?

Ignitability

A waste with a pH less than 2 or greater than 12.5 is classified as which hazardous characteristic?

Corrosive

Which class contains materials that may intensify fires by releasing oxygen?

Class 5 — Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides

Which waste is correctly matched with its hazardous class?

Ammonium nitrate — Class 5 (oxidizer)

Inert wastes

Which type of chemical hazard commonly encountered in laboratories may cause allergic reactions or increased sensitivity after repeated exposure?

Sensitizer

Who is the person or entity that produces hazardous waste through institutional, commercial, industrial, or trade activities?

Waste generator

A manufacturing facility replaces a solvent-based paint with a water-based alternative to reduce worker exposure. This is an example of:

Substitution

An organization develops a comprehensive schedule for rotating workers through high-noise areas to minimize individual exposure time. This is an example of which control type?

Administrative control

Which of the following best represents the correct order of effectiveness from most to least in the hierarchy of controls?

Elimination > Substitution > Engineering Controls > Administrative Controls > PPE

Which method is least appropriate for sampling a chemical process stream that fluctuates throughout the day?

Taking a single grab sample at a random time

Which component of a Quality Management System describes the roles, responsibilities, and reporting lines within a lab?

Organizational Structure

What is the primary reason for including blank samples in laboratory quality control?

Detect contamination or baseline interference

What is a biological hazard commonly found in labs?

Pathogenic bacteria, viruses, fungi

Which system uses standardized symbols and phrases to communicate chemical hazards globally?

Globally Harmonized System (GHS)

How many standardized sections are found in a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

Which of the following wastes is most likely to be classified as reactive rather than toxic?

Sodium metal shavings

Which of the following statements about carbon is not correct?

Carbon expands its valence shell to accommodate more than eight electrons and thus forms double and triple bonds.

Which of the following is NOT a constitutional (structural) isomer of 2-butene (C4H8)?

cis-2-butene (a stereoisomer of 2-butene, not a constitutional isomer)

What is the IUPAC name of the compound (CH3)2CHCH=CHCH3?

4-methyl-2-pentene

What is the correct molecular formula of the hydrocarbon CH3CH2CH=CHCH2CH3 (hex-3-ene)?

C6H12

How many hydrogen atoms does one molecule of propene have?

Which of the following is not an electrophile?

NH3 (ammonia)

Which class of compounds does not contain a C=O (carbonyl) double bond in its molecules?

Alcohols

Methanal (formaldehyde) is commonly used as a:

Preservative

During symmetrical bond breaking (homolytic cleavage), which species are formed?

Radicals

Which of the following statements correctly describes enantiomers?

They are stereoisomers that are non-identical mirror-image configurations

I < II < III

Which class of compounds consists exclusively of saturated hydrocarbons?

Alkanes

Which compound will rapidly decolorize Br2 in CCl4?

1-hexene

In what way does the reactivity of propyne (CH3C≡CH) differ from propene (CH3CH=CH2)?

Propyne can be deprotonated by a strong base such as NaNH2, while propene cannot.

How many sigma and pi bonds are present in benzene?

12 sigma and 3 pi

The most activating substituent in electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS) is:

-NH2

Which of the following substituents is not an ortho/para directing group in EAS?

-CN

Which of the following is the rate-determining step in electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS)?

Addition of the electrophile to the aromatic π system to form the arenium (sigma) carbocation

Which of the following is not a product of the reaction of benzene with CH3Cl and AlCl3 (Friedel–Crafts alkylation with methyl chloride)?

Isopropylbenzene

Why are alkyl halides very reactive toward nucleophiles?

They have an electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group

What does SN2 mean?

One-step nucleophilic substitution involving both the alkyl halide and the nucleophile

Which type of alkyl halide can typically undergo both SN1 and SN2 reactions (depending on conditions)?

Secondary alkyl halide (e.g., 2-chlorobutane)

Which of the following reactions is favored by a polar aprotic solvent?

SN2

Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?

Ethanol (CH3CH2OH)

What is the general formula of an ether?

R-O-R

Carbon is found in the highest oxidation state in which class of organic compounds (among the choices)?

Aldehydes

Dehydration of an alcohol typically yields a(n):

Alkene

Which test will most reliably distinguish between an alcohol and an ether with the formula C4H10O?

The alcohol will have the higher normal boiling point

Which statement most accurately describes the properties and typical reactions of ketones and esters?

Ketones react by nucleophilic addition; esters react by nucleophilic (acyl) substitution

Ketones react with reducing agents to form:

Secondary alcohols

Which of the following reactions will not produce aldehydes?

Oxidation of secondary alcohols

Which of the following is a common industrial source of alcohol?

Sugar

Which of the following is a tertiary amine?

(CH3)3N (trimethylamine)

Which of the following is a likely property of an amine with the molecular formula C6H11N?

Strong, unpleasant odor