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Lecturio Midterms 🥹🀓

Lecturio Midterms 🥹🀓
99問 • 1幎前
  • ナヌザ名非公開
  • 通報

    問題䞀芧

  • 1

    Which of the following congenital heart diseases is most likely the cause of PaO, < 40 mm Hg after a hyperoxia test in an infant?

    Transposition of the great vessels

  • 2

    Which of the following features will allow a baby with transposition of the great vessels to remain alive at birth?

    Patent ductus arteriosus

  • 3

    Which of the following defects is present in tricuspid atresia? Which of the following defects is present in tricuspid atresia?

    A small right ventricle

  • 4

    What finding in tetralogy of Fallot most directly affects whether a child is a "pink tet" or a "blue tet"?

    Pulmonary artery stenosis

  • 5

    Which of the following causes blue baby syndrome?

    Methemoglobinemia

  • 6

    Which of the following two structures merge together to form the defect of truncus arteriosus?

    Aorta and pulmonary artery

  • 7

    Of the three surgeries required for a patient with tricuspid atresia with obstructed pulmonary flow, which of the following is the first one?

    Blalock Taussig

  • 8

    Which of the following does not cause blue baby syndrome?

    ABO incompatibility

  • 9

    What is the first parameter of treatment in a case of truncus arteriosus?

    Surgical correction

  • 10

    When is the appropriate time for the initial surgical intervention in patients with tricuspid atresia?

    Neonatal period

  • 11

    What is the first medication you give a baby with suspected ductal dependent cyanotic heart disease?

    Prostaglandins

  • 12

    In most TAPVR, blood flow from the lungs varies based on the site it enters the systemic venous circulation. What is the most likely place for blood return?

    Supracardiac

  • 13

    A baby is born with hypoplastic left heart syndrome and has a pulse oximetry reading of 75%. Which of the following is the most important initial therapy?

    Prostaglandin E1

  • 14

    Which of the following is a common finding in aortic coarctation?

    Hypertension

  • 15

    Which of the following is most likely to cause shock in a newborn with hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

    Closed ductus arteriosus

  • 16

    Which of the following is most appropriate initial diagnostic step in a newborn with cyanosis, tachycardia, and heart murmur?

    Echocardiography

  • 17

    Which of the following may occur as a side effect of prostaglandin administration in patients with cyanotic heart disease?

    Apnea

  • 18

    Which of the following is NOT a feature of tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

    Left ventricular hypertrophy

  • 19

    How does the heart silhouette typically appear on a posterior-anterior X-ray in a patient with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

    Boot shaped

  • 20

    Which of the following is characteristic of aortic coarctation?

    Diminished femoral pulses

  • 21

    Which of the following is TRUE about hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)?

    There is no therapy for asymptomatic patients

  • 22

    Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in an infant with surgical closure of the patent ductus arteriosus and post surgical stridor?

    Injury to the laryngeal nerve

  • 23

    Which of the following physical findings may be noted in a patient with Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?

    A fixed splitting of S2

  • 24

    What is the most common type of VSD?

    Membranous

  • 25

    What is the most common cause of acquired myocarditis?

    Viral infections

  • 26

    You suspect an athlete to have hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. Which of the following tests would help you confirm the diagnosis?

    Echocardiography

  • 27

    What is the most common congenital heart disease in patient's with Down syndrome?

    Atrioventricular septal defect

  • 28

    Which of the following clinical manifestations is least likely in a patient with acute myocarditis

    Deep tenderness at McBurney's point

  • 29

    What is the approximate frequency of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy in the general adult population?

    1:500

  • 30

    Which of the following medications should be administered to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open?

    Prostaglandin E1

  • 31

    What is the typical auscultatory finding in a patient with pericarditis?

    Friction rub

  • 32

    Which of the following tests is least likely to assist the clinician in the evaluation of a child suspected of cardiomyopathy?

    Blood cultures

  • 33

    Which of the following is an acquired cause of cardiomyopathy?

    Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

  • 34

    An ECG shows regular P waves and wide QRS complexes at regular intervals without any relationship between the P waves and the QRS complexes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    Third-degree heart block

  • 35

    Which of the following is NOT a type of supraventricular tachycardia?

    Premature ventricular contractions

  • 36

    Which of the following positions typically worsens the chest pain in pericarditis?

    Lying supine

  • 37

    Which of the following does not decrease the rate of sinoatrial node pacing?

    Albuterol

  • 38

    Which of the following is the initial choice of investigation in a patient with bradycardia?

    ECG

  • 39

    Which of the following is true about a child with bradycardia born to a mother with anti-Ro-positive lupus?

    It is most likely due to a congenital heart block.

  • 40

    Which of the following is NOT a common cause of tachycardia in children?

    Sleep

  • 41

    Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy in unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?

    Synchronized cardioversion

  • 42

    Roth spots are identified on physical exam by which of the following findings?

    Retinal hemorrhage with pale center

  • 43

    Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of a patient with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia who is hemodynamically stable?

    Adenosine

  • 44

    A 13-year-old boy comes to you with clinical features of Infective endocarditis. After drawing blood for large volume blood culture, an immediate echocardiogram was done which revealed abscess formation in the Tricuspid valve. Which of the following is the most likely organism?

    Staphylococcus aureus

  • 45

    A 15-year-old with suspected infective endocarditis is planned to be started on empiric antibiotics while waiting for the blood culture reports. Which of the following combination of antibiotics is most appropriate?

    Ceftriaxone and Vancomycin

  • 46

    Which of the following is a typical feature in ECG of a patient with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

    Delta wave

  • 47

    What is the first medication you give a baby with suspected ductal dependent cyanotic heart disease?

    Prostaglandins

  • 48

    Which of the following defects is present in tricuspid atresia?

    A small right ventricle

  • 49

    What are the clinical features of subinvolution? Select all that apply.

    Soft or boggy feeling uterus Uterus not descending Heavy prolonged bleeding

  • 50

    What are nursing implications for subinvolution? Select all that apply.

    Preparing for a dilation and curettage (D&C) Administration of oxytocin Encouraging frequent urination

  • 51

    What are the risk factors for uterine inversion? Select all that apply.

    Traction of the umbilical cord Vigorous uterine massage Retained placenta

  • 52

    What are the nursing implications while caring for a client with uterine inversion? Select all that apply.

    Notify anesthesia for the reinversion procedure. Draw labs after the reinversion procedure. Start an IV to administer fluids.

  • 53

    What are the characteristics of mastitis? Select all that apply.

    Palpable mass Increased maternal temperature Milk stasis is a risk factor

  • 54

    What are the clinical features of postpartum urinary retention? Select all that apply.

    The uterus may have deviated. Sense of urgency > 150 ml left in the bladder after voiding

  • 55

    What are the risk factors for postpartum urinary retention? Select all that apply.

    A prolonged second stage of birth A forceps delivery damages the urethra Epidural anesthesia

  • 56

    What is a nursing implication for mastitis?

    Monitor for possible abscess formation.

  • 57

    What are the characteristics of postpartum urinary tract infection? Select all that apply.

    Having to urinate more often Urine dipstick result positive for WBCs An indwelling catheter is a risk factor

  • 58

    Which maternal behavior reflects postpartum depression?

    Always prefers the baby to be in the crib rather than holding them.

  • 59

    Which characteristics describe postpartum depression? Select all that apply.

    Lack of self-care Symptoms last longer than 2 weeks.

  • 60

    What are the nursing assessments and implications while caring for a client with postpartum depression? Select all that apply.

    Edinburgh Depression scale assessment Encourage rest

  • 61

    What are the clinical features of amniotic fluid embolus (AFE)? Select all that apply.

    Chest pain Shortness of breath Elevated temperature

  • 62

    What are the nursing implications while caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? Select all that apply.

    Elevate the legs Administer heparin Apply sequential compression devices (SCD)

  • 63

    What is a clinical feature of a hematoma?

    Unexplained pain

  • 64

    What is the treatment for amniotic fluid embolus (AFE)?

    Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

  • 65

    Which statements about postpartum complications are true? Select all that apply.

    Secondary postpartum hemorrhage is commonly caused by uterine atony. Uterine inversion can be caused by aggressive fundal massage. Breast mastitis can be treated by frequent feedings.

  • 66

    What is a common cause of vomiting? Select all that apply.

    Infection Gastrointestinal obstruction Pyloric Stenosis

  • 67

    A two-year-old client presents to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

    Ask the client's caregivers how much and how often they are vomiting.

  • 68

    The nurse is assessing a pediatric client experiencing frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting. The nurse notices that the client has foul-smelling breath and green sputum coming from the mouth. What should the nurse do first?

    Auscultate the child's lungs.

  • 69

    What is the most common acid-base imbalance in clients experiencing vomiting?

    Metabolic alkalosis

  • 70

    What is the priority when caring for a pediatric client experiencing vomiting?

    Maintaining a patent airway.

  • 71

    How is total fluid loss evaluated?

    Calculate the total emesis and urine output and compare it to intake.

  • 72

    What is the preferred method of rehydrating pediatric clients?

    Oral rehydration

  • 73

    What are the potential signs and symptoms of diarrhea? Select all that apply.

    Greasy, loose stools. Stools that contain mucus or blood. Abdominal cramping.

  • 74

    What is an example of an infectious cause of diarrhea? Select all that apply.

    Norovirus Shigella Rotavirus

  • 75

    How are most cases of pediatric diarrhea diagnosed?

    Based on history and symptom presentation.

  • 76

    What is the priority intervention for pediatric clients experiencing diarrhea?

    Oral or intravenous rehydration

  • 77

    The nurse is caring for a pediatric client experiencing diarrhea. Which caregiver statement requires further investigation from the nurse?

    "We recently switched my child from dairy-free formula to cow's milk."

  • 78

    The nurse is caring for a pediatric client experiencing diarrhea. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

    Monitoring urine and fecal output. Weighing the client daily. Assessing for dehydration.

  • 79

    What is true about appendicitis?

    The exact cause is unknown.

  • 80

    What is usually the first sign of appendicitis?

    Pain at the umbilicus.

  • 81

    The nurse is caring for a pediatric client with suspected appendicitis. Which tests does the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider will order? Select all that apply.

    Complete blood count Abdominal ultrasound Serum electrolytes

  • 82

    The student nurse is caring for a client with appendicitis. Which action by the student nurse causes the nurse instructor to intervene?

    The student nurse prepares a heat pack to give to the client.

  • 83

    What is true about the treatment of appendicitis?

    The first line of treatment is antibiotics.

  • 84

    The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with appendicitis who reports that the pain has suddenly gone from a 10/10 to a 2/10. Which nurse action is most appropriate?

    Notifying the client's healthcare provider.

  • 85

    What is true about gastroenteritis?

    It can be made worse by some anti-nausea medications.

  • 86

    The student nurse is assessing a client experiencing gastroenteritis symptoms for the last three days. Which student nurse statement causes the nurse instructor to intervene?

    "I just need you to provide a stool sample so we can figure out what is causing your symptoms."

  • 87

    The nurse is preparing a presentation for parents of young children on how to prevent gastroenteritis. Which statements should the nurse include in the presentation? Select all that apply.

    Ensure your child is up to date with vaccinations. Encourage your child to wash their hands frequently. Gastroenteritis can be caused by improper food storage.

  • 88

    The parent of a child with gastroenteritis asks the nurse what they should do to help the child get better. Which nurse response is most appropriate?

    "Bring your child to the doctor or the hospital if their oral intake decreases or dehydration is suspected."

  • 89

    Which symptoms are consistent with chronic pediatric constipation? Select all that apply.

    Straining with bowel movements Urinary incontinence Weight loss Ribbon stools

  • 90

    Which is true about pediatric constipation? Select all that apply.

    Developmental stages can trigger it. It is relatively common. It can be caused by inadequate oral intake.

  • 91

    A new parent asks the nurse how often they should expect a child to have a bowel movement. Which nurse statement is most correct?

    "Depending on whether your baby is breast or formula fed, they will likely have around two to three bowel movements daily for the first three months of life."

  • 92

    Which diagnostic imaging technique is typically ordered first for pediatric clients experiencing constipation?

    Xray

  • 93

    The parent of a five-month-old child asks the nurse about methods for treating constipation. Which nurse response is most appropriate?

    “Give your child apples or prune juice if they are constipated."

  • 94

    The nurse is caring for a pediatric client experiencing constipation that is unrelieved by toileting patterns and diet changes. The client received treatment in the hospital and is being sent home with medication to take daily. Which medication does the nurse anticipate being prescribed for maintenance therapy for this client?

    Polyethylene glycol

  • 95

    The nurse cares for a client who continues to experience severe and persistent constipation despite being prescribed a daily laxative following initial treatment with an enema. Which treatment does the nurse anticipate next for this client?

    Administering another enema and increasing the dose of the daily laxative.

  • 96

    The nurse is caring for a client with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which test does the nurse anticipate will be ordered first?

    Abdominal ultrasound

  • 97

    Which symptoms are indicative of pyloric stenosis? Select all that apply.

    Dehydration Small palpable abdominal mass

  • 98

    Which is true about pyloric stenosis?

    It only occurs in infants

  • 99

    What is pyloric stenosis?

    The thickening of the opening of the stomach into the small intestine.

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    問題䞀芧

  • 1

    Which of the following congenital heart diseases is most likely the cause of PaO, < 40 mm Hg after a hyperoxia test in an infant?

    Transposition of the great vessels

  • 2

    Which of the following features will allow a baby with transposition of the great vessels to remain alive at birth?

    Patent ductus arteriosus

  • 3

    Which of the following defects is present in tricuspid atresia? Which of the following defects is present in tricuspid atresia?

    A small right ventricle

  • 4

    What finding in tetralogy of Fallot most directly affects whether a child is a "pink tet" or a "blue tet"?

    Pulmonary artery stenosis

  • 5

    Which of the following causes blue baby syndrome?

    Methemoglobinemia

  • 6

    Which of the following two structures merge together to form the defect of truncus arteriosus?

    Aorta and pulmonary artery

  • 7

    Of the three surgeries required for a patient with tricuspid atresia with obstructed pulmonary flow, which of the following is the first one?

    Blalock Taussig

  • 8

    Which of the following does not cause blue baby syndrome?

    ABO incompatibility

  • 9

    What is the first parameter of treatment in a case of truncus arteriosus?

    Surgical correction

  • 10

    When is the appropriate time for the initial surgical intervention in patients with tricuspid atresia?

    Neonatal period

  • 11

    What is the first medication you give a baby with suspected ductal dependent cyanotic heart disease?

    Prostaglandins

  • 12

    In most TAPVR, blood flow from the lungs varies based on the site it enters the systemic venous circulation. What is the most likely place for blood return?

    Supracardiac

  • 13

    A baby is born with hypoplastic left heart syndrome and has a pulse oximetry reading of 75%. Which of the following is the most important initial therapy?

    Prostaglandin E1

  • 14

    Which of the following is a common finding in aortic coarctation?

    Hypertension

  • 15

    Which of the following is most likely to cause shock in a newborn with hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

    Closed ductus arteriosus

  • 16

    Which of the following is most appropriate initial diagnostic step in a newborn with cyanosis, tachycardia, and heart murmur?

    Echocardiography

  • 17

    Which of the following may occur as a side effect of prostaglandin administration in patients with cyanotic heart disease?

    Apnea

  • 18

    Which of the following is NOT a feature of tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

    Left ventricular hypertrophy

  • 19

    How does the heart silhouette typically appear on a posterior-anterior X-ray in a patient with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

    Boot shaped

  • 20

    Which of the following is characteristic of aortic coarctation?

    Diminished femoral pulses

  • 21

    Which of the following is TRUE about hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)?

    There is no therapy for asymptomatic patients

  • 22

    Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in an infant with surgical closure of the patent ductus arteriosus and post surgical stridor?

    Injury to the laryngeal nerve

  • 23

    Which of the following physical findings may be noted in a patient with Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?

    A fixed splitting of S2

  • 24

    What is the most common type of VSD?

    Membranous

  • 25

    What is the most common cause of acquired myocarditis?

    Viral infections

  • 26

    You suspect an athlete to have hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. Which of the following tests would help you confirm the diagnosis?

    Echocardiography

  • 27

    What is the most common congenital heart disease in patient's with Down syndrome?

    Atrioventricular septal defect

  • 28

    Which of the following clinical manifestations is least likely in a patient with acute myocarditis

    Deep tenderness at McBurney's point

  • 29

    What is the approximate frequency of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy in the general adult population?

    1:500

  • 30

    Which of the following medications should be administered to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open?

    Prostaglandin E1

  • 31

    What is the typical auscultatory finding in a patient with pericarditis?

    Friction rub

  • 32

    Which of the following tests is least likely to assist the clinician in the evaluation of a child suspected of cardiomyopathy?

    Blood cultures

  • 33

    Which of the following is an acquired cause of cardiomyopathy?

    Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

  • 34

    An ECG shows regular P waves and wide QRS complexes at regular intervals without any relationship between the P waves and the QRS complexes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    Third-degree heart block

  • 35

    Which of the following is NOT a type of supraventricular tachycardia?

    Premature ventricular contractions

  • 36

    Which of the following positions typically worsens the chest pain in pericarditis?

    Lying supine

  • 37

    Which of the following does not decrease the rate of sinoatrial node pacing?

    Albuterol

  • 38

    Which of the following is the initial choice of investigation in a patient with bradycardia?

    ECG

  • 39

    Which of the following is true about a child with bradycardia born to a mother with anti-Ro-positive lupus?

    It is most likely due to a congenital heart block.

  • 40

    Which of the following is NOT a common cause of tachycardia in children?

    Sleep

  • 41

    Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy in unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?

    Synchronized cardioversion

  • 42

    Roth spots are identified on physical exam by which of the following findings?

    Retinal hemorrhage with pale center

  • 43

    Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of a patient with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia who is hemodynamically stable?

    Adenosine

  • 44

    A 13-year-old boy comes to you with clinical features of Infective endocarditis. After drawing blood for large volume blood culture, an immediate echocardiogram was done which revealed abscess formation in the Tricuspid valve. Which of the following is the most likely organism?

    Staphylococcus aureus

  • 45

    A 15-year-old with suspected infective endocarditis is planned to be started on empiric antibiotics while waiting for the blood culture reports. Which of the following combination of antibiotics is most appropriate?

    Ceftriaxone and Vancomycin

  • 46

    Which of the following is a typical feature in ECG of a patient with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

    Delta wave

  • 47

    What is the first medication you give a baby with suspected ductal dependent cyanotic heart disease?

    Prostaglandins

  • 48

    Which of the following defects is present in tricuspid atresia?

    A small right ventricle

  • 49

    What are the clinical features of subinvolution? Select all that apply.

    Soft or boggy feeling uterus Uterus not descending Heavy prolonged bleeding

  • 50

    What are nursing implications for subinvolution? Select all that apply.

    Preparing for a dilation and curettage (D&C) Administration of oxytocin Encouraging frequent urination

  • 51

    What are the risk factors for uterine inversion? Select all that apply.

    Traction of the umbilical cord Vigorous uterine massage Retained placenta

  • 52

    What are the nursing implications while caring for a client with uterine inversion? Select all that apply.

    Notify anesthesia for the reinversion procedure. Draw labs after the reinversion procedure. Start an IV to administer fluids.

  • 53

    What are the characteristics of mastitis? Select all that apply.

    Palpable mass Increased maternal temperature Milk stasis is a risk factor

  • 54

    What are the clinical features of postpartum urinary retention? Select all that apply.

    The uterus may have deviated. Sense of urgency > 150 ml left in the bladder after voiding

  • 55

    What are the risk factors for postpartum urinary retention? Select all that apply.

    A prolonged second stage of birth A forceps delivery damages the urethra Epidural anesthesia

  • 56

    What is a nursing implication for mastitis?

    Monitor for possible abscess formation.

  • 57

    What are the characteristics of postpartum urinary tract infection? Select all that apply.

    Having to urinate more often Urine dipstick result positive for WBCs An indwelling catheter is a risk factor

  • 58

    Which maternal behavior reflects postpartum depression?

    Always prefers the baby to be in the crib rather than holding them.

  • 59

    Which characteristics describe postpartum depression? Select all that apply.

    Lack of self-care Symptoms last longer than 2 weeks.

  • 60

    What are the nursing assessments and implications while caring for a client with postpartum depression? Select all that apply.

    Edinburgh Depression scale assessment Encourage rest

  • 61

    What are the clinical features of amniotic fluid embolus (AFE)? Select all that apply.

    Chest pain Shortness of breath Elevated temperature

  • 62

    What are the nursing implications while caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? Select all that apply.

    Elevate the legs Administer heparin Apply sequential compression devices (SCD)

  • 63

    What is a clinical feature of a hematoma?

    Unexplained pain

  • 64

    What is the treatment for amniotic fluid embolus (AFE)?

    Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

  • 65

    Which statements about postpartum complications are true? Select all that apply.

    Secondary postpartum hemorrhage is commonly caused by uterine atony. Uterine inversion can be caused by aggressive fundal massage. Breast mastitis can be treated by frequent feedings.

  • 66

    What is a common cause of vomiting? Select all that apply.

    Infection Gastrointestinal obstruction Pyloric Stenosis

  • 67

    A two-year-old client presents to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

    Ask the client's caregivers how much and how often they are vomiting.

  • 68

    The nurse is assessing a pediatric client experiencing frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting. The nurse notices that the client has foul-smelling breath and green sputum coming from the mouth. What should the nurse do first?

    Auscultate the child's lungs.

  • 69

    What is the most common acid-base imbalance in clients experiencing vomiting?

    Metabolic alkalosis

  • 70

    What is the priority when caring for a pediatric client experiencing vomiting?

    Maintaining a patent airway.

  • 71

    How is total fluid loss evaluated?

    Calculate the total emesis and urine output and compare it to intake.

  • 72

    What is the preferred method of rehydrating pediatric clients?

    Oral rehydration

  • 73

    What are the potential signs and symptoms of diarrhea? Select all that apply.

    Greasy, loose stools. Stools that contain mucus or blood. Abdominal cramping.

  • 74

    What is an example of an infectious cause of diarrhea? Select all that apply.

    Norovirus Shigella Rotavirus

  • 75

    How are most cases of pediatric diarrhea diagnosed?

    Based on history and symptom presentation.

  • 76

    What is the priority intervention for pediatric clients experiencing diarrhea?

    Oral or intravenous rehydration

  • 77

    The nurse is caring for a pediatric client experiencing diarrhea. Which caregiver statement requires further investigation from the nurse?

    "We recently switched my child from dairy-free formula to cow's milk."

  • 78

    The nurse is caring for a pediatric client experiencing diarrhea. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

    Monitoring urine and fecal output. Weighing the client daily. Assessing for dehydration.

  • 79

    What is true about appendicitis?

    The exact cause is unknown.

  • 80

    What is usually the first sign of appendicitis?

    Pain at the umbilicus.

  • 81

    The nurse is caring for a pediatric client with suspected appendicitis. Which tests does the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider will order? Select all that apply.

    Complete blood count Abdominal ultrasound Serum electrolytes

  • 82

    The student nurse is caring for a client with appendicitis. Which action by the student nurse causes the nurse instructor to intervene?

    The student nurse prepares a heat pack to give to the client.

  • 83

    What is true about the treatment of appendicitis?

    The first line of treatment is antibiotics.

  • 84

    The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with appendicitis who reports that the pain has suddenly gone from a 10/10 to a 2/10. Which nurse action is most appropriate?

    Notifying the client's healthcare provider.

  • 85

    What is true about gastroenteritis?

    It can be made worse by some anti-nausea medications.

  • 86

    The student nurse is assessing a client experiencing gastroenteritis symptoms for the last three days. Which student nurse statement causes the nurse instructor to intervene?

    "I just need you to provide a stool sample so we can figure out what is causing your symptoms."

  • 87

    The nurse is preparing a presentation for parents of young children on how to prevent gastroenteritis. Which statements should the nurse include in the presentation? Select all that apply.

    Ensure your child is up to date with vaccinations. Encourage your child to wash their hands frequently. Gastroenteritis can be caused by improper food storage.

  • 88

    The parent of a child with gastroenteritis asks the nurse what they should do to help the child get better. Which nurse response is most appropriate?

    "Bring your child to the doctor or the hospital if their oral intake decreases or dehydration is suspected."

  • 89

    Which symptoms are consistent with chronic pediatric constipation? Select all that apply.

    Straining with bowel movements Urinary incontinence Weight loss Ribbon stools

  • 90

    Which is true about pediatric constipation? Select all that apply.

    Developmental stages can trigger it. It is relatively common. It can be caused by inadequate oral intake.

  • 91

    A new parent asks the nurse how often they should expect a child to have a bowel movement. Which nurse statement is most correct?

    "Depending on whether your baby is breast or formula fed, they will likely have around two to three bowel movements daily for the first three months of life."

  • 92

    Which diagnostic imaging technique is typically ordered first for pediatric clients experiencing constipation?

    Xray

  • 93

    The parent of a five-month-old child asks the nurse about methods for treating constipation. Which nurse response is most appropriate?

    “Give your child apples or prune juice if they are constipated."

  • 94

    The nurse is caring for a pediatric client experiencing constipation that is unrelieved by toileting patterns and diet changes. The client received treatment in the hospital and is being sent home with medication to take daily. Which medication does the nurse anticipate being prescribed for maintenance therapy for this client?

    Polyethylene glycol

  • 95

    The nurse cares for a client who continues to experience severe and persistent constipation despite being prescribed a daily laxative following initial treatment with an enema. Which treatment does the nurse anticipate next for this client?

    Administering another enema and increasing the dose of the daily laxative.

  • 96

    The nurse is caring for a client with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which test does the nurse anticipate will be ordered first?

    Abdominal ultrasound

  • 97

    Which symptoms are indicative of pyloric stenosis? Select all that apply.

    Dehydration Small palpable abdominal mass

  • 98

    Which is true about pyloric stenosis?

    It only occurs in infants

  • 99

    What is pyloric stenosis?

    The thickening of the opening of the stomach into the small intestine.