Test 2
問題一覧
1
Which of the following is a type of tissue forceps?
Brown-Adson
2
Which endoscope is used to visualize the heart and major vessels?
Angioscope
3
The goal of the surgical scrub is to lower the population of which flora to an irreducible minimum?
Resident
4
Which needle is used during the bladder suspension procedure for treating stress incontinence in women?
Stamey
5
Which procedure can be performed without making an incision to treat varicose veins?
Sclerotherapy
6
When repairing a Direct hernia, the surgeon works within the anatomical triangle formed by the inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric vessels in the lateral border of the rectus abdominis called:
Hesselbach’s
7
Which of the following is the correct postoperative sequence of actions completed by the surgical technologist? 1. Assist with postoperative patient care
2. Remove drapes
3. Remove gown and gloves
4. Breakdown sterile setup
2,3,1,4
8
What should be completed before the sterile items are opened for the first procedure of the day?
Wipe down furniture and surfaces
9
Cardiac muscles are controlled by which division of the nervous system?
Autonomic
10
Oophor/o is the root word for which anatomical structure?
Ovary
11
In which of the following would absorbable suture be contraindicated?
Vascular anastomosis
12
During a cesarean section, which organ is freed from the uterus to prevent injury?
Bladder
13
Which of the following refers to the absence of pathogens?
Aseptic
14
which surgical procedure would use the instrument shown below?
D&C
15
What must be done prior to positioning a patient undergoing a posterior lumbar laminectomy?
Endotracheal intubation
16
What is the name of the instrument shown below?
Pennington
17
Which of the following damages the mastoid air cells and ossicles of the ear?
Cholesteatoma
18
When placing a swaged needle onto a needle holder, the needle should be clamped:
1/3 distance from swaged end of needle
19
Which endoscope is used for the removal of foreign bodies from the airway of a pediatric patient?
Rigid bronchoscope
20
Which of the following elements primarily make up the bodies mass?
Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen
21
Which instrument is used to contract the ribs for suturing purposes?
Bailey
22
The largest muscle of the upper calf is the:
Gastrocnemius
23
What is the length of time when thrombin loses its potency?
30 minutes
24
The function of the small intestine is:
Absorption of nutrients
25
The teeth are composed primarily of:
Dentin
26
The basis for the design of electrical equipment in the OR is:
Electron theory
27
Which of the following procedures is performed to decrease gastric secretions?
Vagotomy
28
A patient who underwent an appendectomy into the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, constipation, and vomiting. which of the following is occurring?
obstructed Bowel
29
Which organ shares the same blood supply with the pancreas and must be removed during a Whipple procedure?
Duodenum
30
During a cleft palate procedure, which equipment should the surgical technologist be prepared to set up quickly?
Drill
31
The muscle that flexes and supinates the forearm and covers the anterior portion of the upper arm is the:
Biceps brachii
32
A surgeon patient she has terminal cancer, but requires prophylactic surgery to prevent a bowel obstruction and the patient replies,” This can be happening to me.” which stage of grief is the patient displaying?
Denial
33
what is the purpose of inserting a Ureteral stent catheter?
Bypass calculi obstruction
34
Which of the following is used to create the trough on the interior glenoid rim during a bankart procedure?
Shaver with abrader tip
35
Which of the following secretes hydrochloric acid?
Parietal cells
36
Which of the following preoperative diagnostic tests would be administered to a patient with a brain injury?
EEG
37
Which of the following is a type of fenestrated drape?
Extremity
38
The walls of the vagina are lined with:
Mucosa
39
Which type of scalpel uses ultrasonic energy to cut and coagulate tissue?
Harmonic
40
A Fogarty catheter is used during a/an:
Embolectomy
41
Which of the following positioning devices is needed when placing the patient in the supine position?
Elbow pads
42
during a Trebeculectomy, Which two layers are incised at the beginning of the procedure?
conjunctiva; Tenon’s capsule
43
what instrument set should the surgical technologist have available in the OR when preparing for an inguinal Herniorrhaphy?
Bowel
44
Which of the following is used to obtain specimens during a bronchoscopy?
Lukens tube
45
Which suture material would be used in the presence of infection?
Steel
46
Which surgical procedure uses the instrument shown below?
Blepharoplasty
47
Which surgical specialty most often uses the instrument shown below?
Gynecologic
48
Which of the following hernias can result in necrosis of the viscera?
Strangulated
49
When the surgeon makes a McBurney’s incision, which muscle is encountered first and divided in the direction of its fibers?
External oblique
50
Which of the following maintains the position of the uterus?
Broad ligament
51
Transverse colectomy is incised through which incision?
Upper midline
52
Which kind of uterine tissue can grow in abnormal locations, including the ovaries, pelvic peritoneum and small intestine?
Endometrial
53
Which preoperative diagnostic exam is quickly completed to confirm ectopic pregnancy ?
Ultrasound
54
How would you position a patient with an intertrochanteric fracture?
Supine
55
What position allows optimal exposure of the retro peritoneal area of the flank?
Lateral
56
Which of the following is the correct sequence of instruments for placing a screw in to bone? 1. Depth gauge
2. Drill
3. Screwdriver
4. Tap
2,1,4,3
57
The removal of fibrous thickening of the visceral pleura is:
Decortication
58
The only depolarizing muscle relaxant in clinical use is:
Succinylcholine (Anectine)
59
What type of hernia involves a direct and indirect inguinal hernia?
Pantaloon
60
How are the legs of the patient positioned for lateral position?
Lower leg flexed; upper leg straight
61
The neuroglia of the nervous system:
Support and bind
62
The method of inhalation anesthesia that allows complete rebreathing of expired gases is:
Closed
63
Which member of the surgical team is responsible for protecting an unsplinted fracture during positioning?
Surgeon
64
What personal protective equipment should the surgical technologist Don prior to the start of an extracorpereal shockwave lithotripsy procedure?
Lead apron
65
Another name for tonsil suction is:
Yankauer
66
Which muscles relax when a small pad is placed under a patient’s head in the supine position?
Strap
67
When a medication or local anesthetic is passed to the surgeon, the surgical technologist should:
State the name and dosage of the medication
68
A type of bone holding forceps is:
Dingman
69
Which surgical procedure would use the instrument shown below?
Coronary artery bypass
70
According to OSHA standards, protective eyewear of some form must be worn:
On all cases
71
Which pathological condition of the small intestine could be misdiagnosed as acute appendicitis?
Meckel’s diverticulum
72
Which piece of equipment is required for administration of a bier block?
Double cuffed tourniquet
73
Which sub category of drug preparation is a combination of two liquids that cannot mix?
Emulsion
74
What is the average normal respiration rate for children?
18 to 30
75
The introduction of radiopaque contrast medium into an artery or vein is called a/an:
Angiography
76
What anatomical structure must be approximated after a colectomy to prevent herniation of abdominal contents?
Mesentery
77
To prevent density, instrument sets should not exceed:
25 lbs
78
When surgically treating hydrocephalus, where is the shunt placed?
Lateral ventricle
79
Which of the following is a type of uterine fibroid?
Leiomyoma
80
The uterus enters the bladder medially:
From the posterior aspect
81
The pathogen that most often causes postoperative surgical site infections is:
Staphylococcus aureus
82
Which organ is the most frequently injured during a motor vehicle accident?
Spleen
83
Where would the surgical technologist find pertinent information for “pulling” a case?
Preference card
84
Suture material that becomes encapsulated by fibrous tissue during the healing stage is:
Non-absorbable
85
If a Mentoplasty is being performed, the surgical technologist should confirm a prosthesis is available for the:
Chin
86
Which of the following means cell “eating?”
Phagocytosis
87
Which nerve can be damaged when the patient is placed in Fowler’s position?
Sciatic
88
What is the correct order for donning OR attire?1. scrub suit
2. Shoe covers
3. Hair cover
4. Mask
3,1,4,2
89
The cranial nerve responsible for hearing and balance is the:
VIII
90
Which of the following is not a hemostatic agent used in orthopedic surgery?
xeroform
91
Which of the following is responsible for disseminated intravascular coagulation?
Endotoxin
92
The copper wire in the electrosurgical unit that allows the flow of free electrons is called the:
Conductor
93
At the end of a procedure, the surgeon asked for the local anesthetic to inject intra-articular. where is the surgeon injecting the local drug?
Within joint
94
Which preoperative diagnostic test is used in diabetic patients with small vessel arterial disease?
Plethysmography
95
Which of the following is the most effective method for sterilizing items that can be damaged by steam sterilization?
Ethylene oxide
96
The mantle articulates with which bone?
Temporal
97
What could result from crossing the patient’s arms across his/her chest in the supine position?
Interference with respiration
98
Which of the following is incorrect when preparing a paper-plastic peel pack?
Instruments are held together with autoclave tape within the peel pack
99
which of the following degrees in Celsius equals 98.6°F ?
37
100
When the surgical technologist is preparing surgical instruments for transport to the decontamination room, which statement is incorrect?
Instruments with multiple parts should be assembled
問題一覧
1
Which of the following is a type of tissue forceps?
Brown-Adson
2
Which endoscope is used to visualize the heart and major vessels?
Angioscope
3
The goal of the surgical scrub is to lower the population of which flora to an irreducible minimum?
Resident
4
Which needle is used during the bladder suspension procedure for treating stress incontinence in women?
Stamey
5
Which procedure can be performed without making an incision to treat varicose veins?
Sclerotherapy
6
When repairing a Direct hernia, the surgeon works within the anatomical triangle formed by the inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric vessels in the lateral border of the rectus abdominis called:
Hesselbach’s
7
Which of the following is the correct postoperative sequence of actions completed by the surgical technologist? 1. Assist with postoperative patient care
2. Remove drapes
3. Remove gown and gloves
4. Breakdown sterile setup
2,3,1,4
8
What should be completed before the sterile items are opened for the first procedure of the day?
Wipe down furniture and surfaces
9
Cardiac muscles are controlled by which division of the nervous system?
Autonomic
10
Oophor/o is the root word for which anatomical structure?
Ovary
11
In which of the following would absorbable suture be contraindicated?
Vascular anastomosis
12
During a cesarean section, which organ is freed from the uterus to prevent injury?
Bladder
13
Which of the following refers to the absence of pathogens?
Aseptic
14
which surgical procedure would use the instrument shown below?
D&C
15
What must be done prior to positioning a patient undergoing a posterior lumbar laminectomy?
Endotracheal intubation
16
What is the name of the instrument shown below?
Pennington
17
Which of the following damages the mastoid air cells and ossicles of the ear?
Cholesteatoma
18
When placing a swaged needle onto a needle holder, the needle should be clamped:
1/3 distance from swaged end of needle
19
Which endoscope is used for the removal of foreign bodies from the airway of a pediatric patient?
Rigid bronchoscope
20
Which of the following elements primarily make up the bodies mass?
Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen
21
Which instrument is used to contract the ribs for suturing purposes?
Bailey
22
The largest muscle of the upper calf is the:
Gastrocnemius
23
What is the length of time when thrombin loses its potency?
30 minutes
24
The function of the small intestine is:
Absorption of nutrients
25
The teeth are composed primarily of:
Dentin
26
The basis for the design of electrical equipment in the OR is:
Electron theory
27
Which of the following procedures is performed to decrease gastric secretions?
Vagotomy
28
A patient who underwent an appendectomy into the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, constipation, and vomiting. which of the following is occurring?
obstructed Bowel
29
Which organ shares the same blood supply with the pancreas and must be removed during a Whipple procedure?
Duodenum
30
During a cleft palate procedure, which equipment should the surgical technologist be prepared to set up quickly?
Drill
31
The muscle that flexes and supinates the forearm and covers the anterior portion of the upper arm is the:
Biceps brachii
32
A surgeon patient she has terminal cancer, but requires prophylactic surgery to prevent a bowel obstruction and the patient replies,” This can be happening to me.” which stage of grief is the patient displaying?
Denial
33
what is the purpose of inserting a Ureteral stent catheter?
Bypass calculi obstruction
34
Which of the following is used to create the trough on the interior glenoid rim during a bankart procedure?
Shaver with abrader tip
35
Which of the following secretes hydrochloric acid?
Parietal cells
36
Which of the following preoperative diagnostic tests would be administered to a patient with a brain injury?
EEG
37
Which of the following is a type of fenestrated drape?
Extremity
38
The walls of the vagina are lined with:
Mucosa
39
Which type of scalpel uses ultrasonic energy to cut and coagulate tissue?
Harmonic
40
A Fogarty catheter is used during a/an:
Embolectomy
41
Which of the following positioning devices is needed when placing the patient in the supine position?
Elbow pads
42
during a Trebeculectomy, Which two layers are incised at the beginning of the procedure?
conjunctiva; Tenon’s capsule
43
what instrument set should the surgical technologist have available in the OR when preparing for an inguinal Herniorrhaphy?
Bowel
44
Which of the following is used to obtain specimens during a bronchoscopy?
Lukens tube
45
Which suture material would be used in the presence of infection?
Steel
46
Which surgical procedure uses the instrument shown below?
Blepharoplasty
47
Which surgical specialty most often uses the instrument shown below?
Gynecologic
48
Which of the following hernias can result in necrosis of the viscera?
Strangulated
49
When the surgeon makes a McBurney’s incision, which muscle is encountered first and divided in the direction of its fibers?
External oblique
50
Which of the following maintains the position of the uterus?
Broad ligament
51
Transverse colectomy is incised through which incision?
Upper midline
52
Which kind of uterine tissue can grow in abnormal locations, including the ovaries, pelvic peritoneum and small intestine?
Endometrial
53
Which preoperative diagnostic exam is quickly completed to confirm ectopic pregnancy ?
Ultrasound
54
How would you position a patient with an intertrochanteric fracture?
Supine
55
What position allows optimal exposure of the retro peritoneal area of the flank?
Lateral
56
Which of the following is the correct sequence of instruments for placing a screw in to bone? 1. Depth gauge
2. Drill
3. Screwdriver
4. Tap
2,1,4,3
57
The removal of fibrous thickening of the visceral pleura is:
Decortication
58
The only depolarizing muscle relaxant in clinical use is:
Succinylcholine (Anectine)
59
What type of hernia involves a direct and indirect inguinal hernia?
Pantaloon
60
How are the legs of the patient positioned for lateral position?
Lower leg flexed; upper leg straight
61
The neuroglia of the nervous system:
Support and bind
62
The method of inhalation anesthesia that allows complete rebreathing of expired gases is:
Closed
63
Which member of the surgical team is responsible for protecting an unsplinted fracture during positioning?
Surgeon
64
What personal protective equipment should the surgical technologist Don prior to the start of an extracorpereal shockwave lithotripsy procedure?
Lead apron
65
Another name for tonsil suction is:
Yankauer
66
Which muscles relax when a small pad is placed under a patient’s head in the supine position?
Strap
67
When a medication or local anesthetic is passed to the surgeon, the surgical technologist should:
State the name and dosage of the medication
68
A type of bone holding forceps is:
Dingman
69
Which surgical procedure would use the instrument shown below?
Coronary artery bypass
70
According to OSHA standards, protective eyewear of some form must be worn:
On all cases
71
Which pathological condition of the small intestine could be misdiagnosed as acute appendicitis?
Meckel’s diverticulum
72
Which piece of equipment is required for administration of a bier block?
Double cuffed tourniquet
73
Which sub category of drug preparation is a combination of two liquids that cannot mix?
Emulsion
74
What is the average normal respiration rate for children?
18 to 30
75
The introduction of radiopaque contrast medium into an artery or vein is called a/an:
Angiography
76
What anatomical structure must be approximated after a colectomy to prevent herniation of abdominal contents?
Mesentery
77
To prevent density, instrument sets should not exceed:
25 lbs
78
When surgically treating hydrocephalus, where is the shunt placed?
Lateral ventricle
79
Which of the following is a type of uterine fibroid?
Leiomyoma
80
The uterus enters the bladder medially:
From the posterior aspect
81
The pathogen that most often causes postoperative surgical site infections is:
Staphylococcus aureus
82
Which organ is the most frequently injured during a motor vehicle accident?
Spleen
83
Where would the surgical technologist find pertinent information for “pulling” a case?
Preference card
84
Suture material that becomes encapsulated by fibrous tissue during the healing stage is:
Non-absorbable
85
If a Mentoplasty is being performed, the surgical technologist should confirm a prosthesis is available for the:
Chin
86
Which of the following means cell “eating?”
Phagocytosis
87
Which nerve can be damaged when the patient is placed in Fowler’s position?
Sciatic
88
What is the correct order for donning OR attire?1. scrub suit
2. Shoe covers
3. Hair cover
4. Mask
3,1,4,2
89
The cranial nerve responsible for hearing and balance is the:
VIII
90
Which of the following is not a hemostatic agent used in orthopedic surgery?
xeroform
91
Which of the following is responsible for disseminated intravascular coagulation?
Endotoxin
92
The copper wire in the electrosurgical unit that allows the flow of free electrons is called the:
Conductor
93
At the end of a procedure, the surgeon asked for the local anesthetic to inject intra-articular. where is the surgeon injecting the local drug?
Within joint
94
Which preoperative diagnostic test is used in diabetic patients with small vessel arterial disease?
Plethysmography
95
Which of the following is the most effective method for sterilizing items that can be damaged by steam sterilization?
Ethylene oxide
96
The mantle articulates with which bone?
Temporal
97
What could result from crossing the patient’s arms across his/her chest in the supine position?
Interference with respiration
98
Which of the following is incorrect when preparing a paper-plastic peel pack?
Instruments are held together with autoclave tape within the peel pack
99
which of the following degrees in Celsius equals 98.6°F ?
37
100
When the surgical technologist is preparing surgical instruments for transport to the decontamination room, which statement is incorrect?
Instruments with multiple parts should be assembled