問題一覧
1
Which of the following statements is correct regarding insulin glargine?
A. It is primarily used to control postprandial hyperglycemia.
B. It is a “peakless” insulin.
C. The prolonged duration of activity is due to slow
dissociation from albumin.
D. It should not be used in a regimen with insulin lispro
or glulisine.
E. It may be administered intravenously in emergency
cases.
B
2
DW is a patient with type 2 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 400 mg/dL today at his office visit. The physician would like to give some insulin to bring the glucose down before he leaves the office. Which of the following would lower the glucose in the quickest manner in DW?
A. Insulin aspart.
B. Insulin glargine.
C. NPH insulin.
D. Regular insulin.
A
3
Which of the following classes of oral diabetes drugs is paired most appropriately with its primary mechanism of action?
A. DPP-4 inhibitor—inhibits breakdown of complex carbohydrates.
B. Glinide—increases insulin sensitivity.
C. Sulfonylurea—increases insulin secretion.
D. Thiazolidinedione—decreases hepatic
gluconeogenesis.
C
4
Which of the following statements is characteristic of metformin?
A. Metformin is inappropriate for initial management of type 2 diabetes.
B. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production.
C. Metformin undergoes significant metabolism via the
cytochrome P450 system.
D. Metformin should not be combined with
sulfonylureas or insulin.
E. Weight gain is a common adverse effect.
B
5
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial oral agent for management of type 2 diabetes in patients with no other comorbid conditions?
A. Glipizide.
B. Insulin.
C. Metformin.
D. Pioglitazone.
C
6
A 64-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following medications would be a poor choice for controlling her diabetes?
A. Exenatide.
B. Glyburide.
C. Nateglinide.
D. Pioglitazone.
E. Sitagliptin.
D
7
KD is a 69-year-old male with type 2 diabetes and advanced chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diabetes medications is contraindicated in this patient?
A. Glipizide.
B. Insulin lispro.
C. Metformin.
D. Saxagliptin.
C
8
Which of the following drugs for diabetes would be LEAST likely to cause weight gain?
A. Glimepiride.
B. Liraglutide.
C. Pioglitazone.
D. Repaglinide.
E. Insulin glulisine.
B
9
A patient with type 2 diabetes is taking metformin. The fasting glucose levels are in range, but the postprandial glucose is uncontrolled. All of the following drugs would be appropriate to add to metformin to target postprandial glucose except:
A. Acarbose.
B. Exenatide.
C. Insulin aspart.
D. Pramlintide.
D
10
Which of the following diabetes medications is most appropriately paired with an adverse effect associated with its use?
A. Canagliflozin—lactic acidosis.
B. Metformin—urinary tract infections.
C. Nateglinide—heart failure.
D. Liraglutide—pancreatitis.
D
11
A 12-year-old girl with a childhood history of asthma complained of cough, dyspnea, and wheezing after visiting a riding stable. Her symptoms became so severe that her parents brought her to the emergency room. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to rapidly reverse her bronchoconstriction?
A. Inhaled fluticasone.
B. Inhaled beclomethasone.
C. Inhaled albuterol.
D. Intravenous propranolol.
E. Oral theophylline.
C
12
A 9-year-old girl has severe asthma, which required three hospitalizations in the last year. She is now receiving therapy that has greatly reduced the frequency of these severe attacks. Which of the following therapies is most likely responsible for this benefit?
A. Inhaled albuterol.
B. Inhaled ipratropium.
C. Inhaled fluticasone.
D. Oral theophylline.
E. Oral zafirlukast.
C
13
A 68-year-old male has COPD with moderate airway obstruction. Despite using salmeterol twice daily as prescribed, he reports continued symptoms of shortness of breath with mild exertion. Which one of the following agents would be an appropriate addition to his current therapy?
A. Systemic corticosteroids.
B. Albuterol.
C. Tiotropium.
D. Roflumilast.
E. Theophylline.
C
14
A 58-year-old female ceramics worker with a COPD exacerbation has recently been discharged from the hospital. This is the third hospitalization in the past year for this condition, although the patient reports only mild symptoms in between exacerbations. The patient is currently still on the same drug regimen prior to her admission of salmeterol inhalation twice daily and tiotropium inhalation once daily. Her current FEV1 is below 60%. Which of the following would be an appropriate change in her medication regimen?
A. Chronic systemic corticosteroids.
B. Discontinue the tiotropium.
C. Discontinue the salmeterol.
D. Change the salmeterol to a combination product that
includes both a LABA and an inhaled corticosteroid
(for example, salmeterol/fluticasone DPI).
E. Theophylline.
D
15
A 32-year-old male with a history of opioid addiction presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory system infection for the past 5 days. It is determined to be viral in nature, and no treatment of the underlying infection is appropriate. Which of the following is appropriate symptomatic treatment for this patient’s cough?
A. Guaifenesin/dextromethorphan. B. Guaifenesin/codeine.
C. Cromolyn.
D. Benzonatate.
E. Montelukast.
D
16
Due to its anti-inflammatory mechanism of action, which of the following medications requires regular administration for the treatment of asthma?
A. Tiotropium MDI.
B. Salmeterol DPI.
C. Mometasone DPI.
D. Albuterol MDI.
C
17
All of the following are preferred antihistamines for the management of allergic rhinitis except:
A. Chlorpheniramine.
B. Fexofenadine.
C. Loratadine.
D. Cetirizine.
E. Intranasal azelastine.
A
18
Which of the following medications inhibits the action of 5-lipoxygenase and consequently the action of leukotriene B4 and the cysteinyl leukotrienes?
A. Cromolyn.
B. Zafirlukast.
C. Zileuton.
D. Montelukast.
E. Theophylline.
C
19
Which of the following describes appropriate inhaler technique for a dry powder inhaler?
A. Inhale slowly and deeply just before and throughout actuation of the inhaler.
B. Use a large-volume chamber (spacer) to decrease deposition of drug in the mouth caused by improper inhaler technique.
C. Inhale quickly and deeply to optimize drug delivery to the lungs.
D. Rinse mouth in a “swish-and-spit” method with water prior to inhaler use to decrease the chance of adverse events.
C
20
Which of the following categories of allergic rhinitis medications is most likely to be associated with rhinitis medicamentosa (rebound nasal congestion) with prolonged use?
A. Intranasal corticosteroid.
B. Intranasal decongestant.
C. Leukotriene antagonist.
D. Oral antihistamine.
B
21
All of the following drugs may be beneficial in the treatment of patients with acromegaly except:
A. Lanreotide.
B. Octreotide.
C. Pegvisomant.
D. Somatropin.
D
22
A 40-year-old female is undergoing infertility treatments. Which of the following drugs might be included in her treatment regimen?
A. Cabergoline.
B. Follitropin.
C. Methimazole.
D. Vasopressin.
B
23
Which of the following is the treatment of choice for hypothyroidism?
A. Iodide.
B. Levothyroxine.
C. Liothyronine.
D. Liotrix.
E. Propylthiouracil.
B
24
All of the following agents are correctly paired with an appropriate clinical use of the drug except:
A. Desmopressin—treatment of diabetes insipidus.
B. hCG—treatment of infertility.
C. Octreotide—treatment of bleeding esophageal
varices.
D. Oxytocin—induction of labor.
E. Goserelin—growth hormone deficiency.
E
25
A 43-year-old heavy machine operator complains of seasonal allergies. Which one of the following medi- cations would be most appropriate for management of his allergy symptoms?
A. Cyclizine.
B. Doxylamine.
C. Hydroxyzine.
D. Fexofenadine.
D
26
Which one of the following statements concerning H1 antihistamine is correct?
A. Second-generation H1 antihistamines are relatively free of adverse effects.
B. Because of the established long-term safety of first-generation H antihistamines, they are the first choice for allergic rhinitis
C. The motor coordination involved in driving an automobile is not affected by the use of first- generation H1 antihistamines.
D. H1 antihistamines can be used in the treatment of acute anaphylaxis.
E. Both first- and second-generation
H1 antihistamines readily penetrate the blood– brain barrier.
A
27
Which of the following medications has the most potential to significantly impair the ability to drive an automobile?
A. Diphenhydramine.
B. Levocetirizine.
C. Fexofenadine.
D. Ranitidine.
A
28
Which of the following histamine receptor antagonists is known to enter the central nervous system readily and is known to be sedative?
A. Hydroxyzine.
B. Cetirizine.
C. Desloratadine.
D. Loratadine.
E. Fexofenadine.
A
29
Which of the following statements about histamine receptor antagonists is MOST ACCURATE?
A. Most antihistamines have no antimuscarinic effects.
B. α-Adrenergic effects of antihistamines may cause
hypertension.
C. First-generation antihistamines have no sedative
side effects.
D. Because of their cholinergic properties,
antihistamines may not be effective in the relief of
vertigo associated with motion sickness.
E. Headache may be associated with some second-
generation antihistamines.
E
30
A passenger sitting next to you in a plane boasts that he was a famous biochemist. He said he carboxylated a sedating antihistamine, and it is now only partially sedating and is a very well-known drug in the market. Which drug is he talking about?
A. Hydroxyzine.
B. Cetirizine.
C. Diphenhydramine.
D. Doxylamine.
E. Cyproheptadine.
B
31
Which of the following is an H1-receptor antagonist that also has serotonin receptor antagonism on the appetite center with the ability to stimulate appetite?
A. Hydroxyzine.
B. Loratadine.
C. Diphenhydramine.
D. Cetirizine.
E. Cyproheptadine.
E
32
Your neighbor said she used an H1 antihistamine that was available over-the-counter (OTC), and it caused her marked drowsiness and dry mouth and she slept quite longer than usual. Which is the most possible drug that she used?
A. Loratadine.
B. Levocetirizine.
C. Diphenhydramine.
D. Fexofenadine.
E. Desloratadine.
C
33
A patient is going on a deep sea fishing trip and is worried about motion sickness. Which of the following would be the most appropriate?
A. Dimenhydrinate 1 hour prior to departure.
B. Desloratadine 1 hour prior to departure.
C. Doxylamine 1 hour prior to departure.
D. Meclizine at onset of symptoms.
A
34
A patient has a severe ear infection that is associated with significant vertigo. Which of the following might be helpful?
A. Azelastine.
B. Brompheniramine.
C. Meclizine.
D. Olopatadine.
C
35
Which of the following statements is CORRECT regard- ing the mechanism of action of phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitors?
A. PDE-5 inhibitors increase prostaglandin production.
B. PDE-5 inhibitors enhance the effect of nitric oxide.
C. PDE-5 inhibitors cause vasoconstriction of the
erection chamber.
D. PDE-5 inhibitors antagonize cyclic GMP.
B
36
When selecting between the available PDE-5 inhib- itors for treatment of ED, which of the following is an important consideration?
A. Tadalafil has the shortest half-life of the PDE-5 inhibitors.
B. Sildenafil should be given with food to increase absorption.
C. Vardenafil ODT doses are not equal to film-coated vardenafil doses.
D. Avanafil should be taken at least 1 hour prior to intercourse.
C
37
A
is diagnosed with angina. Which of the following antianginal medications would be of particular concern in this patient?
A. Metoprolol.
B. Diltiazem.
C. Amlodipine.
D. Nitroglycerin.
D
38
Which of the following BEST describes the mechanism of action of alprostadil?
A. Alprostadil blocks cGMP.
B. Alprostadil blocks nitric oxide.
C. Alprostadil increases PDE-5.
D. Alprostadil increases cAMP.
D
39
Alprostadil is administered locally. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding local administration of alprostadil?
A. Local administration of alprostadil allows for low systemic absorption.
B. Local administration of alprostadil increases the chance of drug interactions.
C. Local administration of alprostadil is accomplished by way of a cream.
D. Local administration of alprostadil causes changes in color vision.
A
40
Which of the following is the BEST description of the mechanism of action of terazosin?
A. Terazosin blocks 5-α reductase.
B. Terazosin blocks α1A receptors.
C. Terazosin blocks PDE-5.
D. Terazosin blocks α1A and α1B receptors.
D
41
A patient is worried about starting terazosin because he is very sensitive to side effects of medications. Which of the following adverse effects would be most expected in this patient?
A. Erectile dysfunction.
B. Gynecomastia.
C. Dizziness.
D. Vomiting.
C
42
Which of the following is an important difference between terazosin and tamsulosin?
A. Terazosin blocks α1A receptors, while tamsulosin blocks α1A and α1B receptors.
B. Terazosin blocks α1A and α1B receptors, while tamsulosin blocks α1A receptors.
C. Terazosin blocks 5-α reductase, while tamsulosin blocks PDE-5.
D. Terazosin must be taken with food, while tamsulosin can be taken on an empty stomach.
B
43
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding finasteride?
A. Finasteride is associated with significant hypotension.
B. Finasteride is associated with birth defects.
C. Finasteride is effective within 2 weeks of initiation.
D. Finasteride is renally eliminated.
B
44
A 70-year-old male with BPH and an enlarged prostate continues to have urinary symptoms after an adequate trial of tamsulosin. Dutasteride is added to his therapy. In addition to tamsulosin, he is also taking hydrochlorothiazide, testosterone, and vardenafil as needed prior to intercourse. Which of his medications could have an interaction with dutasteride?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide.
B. Tamsulosin.
C. Testosterone.
D. Vardenafil.
C
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20問 • 1年前問題一覧
1
Which of the following statements is correct regarding insulin glargine?
A. It is primarily used to control postprandial hyperglycemia.
B. It is a “peakless” insulin.
C. The prolonged duration of activity is due to slow
dissociation from albumin.
D. It should not be used in a regimen with insulin lispro
or glulisine.
E. It may be administered intravenously in emergency
cases.
B
2
DW is a patient with type 2 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 400 mg/dL today at his office visit. The physician would like to give some insulin to bring the glucose down before he leaves the office. Which of the following would lower the glucose in the quickest manner in DW?
A. Insulin aspart.
B. Insulin glargine.
C. NPH insulin.
D. Regular insulin.
A
3
Which of the following classes of oral diabetes drugs is paired most appropriately with its primary mechanism of action?
A. DPP-4 inhibitor—inhibits breakdown of complex carbohydrates.
B. Glinide—increases insulin sensitivity.
C. Sulfonylurea—increases insulin secretion.
D. Thiazolidinedione—decreases hepatic
gluconeogenesis.
C
4
Which of the following statements is characteristic of metformin?
A. Metformin is inappropriate for initial management of type 2 diabetes.
B. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production.
C. Metformin undergoes significant metabolism via the
cytochrome P450 system.
D. Metformin should not be combined with
sulfonylureas or insulin.
E. Weight gain is a common adverse effect.
B
5
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial oral agent for management of type 2 diabetes in patients with no other comorbid conditions?
A. Glipizide.
B. Insulin.
C. Metformin.
D. Pioglitazone.
C
6
A 64-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following medications would be a poor choice for controlling her diabetes?
A. Exenatide.
B. Glyburide.
C. Nateglinide.
D. Pioglitazone.
E. Sitagliptin.
D
7
KD is a 69-year-old male with type 2 diabetes and advanced chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diabetes medications is contraindicated in this patient?
A. Glipizide.
B. Insulin lispro.
C. Metformin.
D. Saxagliptin.
C
8
Which of the following drugs for diabetes would be LEAST likely to cause weight gain?
A. Glimepiride.
B. Liraglutide.
C. Pioglitazone.
D. Repaglinide.
E. Insulin glulisine.
B
9
A patient with type 2 diabetes is taking metformin. The fasting glucose levels are in range, but the postprandial glucose is uncontrolled. All of the following drugs would be appropriate to add to metformin to target postprandial glucose except:
A. Acarbose.
B. Exenatide.
C. Insulin aspart.
D. Pramlintide.
D
10
Which of the following diabetes medications is most appropriately paired with an adverse effect associated with its use?
A. Canagliflozin—lactic acidosis.
B. Metformin—urinary tract infections.
C. Nateglinide—heart failure.
D. Liraglutide—pancreatitis.
D
11
A 12-year-old girl with a childhood history of asthma complained of cough, dyspnea, and wheezing after visiting a riding stable. Her symptoms became so severe that her parents brought her to the emergency room. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to rapidly reverse her bronchoconstriction?
A. Inhaled fluticasone.
B. Inhaled beclomethasone.
C. Inhaled albuterol.
D. Intravenous propranolol.
E. Oral theophylline.
C
12
A 9-year-old girl has severe asthma, which required three hospitalizations in the last year. She is now receiving therapy that has greatly reduced the frequency of these severe attacks. Which of the following therapies is most likely responsible for this benefit?
A. Inhaled albuterol.
B. Inhaled ipratropium.
C. Inhaled fluticasone.
D. Oral theophylline.
E. Oral zafirlukast.
C
13
A 68-year-old male has COPD with moderate airway obstruction. Despite using salmeterol twice daily as prescribed, he reports continued symptoms of shortness of breath with mild exertion. Which one of the following agents would be an appropriate addition to his current therapy?
A. Systemic corticosteroids.
B. Albuterol.
C. Tiotropium.
D. Roflumilast.
E. Theophylline.
C
14
A 58-year-old female ceramics worker with a COPD exacerbation has recently been discharged from the hospital. This is the third hospitalization in the past year for this condition, although the patient reports only mild symptoms in between exacerbations. The patient is currently still on the same drug regimen prior to her admission of salmeterol inhalation twice daily and tiotropium inhalation once daily. Her current FEV1 is below 60%. Which of the following would be an appropriate change in her medication regimen?
A. Chronic systemic corticosteroids.
B. Discontinue the tiotropium.
C. Discontinue the salmeterol.
D. Change the salmeterol to a combination product that
includes both a LABA and an inhaled corticosteroid
(for example, salmeterol/fluticasone DPI).
E. Theophylline.
D
15
A 32-year-old male with a history of opioid addiction presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory system infection for the past 5 days. It is determined to be viral in nature, and no treatment of the underlying infection is appropriate. Which of the following is appropriate symptomatic treatment for this patient’s cough?
A. Guaifenesin/dextromethorphan. B. Guaifenesin/codeine.
C. Cromolyn.
D. Benzonatate.
E. Montelukast.
D
16
Due to its anti-inflammatory mechanism of action, which of the following medications requires regular administration for the treatment of asthma?
A. Tiotropium MDI.
B. Salmeterol DPI.
C. Mometasone DPI.
D. Albuterol MDI.
C
17
All of the following are preferred antihistamines for the management of allergic rhinitis except:
A. Chlorpheniramine.
B. Fexofenadine.
C. Loratadine.
D. Cetirizine.
E. Intranasal azelastine.
A
18
Which of the following medications inhibits the action of 5-lipoxygenase and consequently the action of leukotriene B4 and the cysteinyl leukotrienes?
A. Cromolyn.
B. Zafirlukast.
C. Zileuton.
D. Montelukast.
E. Theophylline.
C
19
Which of the following describes appropriate inhaler technique for a dry powder inhaler?
A. Inhale slowly and deeply just before and throughout actuation of the inhaler.
B. Use a large-volume chamber (spacer) to decrease deposition of drug in the mouth caused by improper inhaler technique.
C. Inhale quickly and deeply to optimize drug delivery to the lungs.
D. Rinse mouth in a “swish-and-spit” method with water prior to inhaler use to decrease the chance of adverse events.
C
20
Which of the following categories of allergic rhinitis medications is most likely to be associated with rhinitis medicamentosa (rebound nasal congestion) with prolonged use?
A. Intranasal corticosteroid.
B. Intranasal decongestant.
C. Leukotriene antagonist.
D. Oral antihistamine.
B
21
All of the following drugs may be beneficial in the treatment of patients with acromegaly except:
A. Lanreotide.
B. Octreotide.
C. Pegvisomant.
D. Somatropin.
D
22
A 40-year-old female is undergoing infertility treatments. Which of the following drugs might be included in her treatment regimen?
A. Cabergoline.
B. Follitropin.
C. Methimazole.
D. Vasopressin.
B
23
Which of the following is the treatment of choice for hypothyroidism?
A. Iodide.
B. Levothyroxine.
C. Liothyronine.
D. Liotrix.
E. Propylthiouracil.
B
24
All of the following agents are correctly paired with an appropriate clinical use of the drug except:
A. Desmopressin—treatment of diabetes insipidus.
B. hCG—treatment of infertility.
C. Octreotide—treatment of bleeding esophageal
varices.
D. Oxytocin—induction of labor.
E. Goserelin—growth hormone deficiency.
E
25
A 43-year-old heavy machine operator complains of seasonal allergies. Which one of the following medi- cations would be most appropriate for management of his allergy symptoms?
A. Cyclizine.
B. Doxylamine.
C. Hydroxyzine.
D. Fexofenadine.
D
26
Which one of the following statements concerning H1 antihistamine is correct?
A. Second-generation H1 antihistamines are relatively free of adverse effects.
B. Because of the established long-term safety of first-generation H antihistamines, they are the first choice for allergic rhinitis
C. The motor coordination involved in driving an automobile is not affected by the use of first- generation H1 antihistamines.
D. H1 antihistamines can be used in the treatment of acute anaphylaxis.
E. Both first- and second-generation
H1 antihistamines readily penetrate the blood– brain barrier.
A
27
Which of the following medications has the most potential to significantly impair the ability to drive an automobile?
A. Diphenhydramine.
B. Levocetirizine.
C. Fexofenadine.
D. Ranitidine.
A
28
Which of the following histamine receptor antagonists is known to enter the central nervous system readily and is known to be sedative?
A. Hydroxyzine.
B. Cetirizine.
C. Desloratadine.
D. Loratadine.
E. Fexofenadine.
A
29
Which of the following statements about histamine receptor antagonists is MOST ACCURATE?
A. Most antihistamines have no antimuscarinic effects.
B. α-Adrenergic effects of antihistamines may cause
hypertension.
C. First-generation antihistamines have no sedative
side effects.
D. Because of their cholinergic properties,
antihistamines may not be effective in the relief of
vertigo associated with motion sickness.
E. Headache may be associated with some second-
generation antihistamines.
E
30
A passenger sitting next to you in a plane boasts that he was a famous biochemist. He said he carboxylated a sedating antihistamine, and it is now only partially sedating and is a very well-known drug in the market. Which drug is he talking about?
A. Hydroxyzine.
B. Cetirizine.
C. Diphenhydramine.
D. Doxylamine.
E. Cyproheptadine.
B
31
Which of the following is an H1-receptor antagonist that also has serotonin receptor antagonism on the appetite center with the ability to stimulate appetite?
A. Hydroxyzine.
B. Loratadine.
C. Diphenhydramine.
D. Cetirizine.
E. Cyproheptadine.
E
32
Your neighbor said she used an H1 antihistamine that was available over-the-counter (OTC), and it caused her marked drowsiness and dry mouth and she slept quite longer than usual. Which is the most possible drug that she used?
A. Loratadine.
B. Levocetirizine.
C. Diphenhydramine.
D. Fexofenadine.
E. Desloratadine.
C
33
A patient is going on a deep sea fishing trip and is worried about motion sickness. Which of the following would be the most appropriate?
A. Dimenhydrinate 1 hour prior to departure.
B. Desloratadine 1 hour prior to departure.
C. Doxylamine 1 hour prior to departure.
D. Meclizine at onset of symptoms.
A
34
A patient has a severe ear infection that is associated with significant vertigo. Which of the following might be helpful?
A. Azelastine.
B. Brompheniramine.
C. Meclizine.
D. Olopatadine.
C
35
Which of the following statements is CORRECT regard- ing the mechanism of action of phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitors?
A. PDE-5 inhibitors increase prostaglandin production.
B. PDE-5 inhibitors enhance the effect of nitric oxide.
C. PDE-5 inhibitors cause vasoconstriction of the
erection chamber.
D. PDE-5 inhibitors antagonize cyclic GMP.
B
36
When selecting between the available PDE-5 inhib- itors for treatment of ED, which of the following is an important consideration?
A. Tadalafil has the shortest half-life of the PDE-5 inhibitors.
B. Sildenafil should be given with food to increase absorption.
C. Vardenafil ODT doses are not equal to film-coated vardenafil doses.
D. Avanafil should be taken at least 1 hour prior to intercourse.
C
37
A
is diagnosed with angina. Which of the following antianginal medications would be of particular concern in this patient?
A. Metoprolol.
B. Diltiazem.
C. Amlodipine.
D. Nitroglycerin.
D
38
Which of the following BEST describes the mechanism of action of alprostadil?
A. Alprostadil blocks cGMP.
B. Alprostadil blocks nitric oxide.
C. Alprostadil increases PDE-5.
D. Alprostadil increases cAMP.
D
39
Alprostadil is administered locally. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding local administration of alprostadil?
A. Local administration of alprostadil allows for low systemic absorption.
B. Local administration of alprostadil increases the chance of drug interactions.
C. Local administration of alprostadil is accomplished by way of a cream.
D. Local administration of alprostadil causes changes in color vision.
A
40
Which of the following is the BEST description of the mechanism of action of terazosin?
A. Terazosin blocks 5-α reductase.
B. Terazosin blocks α1A receptors.
C. Terazosin blocks PDE-5.
D. Terazosin blocks α1A and α1B receptors.
D
41
A patient is worried about starting terazosin because he is very sensitive to side effects of medications. Which of the following adverse effects would be most expected in this patient?
A. Erectile dysfunction.
B. Gynecomastia.
C. Dizziness.
D. Vomiting.
C
42
Which of the following is an important difference between terazosin and tamsulosin?
A. Terazosin blocks α1A receptors, while tamsulosin blocks α1A and α1B receptors.
B. Terazosin blocks α1A and α1B receptors, while tamsulosin blocks α1A receptors.
C. Terazosin blocks 5-α reductase, while tamsulosin blocks PDE-5.
D. Terazosin must be taken with food, while tamsulosin can be taken on an empty stomach.
B
43
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding finasteride?
A. Finasteride is associated with significant hypotension.
B. Finasteride is associated with birth defects.
C. Finasteride is effective within 2 weeks of initiation.
D. Finasteride is renally eliminated.
B
44
A 70-year-old male with BPH and an enlarged prostate continues to have urinary symptoms after an adequate trial of tamsulosin. Dutasteride is added to his therapy. In addition to tamsulosin, he is also taking hydrochlorothiazide, testosterone, and vardenafil as needed prior to intercourse. Which of his medications could have an interaction with dutasteride?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide.
B. Tamsulosin.
C. Testosterone.
D. Vardenafil.
C