問題一覧
1
Which statements about Rh incompatibility are true? Select all that apply
- First exposure to Rh-positive blood results in IgM release.
- The mixing of maternal and fetal blood is part of the physiology of pregnancy.
- After the initial mix of mother and baby's blood, the baby is at risk for harm.
- IgG antibodies can cross the placenta and cause complications.
- Complications occur when the mother is Rh-positive and the baby Rh-negative.
- First exposure to Rh-positive blood results in IgM release. - IgG antibodies can cross the placenta and cause complications.
2
What is the purpose of RhoGAM?
To circulate non-destructive Rh-antibodies
3
Which of the following is a characteristic craniofacial feature of a child with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?
Long and flat philtrum
4
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic abnormality in a child with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?
Ataxia
5
What is the safe lower limit of alcohol intake during pregnancy?
There is no safe lower limit. Patients should be advised not to drink alcohol during pregnancy
6
Your 32-year-old G4P3 patient comes to you for her first prenatal appointment at an estimated 22 weeks gestational age. She states that she drinks about 1 glass of wine with dinner a day to feel relaxed enough to go to bed after a stressful day of work. Otherwise, she has never experienced anyone ask her about her drinking, has never felt the need to cut down on her alcohol intake, and has never needed an "eye-opener" in the morning. Is the screening positive for alcohol abuse?
No, she has no points on the screening test.
7
Which of the following is NOT a known effect of smoking during pregnancy?
Gestational hypertension
8
What is the first step in smoking cessation counselling?
Ask if the patient is ready to stop smoking and educate her on the negative side effects of smoking on pregnancy and fetal well-being.
9
A neonate is born with congenital cretinism. Which of the following is NOT a likely cause?
Maternal hyperthyroidism
10
What type of anemia is typically seen in patients with hyperthyroidism?
Normocytic normochromic anemia
11
Which of the following is a feature of hypothyroidism?
Myxedema coma
12
Which of the following is NOT a typical sign or symptom of hypothyroidism?
Pre-tibial myxedema
13
Which of the following is an antibody found in hypothyroidism?
Anti-thyroid antibodies
14
A 25-year-old woman comes with a history of a distended abdomen and 3 months of amenorrhea. She complains of tremors and heat intolerance. Abdominal ultrasound shows a pelvic mass. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Struma ovarii
15
Which of the following is NOT a fetal effect of maternal hyperthyroidism?
Cretinism
16
Which of the following is the most common cause of primary maternal hypothyroidism in developed countries?
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
17
Which of the following is an example of primary hypothyroidism in pregnancy?
Drug-induced hypothyroidism
18
Which of the following is the most common cause of maternal hyperthyroidism during pregnancy?
Graves' disease
19
Which of the following is NOT a common cause of goiter?
Anaplastic cancer of thyroid
20
For a woman to be considered to have post-partum thyroiditis, features of hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism must be developed within what period of time after childbirth?
12 months
21
Breastfeeding is contraindicated in which of the following therapies used in the management of thyroid problems?
Radioactive iodine
22
Which of the following is contraindicated in the treatment of thyroid storm?
Levothyroxine
23
The following statements are true about sustainable development goals Select all that apply
A. A broad and universal policy agenda with 17 global targets for sustainable development.
B. There are 168 associated targets.
C. Seeks to guide member states to transform their approach to achieve inclusive, people-centered and sustainable development with no one left behind.
D. They seek to build on the millennium development goals and complete what these did not achieve.
ACD
24
Which among the following statements describes
the 3 pillars of sustainable development?
a. They are integrated and indivisible and
balance the dimensions of sustainable
development
b. Fosters a nurturing community
c. Provides equitable social environment
d. Calls for a viable natural environment
ABCD
25
Children who are too short for their age are
called?
Stunted
26
Children who are too thin for their height are
called?
Wasted
27
The strategy that promotes continuous skin-to skin contact, exclusive breastfeeding, early
dischage from the hospital and close follow up from facility discharge for premature and
low-birth weight neonates is called?
Kangaroo mother care
28
Which among the following is the aim of Infant and Young Child Feeding?
a. Support maternal nutrition, and social and
community support
b. Support exclusive breastfeeding for 6
months, followed by timely, adequate, safe
and appropriate complementary feeding,
while continuing breastfeeding for two
years and beyond
c. To improve, through optimal feeding,
the nutritional status, growth and
development, health, and thus the
survival of infants and young children
d. Builds on past and continuing achievement
in the overall context of national policies
and programs on child health and nutrition,
and consistent with the World Declaration
and Plan of Action for Nutrition
C
29
What is the top 3 leading cause of death in the Philippines for both sexes for all ages?
1. Ischemic heart disease
2. Neonatal condition
3. Lower respiratory disease
4. Stroke
5. Tuberculosis
6. Kidney disease
7. Diarrheal disease
8. Hypertensive heart disease
1, 3, 5
30
What is the basic unit of heredity that determine both the physical and cognitive characteristics of people?
Genes
31
Mitosis is a cellular process that produces..
Two genetically identical daughter cells
32
Nondisjunction abnormalities may be caused by:
1. Deletion of a portion of chromosome
2. Uneven cellular division during meiosis
3. Failure to homologous chromosome to
separate properly
4. A portion of a chromosome transferred to
another chromosome
2, 3
33
This type of genetics is the study of the
molecular structure of DNA, its cellular activities (including its replication), and its influence in determining the overall makeup of an organism
Molecular genetic
34
Registered nurses can perform the roles of a
genetic counsellor
True
35
This can be achieved when individuals
maximaize their ability to function and develop their inner strength.
Empowerment
36
What is the priority action for IMCI patients?
Assess for danger signs
37
If the child's mid upper arm circumference is
117mm, this is classified as?
Moderate acute malnutrition
38
If the child has wheezing and either fast
breathing or chest indrawing present, the nurse should:
Refer urgently to the hospital
39
You can classify that a child aged 2 years has fast breathing if he has a respiratory of:
40 bpm or more
40
A child with very severe disease is given vitamin A supplementation. What is the appropriate dosage for Han Jisung whose brithday is on June 15, 2022?
1 capsule 100,00 IU
41
Which of the following actions does a
green-coded classification require?
Advise mother on home care
42
When screening for substance abuse, which of the following questions can help determine if a patient is abusing prescription drugs?
Did either of your parents have trouble with drugs or alcohol?
43
Some women with a heart disorder and poor
cardiac function require drug treatment plus bed rest, beginning at 20wk. Which of the following drugs is relatively safe during pregnancy because neonates are relatively resistant to their toxicity?
Digoxin
44
Which of the following signs would make you
classify a 5-month-old child with difficult
breathing as SEVERE PNEYMONIA OR VERY
SEVERE DISEASE?
Stridor when calm
45
In routine worm treatment, every child should be given albendazole / mebendazole every?
6 months from the age of one year
46
What is the treatment for acute ear infection?
Give antibiotic for 7 days and dry the ear by wicking
47
What is the first line of antibiotics given to treat penumonia and ear infection?
Amoxicillin
48
Enumerate the four main symptoms in assessing and classifying the sick child.
COUGH OR DIFFICULT BREATHING, DIARRHEA, FEVER, EAR PROBLEMS
49
The nurse examining a neonate, measures and palpates the anterior frontanel. What information can be determined from this examination?
NEUROLOGIC STATUS
50
Mrs. E just delivered to a premature baby. As a nurse, one of your concerns is to increase the capability of Mrs. E's family to take care of a premature. To be effective with their taks, the family must first:
Have commitment to and confidence in their ability to handle their parenteral task
51
Contributory factors to SGA/IUGR includes
abruptio placenta. This is defined as:
Placenta detaches from the uterus
52
As a student nurse assigned in OB-OPC, you
know that SGA is suspected if fundic height is
becoming progressively less in size. As you
measure the mother's fundic height, you noted that it is at the level of umbilicus. What is the estimated AOG?
20 weeks
53
HPV increases the risk of cancer of the cervix
and vulva
True
54
A pregnant mother came in to the
OPC-Outpatient Clinic Department for check-up because of hyperthermia and skin rashes all over her vagina. As a student nurse having knowledge about STD's, you are aware that she might probably experiencing signs and symptoms of:
Syphilis
55
Genital herpes is transmitted during direct
physical contact with open sores or blisters of an infected person
True
56
Maria, a 32-year old G2P1 mother came in to the hospital for check-up and management of
Syphilis. She verbalized that she has allergy to Pen G. What is the appropriate medical
management for her?
Erythromycin 500 mg QID
57
Possible complications of syphilis during
pregnancy are premature birth, miscarriage,
stillbirth and birth defects
True
58
The nurse is providing health teaching to a group of women of childbearing age. One woman, who states that she is a smoker, asks about smoking's impact on the pregnancy. The nurse responds that which of the following fetal complications can develop if the mother smokes?
Fetal intrauterine growth restriction
59
A woman with a history of congestive heart
disease is 36 weeks pregnant. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the primary health care practitioner?
Dyspnea on exertion
60
According to New York Heart Association that
individuals with cardiac disease that results in
slight limitations of physical activity, are
comfortable at rest but ordinary physical activity cause fatigue, dyspnea, palpitation or anginal pain is classified as?
Class II
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問題一覧
1
Which statements about Rh incompatibility are true? Select all that apply
- First exposure to Rh-positive blood results in IgM release.
- The mixing of maternal and fetal blood is part of the physiology of pregnancy.
- After the initial mix of mother and baby's blood, the baby is at risk for harm.
- IgG antibodies can cross the placenta and cause complications.
- Complications occur when the mother is Rh-positive and the baby Rh-negative.
- First exposure to Rh-positive blood results in IgM release. - IgG antibodies can cross the placenta and cause complications.
2
What is the purpose of RhoGAM?
To circulate non-destructive Rh-antibodies
3
Which of the following is a characteristic craniofacial feature of a child with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?
Long and flat philtrum
4
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic abnormality in a child with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?
Ataxia
5
What is the safe lower limit of alcohol intake during pregnancy?
There is no safe lower limit. Patients should be advised not to drink alcohol during pregnancy
6
Your 32-year-old G4P3 patient comes to you for her first prenatal appointment at an estimated 22 weeks gestational age. She states that she drinks about 1 glass of wine with dinner a day to feel relaxed enough to go to bed after a stressful day of work. Otherwise, she has never experienced anyone ask her about her drinking, has never felt the need to cut down on her alcohol intake, and has never needed an "eye-opener" in the morning. Is the screening positive for alcohol abuse?
No, she has no points on the screening test.
7
Which of the following is NOT a known effect of smoking during pregnancy?
Gestational hypertension
8
What is the first step in smoking cessation counselling?
Ask if the patient is ready to stop smoking and educate her on the negative side effects of smoking on pregnancy and fetal well-being.
9
A neonate is born with congenital cretinism. Which of the following is NOT a likely cause?
Maternal hyperthyroidism
10
What type of anemia is typically seen in patients with hyperthyroidism?
Normocytic normochromic anemia
11
Which of the following is a feature of hypothyroidism?
Myxedema coma
12
Which of the following is NOT a typical sign or symptom of hypothyroidism?
Pre-tibial myxedema
13
Which of the following is an antibody found in hypothyroidism?
Anti-thyroid antibodies
14
A 25-year-old woman comes with a history of a distended abdomen and 3 months of amenorrhea. She complains of tremors and heat intolerance. Abdominal ultrasound shows a pelvic mass. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Struma ovarii
15
Which of the following is NOT a fetal effect of maternal hyperthyroidism?
Cretinism
16
Which of the following is the most common cause of primary maternal hypothyroidism in developed countries?
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
17
Which of the following is an example of primary hypothyroidism in pregnancy?
Drug-induced hypothyroidism
18
Which of the following is the most common cause of maternal hyperthyroidism during pregnancy?
Graves' disease
19
Which of the following is NOT a common cause of goiter?
Anaplastic cancer of thyroid
20
For a woman to be considered to have post-partum thyroiditis, features of hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism must be developed within what period of time after childbirth?
12 months
21
Breastfeeding is contraindicated in which of the following therapies used in the management of thyroid problems?
Radioactive iodine
22
Which of the following is contraindicated in the treatment of thyroid storm?
Levothyroxine
23
The following statements are true about sustainable development goals Select all that apply
A. A broad and universal policy agenda with 17 global targets for sustainable development.
B. There are 168 associated targets.
C. Seeks to guide member states to transform their approach to achieve inclusive, people-centered and sustainable development with no one left behind.
D. They seek to build on the millennium development goals and complete what these did not achieve.
ACD
24
Which among the following statements describes
the 3 pillars of sustainable development?
a. They are integrated and indivisible and
balance the dimensions of sustainable
development
b. Fosters a nurturing community
c. Provides equitable social environment
d. Calls for a viable natural environment
ABCD
25
Children who are too short for their age are
called?
Stunted
26
Children who are too thin for their height are
called?
Wasted
27
The strategy that promotes continuous skin-to skin contact, exclusive breastfeeding, early
dischage from the hospital and close follow up from facility discharge for premature and
low-birth weight neonates is called?
Kangaroo mother care
28
Which among the following is the aim of Infant and Young Child Feeding?
a. Support maternal nutrition, and social and
community support
b. Support exclusive breastfeeding for 6
months, followed by timely, adequate, safe
and appropriate complementary feeding,
while continuing breastfeeding for two
years and beyond
c. To improve, through optimal feeding,
the nutritional status, growth and
development, health, and thus the
survival of infants and young children
d. Builds on past and continuing achievement
in the overall context of national policies
and programs on child health and nutrition,
and consistent with the World Declaration
and Plan of Action for Nutrition
C
29
What is the top 3 leading cause of death in the Philippines for both sexes for all ages?
1. Ischemic heart disease
2. Neonatal condition
3. Lower respiratory disease
4. Stroke
5. Tuberculosis
6. Kidney disease
7. Diarrheal disease
8. Hypertensive heart disease
1, 3, 5
30
What is the basic unit of heredity that determine both the physical and cognitive characteristics of people?
Genes
31
Mitosis is a cellular process that produces..
Two genetically identical daughter cells
32
Nondisjunction abnormalities may be caused by:
1. Deletion of a portion of chromosome
2. Uneven cellular division during meiosis
3. Failure to homologous chromosome to
separate properly
4. A portion of a chromosome transferred to
another chromosome
2, 3
33
This type of genetics is the study of the
molecular structure of DNA, its cellular activities (including its replication), and its influence in determining the overall makeup of an organism
Molecular genetic
34
Registered nurses can perform the roles of a
genetic counsellor
True
35
This can be achieved when individuals
maximaize their ability to function and develop their inner strength.
Empowerment
36
What is the priority action for IMCI patients?
Assess for danger signs
37
If the child's mid upper arm circumference is
117mm, this is classified as?
Moderate acute malnutrition
38
If the child has wheezing and either fast
breathing or chest indrawing present, the nurse should:
Refer urgently to the hospital
39
You can classify that a child aged 2 years has fast breathing if he has a respiratory of:
40 bpm or more
40
A child with very severe disease is given vitamin A supplementation. What is the appropriate dosage for Han Jisung whose brithday is on June 15, 2022?
1 capsule 100,00 IU
41
Which of the following actions does a
green-coded classification require?
Advise mother on home care
42
When screening for substance abuse, which of the following questions can help determine if a patient is abusing prescription drugs?
Did either of your parents have trouble with drugs or alcohol?
43
Some women with a heart disorder and poor
cardiac function require drug treatment plus bed rest, beginning at 20wk. Which of the following drugs is relatively safe during pregnancy because neonates are relatively resistant to their toxicity?
Digoxin
44
Which of the following signs would make you
classify a 5-month-old child with difficult
breathing as SEVERE PNEYMONIA OR VERY
SEVERE DISEASE?
Stridor when calm
45
In routine worm treatment, every child should be given albendazole / mebendazole every?
6 months from the age of one year
46
What is the treatment for acute ear infection?
Give antibiotic for 7 days and dry the ear by wicking
47
What is the first line of antibiotics given to treat penumonia and ear infection?
Amoxicillin
48
Enumerate the four main symptoms in assessing and classifying the sick child.
COUGH OR DIFFICULT BREATHING, DIARRHEA, FEVER, EAR PROBLEMS
49
The nurse examining a neonate, measures and palpates the anterior frontanel. What information can be determined from this examination?
NEUROLOGIC STATUS
50
Mrs. E just delivered to a premature baby. As a nurse, one of your concerns is to increase the capability of Mrs. E's family to take care of a premature. To be effective with their taks, the family must first:
Have commitment to and confidence in their ability to handle their parenteral task
51
Contributory factors to SGA/IUGR includes
abruptio placenta. This is defined as:
Placenta detaches from the uterus
52
As a student nurse assigned in OB-OPC, you
know that SGA is suspected if fundic height is
becoming progressively less in size. As you
measure the mother's fundic height, you noted that it is at the level of umbilicus. What is the estimated AOG?
20 weeks
53
HPV increases the risk of cancer of the cervix
and vulva
True
54
A pregnant mother came in to the
OPC-Outpatient Clinic Department for check-up because of hyperthermia and skin rashes all over her vagina. As a student nurse having knowledge about STD's, you are aware that she might probably experiencing signs and symptoms of:
Syphilis
55
Genital herpes is transmitted during direct
physical contact with open sores or blisters of an infected person
True
56
Maria, a 32-year old G2P1 mother came in to the hospital for check-up and management of
Syphilis. She verbalized that she has allergy to Pen G. What is the appropriate medical
management for her?
Erythromycin 500 mg QID
57
Possible complications of syphilis during
pregnancy are premature birth, miscarriage,
stillbirth and birth defects
True
58
The nurse is providing health teaching to a group of women of childbearing age. One woman, who states that she is a smoker, asks about smoking's impact on the pregnancy. The nurse responds that which of the following fetal complications can develop if the mother smokes?
Fetal intrauterine growth restriction
59
A woman with a history of congestive heart
disease is 36 weeks pregnant. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the primary health care practitioner?
Dyspnea on exertion
60
According to New York Heart Association that
individuals with cardiac disease that results in
slight limitations of physical activity, are
comfortable at rest but ordinary physical activity cause fatigue, dyspnea, palpitation or anginal pain is classified as?
Class II