Which of the following studies is a radiologic procedure in which contrast media is injected through a cystoscope? a. KUB b. PSA c. IV urogram d. retrograde urogram

Which of the following incisional approaches is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation? a. flank b. Gibson c. inguinal d. scrotal

Flank, Gibson, inguinal, and scrotal are examples of types of: a. drape sheets. b. operative approaches. c. post-op dressings. d. wound drains

cryptorchidism is more commonly known as: a. kidney stones. b. nocturnal bedwetting. c. undescended testicles. d. urinary tract infection.

Which of the following components of the rigid endoscopic system for cystoscopy is blunt ended and minimizes mucosal trauma during insertion? a. deflecting mechanism b. obturator c. sheath d. telescoping bridge

In which of the following surgical approaches would the latissimus dorsi, internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to the operative site? a. inguinal oblique b. suprapubic c. subcostal flank d. transverse abdominal

Suprarenal glands are more commonly known as: a. adrenal. b. parotid. c. prostate. d. thymus.

Which of the following structures encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands? a. Gerota’s fascia b. tunica vaginalis c. peritoneal sac d. costal periosteum

The adrenal medulla secretes: a. catecholamines. b. testosterone. c. insulin. d. urine.

During approximately which of the following ages or periods would a patient likely be diagnosed with a Wilms’ tumor? a. second trimester of gestation b. between ages three and eight years c. onset of puberty d. over age sixty

A laparoscopic nephrectomy is usually performed with the patient in which of the following positions? a. lateral b. low-lithotomy c. prone d. supine

Which of the following structures is ligated and transected first in a radical nephrectomy or laparoscopic simple nephrectomy, following isolation of the vessels and ureter? a. renal artery b. renal vein c. proximal ureter d. Gerota’s fascia

Which of the following comparisons of normal or typical kidney anatomy is correct? a. The left kidney is smaller and slightly lower than the right. b. The right kidney is larger and slightly lower than the left. c. The left kidney is larger and slightly higher than the right. d. The right kidney is smaller and slightly higher than the left.

Which of the following parts of the kidney becomes the proximal ureter? a. Bowman’s capsule b. cortex c. medulla d. renal pelvis

The basic structure composed of renal corpuscles and tubules which numbers over a million is the: a. adrenal. b. hilum. c. nephron. d. psoas.

Adenocarcinoma is directly linked to: a. BPH. b. calculi. c. liver cirrhosis. d. tobacco use.

Simple nephrectomy is routinely performed in which of the following positions? a. lateral b. low-lithotomy c. prone d. supine

Which of the following measures is taken to reduce the metabolic needs and prevents tubular necrosis of a kidney removed for transplant? a. cooling with Collins solution or ice slush b. spraying with reconstituted topical thrombin c. warming with sterile isotonic saline solution d. infusion with warmed lactated Ringer’s solution

How many suture ligatures or free ties should the surgical technologist have prepared for ligation of the renal artery and vein prior to transection and removal? a. one b. three c. five d. seven

The morcellator is used in a laparoscopic simple nephrectomy to: a. excise Gerota’s fascia from around the kidney. b. cut between the ligaclips placed on the renal vessels. c. insufflate the peritoneal cavity after initial port placement. d. chop the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning.

Which of the following items would likely be needed if the pleural cavity is unintentionally entered during nephrectomy? a. chest tube with drainage system b. flexible bronchoscope c. 1-inch Penrose drain d. fibrin glue

Which of the following forms of polycystic kidney disease is extremely rare and affects young children? a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal recessive c. acquired d. traumatic

Dialysis and kidney transplant are the only two treatments for: a. end-stage renal disease. b. testicular carcinoma. c. type I diabetes mellitus. d. Wilms’ tumor.

A patient is classified as being in end-stage renal failure: a. when both kidneys are functioning at or below 25% of normal. b. when both kidneys are functioning at or below 10% of normal. c. when one kidney is normal and the other is functioning at or below 25% of normal. d. when one kidney is normal and the other is functioning at or below 10% of normal.

Just before the surgeon clamps the renal vessels of the donor’s kidney, what does the anesthesia provider put in the IV? a. heparin and mannitol b. protamine sulfate c. Ringer’s lactate d. furosemide

Which of the following fluids is given IV after the donor kidney is removed to reverse the heparinization? a. thrombin b. furosemide c. protamine sulfate d. Ringer’s lactate

To reduce possibility of injury during handling and transplantation, the donor kidney might be placed into: a. laparoscopic entrapment sack b. Lahey intestinal bag. c. plastic incise drape. d. wet stockinette.

An adult donor kidney would be implanted in the: a. left lower quadrant. b. left upper quadrant. c. right lower quadrant. d. right upper quadrant.

Which of the following cutting instruments should the surgical technologist have ready for anastomosis of the renal vessels into the recipient? a. #15 blade and Knight scissors b. #10 blade and curved Mayo scissors c. #11 blade and 45 degree angled Potts scissors d. #12 blade and straight tenotomy scissors

Which of the following suture configurations is used to anastomose vessels in transplants? a. fine, absorbable, single-armed b. fine, nonabsorbable, double-armed c. heavy, absorbable, single-armed d. heavy, nonabsorbable, double-armed

The medical term for the procedure of connecting a donor ureter to a recipient bladder is: a. ureteroscopy. b. reimplantation. c. suprapubic cystostomy. d. ureteroneocystostomy.

Cystoscopy and ureteroscopy procedures are performed in which of the following positions? a. lateral b. low-lithotomy c. supine d. Trendelenburg

Which of the following instruments is used to ensure patency of the ureters or to allow for drainage of urine from the kidneys? a. Foley catheter b. suprapubic catheter c. Jackson-Pratt drain d. 5 Fr stent

In the genitourinary system, calculi originate in the: a. kidney. b. bladder. c. prostate. d. testicles.

Which of the following devices is used through the ureteroscope to capture an intact calculus or fragments if fractured by laser? a. Babcock forceps b. basket stone forceps c. entrapment sack d. vessel loops

Which of the following procedures is performed to remove a calculus lodged in the area of the hilum? a. cystoscopy b. orchiectomy c. pyelolithotomy d. urethrotomy

In which of the following positions is the patient placed for proximal pyelolithotomy? a. lateral b. lithotomy c. prone d. Trendelenburg

Which of the following anatomical structures is the bladder attached to in males? a. rectum b. prostate c. scrotum d. symphysis pubis

Which of the following anatomical areas is responsible for emptying of the bladder and closure of the bladder orifice? a. detrusor muscle b. external sphincter c. urogenital diaphragm d. vesical trigone

The vesical arteries that supply the bladder arise from the: a. ascending aorta. b. external iliac artery. c. internal iliac artery. d. renal arteries.

During a TURBT, irrigation or distention fluid used for the procedure should be: a. electrolytic. b. isotonic. c. isometric. d. hypertonic.

The anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to cystoscopies kept from leaking out using a. A cotton tipped applicator that is inserted into the external meatus b. A sterile tight fitting condom that is applied to the penis. c. A penile clamp that is applied to the head of the penis. d. A gloved finger that is held firmly against the head of the penis.

Which of the following statements describes a unique feature of the OR table in a cystoscopy suite? a. It is radiolucent. b. Stirrups can be attached to rails. c. It has a mass drain attachment. d. It can be adjusted for fluoroscopic exams.

An elevated serum PSA exam might prompt the additional investigation of a(n) a. Intervenous urogram. b. Prostate biopsy. c. PAP smear. d. Urinalysis.

Which of the following procedures could be done in either a male or female patient? a. Hydrocelectomy b. Orchiectomy. c. TURBT. d. TURP.

Which of the following names is used for glass or plastic evacuator used to remove tissue and debris during TURP a. Ellik b. Malecot c. Pizzeria d. Toomy

Omnipaque, denigration, and Isovue are used in cystoscopy as a. Antibiotics. b. Contrast Media. c. Distention fluids. d. Topical analgesic.

Which of the following instruments is used inTURBT or TURP and includes the sheath, obturator, working element, and ESU loops? a. cystoscope b. nephroscope c. resectoscope d. ureteroscope

Which of the following distention fluids is nonelectrolytic and will lyse malignant tumor cells because of cellular uptake? a. glycine b. saline c. sorbitol d. water

Which of the following types of light is used for illumination in endoscopic equiptment a. fiber-optic b. fluorescent c. incandescent d. ultraviolet

The medical term for excision of the urinary bladder is: a. colporrhapy b. corpectomy c. cystectomy d. cystostomy

The more common name for ureteroileocutaneous diversion is a. colostomy b. ileal conduit c. bladder prolapse d. pubovaginal sling

The name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following cystectomy is a. hydrocele b. ileal conduit c. koch pouch d. orchiopexy

The connective tissue that forms the umbilical ligament and is used for traction in radical cystectomy is the a. urachus b. symphysis c. vas deferens d. diastasis recti

In radical cystectomy with ileal conduit on a male patient, which of the following types of tissue will be sent for frozen section to verify clear margins? a. sections of both testicles b. segments of bilateral ureters c. lateral edges of the tunica vaginalis d. distal segments of the seminal vesicles

Which of the following statements describes what is done with the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall for stoma creation? a. The edges are everted and affixed to the skin. b. A purse-string suture is placed to cinch it shut. c. It is cut into four sections and tacked to the skin. d. A Penrose drain is inserted and pulled over the edge.

A TVT would be used during which of the following types of procedures a. inguinal hernia repair b. repair of cystocele and rectocele c. shock wave destruction of calculi d. suprapubic vesicourethral suspension

Vesicourethral suspension and pubovaginal slings are performed to mainly treat moderate to severe: a. vaginal dryness. b. uterine prolapse. c. stress incontinence. d. urinary tract infections.

One of the main objectives of procedures for female stress incontinence is to a. increase overall bladder capacity b. reduce bladder spasms and irritability c. restore the posterior urethrovesical angle d. tighten and enhance bladder sphincter tone

Which of the following choices is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling a. allograft fascia lata b. autograft fascia lata c. polypropylene d. radiopaque vaginal packing

Which of the following structures of male anatomy is divided into three sections: prostatic, membranous, and spongy? a. ejaculatory duct b. spermatic cord c. urethra d. ureter

Approxamately how many lobules comprise the average prostate gland? a. two b. four c. twenty d. fifty

The common diagnosis of a patient undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate is a. benign prostatic hypertrophy b. carcinoma of the prostate c. eractile dysfunction d. stress incontinence

Which of the following choices are urethral dilators or sounds a. hanks b. pratt c. Van buren d. Walther

Baumrucker, Iglesias, Stern-McCarthy, and Nesbit are types of a. catheters b. resectoscopes c. evacuators d. incisions

Which of the following signals should alert the surgical team that prostate capsule perforation is imminent and may conclude the procedure a. coughing b. flatulence c. groaning d. leg jerking

Which of the following instruments is used to resect the prostate glad tissue through the resectoscope a. endoshears b. wire loop snare c. ESU loop electrode d. #11 blade on #7 handle

Which of the following types of catheters is placed postoperatively following TURP a. 2-way 16 Fr. foley with 5mL balloon b. 2-way 22 Fr. foley with 30 mL balloon c. 3-way 16 Fr. foley with 5 mL balloon d. 3-way 22 Fr. foley with 30 mL balloon

Which gender confirmation procedure is used the most and provides excellent sensitivity and anesthetic results? a. anterior lateral thigh (ALT) phalloplasty b. supra-pubic phalloplasty c. radical forarm flap phalloplasty (RFF) d. musculocutaneous latissimus dorsi (MLD) phalloplasty

The first step of a vaginoplasty for male to female is a. urethroplasty b. labiaplasty c. orchiectomy d. clitoroplasty

Specialized tissue within the seminiferous tubles producs a. mucus b. sperm c. testosterone d. urinee

The term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis is a. cystocele b. hydrocele c. omphalocele d. rectocele

Which of the following procedures is performed for testicular cancer,trauma, or necrosis secondary to torsion a. circumcision b.hydrocelectomy c. orchiectomy d. penectomy

The medical term for the free fold of skin that covers the glans penis is a. epididymis b. prepuce c. scrotum d. tunica

Which of the following terms is used for the inability to retract the foreskin of the penis a. balantis b. hypospadias c. phimosis d. sclerosis

Diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage, and trauma are all possible causes of a. epispadias b. hypospadias c. impotence d. prostate cancer

The MOST serious post-op complication of penile implant surgery is a. edema b. impotence c. premature ejaculation d. surgical site infection

Which of the following dilating instruments is used to dilate the corpora for placement of penile prosthesis a. bougie b. hegar c. van buren d. walther

Which of the following procedures is performed for penile carcinoma resistant to chemotherapy or radiation a. hydrocelectomy b. orchiectomy c. penectomy d. vasectomy

Many hospitals allow use of only sterile gloves to set up the back table for cystoscopy procedures True/false

true

The anatomical structure excised during radical cystectomy are different between male and female patients True/false

true

Surgical technologies are not tequired to be proficient in endoscopic genitourinary procedures, only in open cases because there are cystocopy specialties who will do them True/false

false

Procedures for female urinary incontinence may be preformed by gynecologists, urologists, or urogynocologists true/false

true

Every instrument or catheter placed into the urethra should be lubricated to minimize mucosal injury or irritation true/false

true