JFO MQF
問題一覧
1
________________ is fires that directly support land, maritime, amphibious, and special operations forces to engage enemy forces, combat formations, and facilities in pursuit of tactical and operational objectives (Joint Publication [JP] 3-09.3). It requires close coordination and integration with maneuver forces. Effective fire support requires an observer that understands the tasks to accomplish and how these tasks support the overall operation. The observer must be able to accurately locate targets, understand which targets to attack, and effectively communicate what he sees to the rest of the fire support community.
Fire Support
2
True/False: There are five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect. These five requirements for accurate fires are: accurate target location and size, accurate firing unit location, accurate weapon and ammunition information, accurate meteorological information, and accurate computational procedures. The observer is solely responsible for the first requirement.
True
3
The _____________ and its elements integrate the fires warfighting function into operations. It has resources to plan for future operations from the main command post and to support current operations from the tactical command post (when deployed). Additionally it has the limited capability to provide coverage to the command group and the deputy command group when deployed. The _____________ is the centerpiece of the targeting process, focused on integrating both lethal and nonlethal effects. The __________ thus collaboratively plans, coordinates and synchronizes fire support, to include Joint Fires.
Fires Cell
4
________________ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces. Both can be executed as either hasty or deliberate attacks and are typically supported with integrated joint fires (ATP 304.1). US Army attack helicopters can also perform close air support (CAS) in support of another component. The United States Marine Corps (USMC) employs its attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform. Attack helicopters can employ precision guided munitions and provide terminal guidance for other weapon platforms.
Army Attack Aviation
5
______________ can support or conduct close combat attack, CAS, strike coordination and reconnaissance, AI, and other joint fires missions. Specific tasks for the ______________ may include target acquisition and marking, terminal guidance of ordinance, providing accurate coordinates for precision-guided munitions.
Unmanned Aircraft
6
____________ normally produces the specific effect on a target with the minimum expenditure of ammunition. It also reduces our vulnerability to adversary target acquisition.
Massing Fires
7
The _____________ has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of maneuver, and provides the commander’s intent for an operation and issues guidance, including guidance for fire support. The ______ translates the guidance into fire support tasks. Each fire support task and purpose directly supports a maneuver task and purpose. They then assign responsibility of tasks in the Fire Support Plan, assets, and priority of fires, to the observers using all available assets. They ensure dissemination of fire support (FS) products to all supporting assets.
Maneuver Commander / FSO
8
A ________________ is: An entity or object that performs a function for the adversary considered for possible engagement or other action. In intelligence usage, a country, area, installation, agency, or person against which intelligence operations are directed. An area designated and numbered for future firing. In gunfire support usage, an impact burst that hits the target (JP 3-60).
Target
9
A target identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting.
Target of Opportunity
10
A ______________ is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment, upon which actions are planned using deliberate targeting, creating effects which support commander’s objectives.
Planned Target
11
A _____________ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time.
Scheduled Target
12
A ___________ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic targeting.
On-Call Target
13
A _______________ is a target, based on either time or importance, on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element.
Priority Target
14
________________ is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.
Final Protective Fire
15
A __________________ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously.
Group of Targets
16
A ____________________ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.
Series of Targets
17
A _______________ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack.
Program of Targets
18
___________________ is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. It includes developing integrated fire plans (target lists, no fire lists, fire support execution matrix, scheme of fires, and overlays) and determining joint fires observer control options that support the commander's scheme of maneuver.
Fire Support Planning
19
_______________________ is the planning and executing of fires so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons (JP 3-09). The FIST must maintain situational understanding at all times and monitor voice requests for fire support within the maneuver element to prevent fratricide, civilian and non-combatant casualties, and ensure that collateral damage is achieved only to the level to achieve mission success, as the result of friendly fire support. The FIST must advise the commander on any FSCMs in effect.
Fire Support Coordination
20
_________ can be conducted at any place and time friendly forces are in close proximity to enemy forces. The word “close” does not imply a specific distance; rather, it is situational. The requirement for detailed integration because of proximity, fires, or movement is the determining factor.
Close Air Support
21
__________ is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft. A certified and qualified joint terminal attack controller (JTAC) or forward air controller (airborne) (FAC-[A]) will be recognized across the Department of Defense as capable and authorized to perform ______.
Terminal Attack Control (TAC)
22
__________ is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of individual attacks and the situation requires the JTAC/FAC (A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and visually acquire the target for each attack.
Type 1 Control
23
___________is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions.
Type 3 Control
24
True / False: When occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; A reconnaissance security sweep should be made 180 degrees forward of the OP.
False
25
Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of LLocation.
Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy forces (provides the best observation).
26
Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the team?
Communication
27
Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of Ttargeting.
Refine company/troop targets and those assigned by higher headquarters.
28
True / False: Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O-observation ensure all team members are proficient in friendly/threat forces recognition.
True
29
Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what does the P stand for?
Position Improvement
30
What is the preferred method of establishing accurate target location?
Automated Targeting Tools
31
An observer must be able to self-locate to within ______ meters or ________ meters if degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids.
10 or 100
32
_______________is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation
Mensuration
33
Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that could be
True North, Grid North, Magnetic North
34
____________ is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer-target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the target.
Angle T
35
If angle T is ___________ or greater, the FDC should tell the observer. If the observer is told that angle T is _________ or greater, at first observer continues to use the original OT factor to make deviation corrections. If the observer is getting more of a correction than asked for, the observer should consider cutting the corrections to better adjust rounds onto the target.
500 Mils
36
The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _______ with shorter hash marks at _________ increments.
10 mils and 5 mils
37
Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic7 compass on a tripod or other stable platform, the observer can measure direction to an accuracy of ____________. Take care when using a compass around electronic devices such as radios and computers, or large concentrations of metal such as vehicles. Observers should move about ____________ away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings.
10 mils and 50 meters
38
n artillery and mortar calls for fire, the observers will always convert direction to __________ direction in the CFF request.
Grid
39
Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of _________ mils.
10
40
Laser range finders are the preferred means of determining the observer-target distance. When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest __________ meters
10
41
Using flash to bang, the observer counts the number of seconds between the time the round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang) and multiply by _________ meters/second. The answer is the approximate number of meters between the observer and the round.
350
42
If there is a significant difference in vertical shift (greater than or equal to _________ meters in altitude between the observer's position or known point and the target), the observer includes the vertical shift in his target location (expressed to the nearest _______ meters).
35, 5
43
The terrain sketch is a panoramic sketch as precise as possible of the terrain by the observer of his area of responsibility. It aids in target location in a static environment. What should the terrain sketch also provide?
Means of orienting relief personnel
44
The warning order clears the net for the fire mission. The warning order consists of
Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location
45
Normally, _________________ missions are fired on planned targets, and a length of time to continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire.
Suppression
46
When engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under fire, the observer announces __________________ (followed by the target location).
Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
47
True / False: When conducting an immediate suppression or immediate smoke mission the CFF is sent in three transmissions.
False
48
Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how are the corrections sent?
in the form of a grid to the burst location
49
True / False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target location.
False
50
In a polar plot mission a _____________ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is located above or below the observer's location.
Vertical Shift
51
True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the observer’s location.
False
52
What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?
so the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use
53
The method of engagement consists of
type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and mark
54
True / False: The type of adjustment that may be employed is area fire or precision fire.
True
55
True / False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction missions.
Falss
56
Danger close for artillery and mortars is ______ and naval gunfire is_______.
600/750
57
True / False: MARK is included in the method of engagement to indicate that the observer is going to call for rounds for either of the following reasons -to orient themselves in zone of observation -to indicate targets to ground troops, aircraft, or other observers -to mark the Illumination optimal height of burst
False
58
Methods of Engagement: If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they use in the call for fire?
Followed By
59
If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give __________
Attitude
60
If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, they would include _____________ in the method of control.
At My Command
61
. In the initial call for fire the observer should announce ______________ to indicate the observer cannot see the target (because of vegetation, terrain, weather, intensity of the conflict, or smoke).
Cannot Observe
62
True / False: The FDC announces “SPLASH” to the observer 5 seconds prior to round impact. The observer then announces SPLASH out, the observer does not wait to see the impact to announce SPLASH out.
True
63
The observer normally uses __________ for suppression and smoke missions. ______________ will tell the FDC the total time to engage a target.
Duration
64
A __________ is the observer's determination of the location of the burst, or the mean point of impact (MPI) of a group of bursts, with respect to the adjusting point as observed along the observer-target line.
Spotting
65
True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.
True
66
True / False: The three HOB spottings are air, graze, and mixed.
False
67
A spotting of ________ is a round whose location cannot be determined by sight or sound.
Lost
68
A spotting of __________ is a round not observed but known to have Impacted.
Unobserved
69
A _______________ is the angular measurement from the adjusting point to the burst as seen from the observer's position.
Deviation Spotting
70
True / False: A spotting of “LINE” is a round that impacts on line with the adjusting point as seen by the observer (on the observer-target line).
True
71
During adjustments of a fire mission an observer spots round burst left of the target along the OT line. The observer measures the angular deviation as 70 mils. His deviation spotting is _______________.
70 Left
72
What spotting would an observer make if the round was a dud (nonfunctioning fuze), resulting in no visual or audible identification.
Lost
73
During subsequent corrections the observer sends the observer-target direction if it has not been sent previously or if the observer-target direction changes by more than ____________ from the previously announced direction.
100 mils
74
If a burst correction is desired during an immediate suppression mission what should be transmitted before the correction?
Target Description
75
Which adjustment technique mathematically ensures FFE rounds will be within 50 meters of the target.
Successive Bracketing
76
_________________________ is best when responsive fires are required and the observer is experienced in the adjustment of fire.
Hasty Bracketing
77
__________________ is best used on danger close missions and other missions requiring the observer to make small adjustments to bring fires onto the target in order to minimizing collateral damage.
Creeping Fire
78
Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE when they split a ______ meter bracket. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is _____ meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a _____ meter bracket is split.
100, 38, 200
79
The objective of impact registration is to get spottings of _________________________ along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 25 meters apart.
4 rounds, 2 over and 2 short
80
True / False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two overs and two shorts) along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 50 meters apart.
True
81
During a registration mission spottings of target hit or range correct count as spottings of _______________________.
Both Over and Short
82
During impact registration the observer spots the rounds for deviation to the nearest one mil and brings the rounds onto the observer-target line before ________________
Splitting 200 meter bracket
83
During impact registration when the 50 meter range bracket has been established, _____ rounds are fired with data 25 meters in the direction opposite that of the last range spotting.
2
84
True / False: During impact registration range refinement, if the registration point is nearer the last round(s) fired, no range refinement is necessary to move the impact toward the registration point.
True
85
If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD _____ or DROP _____ from the last data fired.
10
86
If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket, (instead of the last round) the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD ____ or DROP _____.
20
87
What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings in relation to the registration point?
DA 5429-R
88
In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation spottings of the rounds establishing the two over and two short (this may include two, three, or four deviation spottings). Then ____________ the total of the deviation spottings by the number of rounds (two, three, or four) to get an average deviation. Express the result to the nearest mil. The average deviation multiplied by the observer-target factor equals the correction, which the observer expresses to the nearest _____________.
Divide, 10 Meters
89
Upon achieving the objective of registration the observer has recorded the following usable deviation spottings. What should the observer send to the FDC for deviation refinement?
Round. Spotting. OT Factor
6. 7 right. 2
7. 15 Right. 1
8. 5 left. 1
9. 3 right. 1
Left 10
90
Mortar registration procedures are identical to the impact registration procedures for artillery. The exception is that once a ___ meter range bracket has been split and the last round fired is within ___ meters of the target, the observer sends refinement corrections to the FDC and ends the mission. Make range corrections to the nearest 25 meters. Only ___ round over and ___ round short are required.
100, 50, 1, 1
91
In the event the Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to
Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud
92
What munition is available to utilize with the 120mm mortar that minimizes collateral damage and reduces the number of rounds required to defeat targets?
APMI
93
What fuze can be added to 155mm HE to provide near precision?
PGK
94
The illumination shell is a base ejection projectile containing a flare attached to a parachute. What is NOT a use of Illumination?
Mark Friendly Locations for CAS attacks
95
What is the initial height of burst for 155mm M485A2 Illumination?
600
96
What is the initial height of burst for 105mm Illumination?
750
97
What is the initial height of burst for 120mm Illumination?
500
98
Use the ____________________ pattern when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination.
Two Gun Illumination
99
Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?
Two gun illumination lateral spread
100
In order for an observer to achieve as few as possible shadows during an illumination mission they should request ___________________ in the call for fire.
Illumination Range and Lateral Spread
問題一覧
1
________________ is fires that directly support land, maritime, amphibious, and special operations forces to engage enemy forces, combat formations, and facilities in pursuit of tactical and operational objectives (Joint Publication [JP] 3-09.3). It requires close coordination and integration with maneuver forces. Effective fire support requires an observer that understands the tasks to accomplish and how these tasks support the overall operation. The observer must be able to accurately locate targets, understand which targets to attack, and effectively communicate what he sees to the rest of the fire support community.
Fire Support
2
True/False: There are five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect. These five requirements for accurate fires are: accurate target location and size, accurate firing unit location, accurate weapon and ammunition information, accurate meteorological information, and accurate computational procedures. The observer is solely responsible for the first requirement.
True
3
The _____________ and its elements integrate the fires warfighting function into operations. It has resources to plan for future operations from the main command post and to support current operations from the tactical command post (when deployed). Additionally it has the limited capability to provide coverage to the command group and the deputy command group when deployed. The _____________ is the centerpiece of the targeting process, focused on integrating both lethal and nonlethal effects. The __________ thus collaboratively plans, coordinates and synchronizes fire support, to include Joint Fires.
Fires Cell
4
________________ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces. Both can be executed as either hasty or deliberate attacks and are typically supported with integrated joint fires (ATP 304.1). US Army attack helicopters can also perform close air support (CAS) in support of another component. The United States Marine Corps (USMC) employs its attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform. Attack helicopters can employ precision guided munitions and provide terminal guidance for other weapon platforms.
Army Attack Aviation
5
______________ can support or conduct close combat attack, CAS, strike coordination and reconnaissance, AI, and other joint fires missions. Specific tasks for the ______________ may include target acquisition and marking, terminal guidance of ordinance, providing accurate coordinates for precision-guided munitions.
Unmanned Aircraft
6
____________ normally produces the specific effect on a target with the minimum expenditure of ammunition. It also reduces our vulnerability to adversary target acquisition.
Massing Fires
7
The _____________ has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of maneuver, and provides the commander’s intent for an operation and issues guidance, including guidance for fire support. The ______ translates the guidance into fire support tasks. Each fire support task and purpose directly supports a maneuver task and purpose. They then assign responsibility of tasks in the Fire Support Plan, assets, and priority of fires, to the observers using all available assets. They ensure dissemination of fire support (FS) products to all supporting assets.
Maneuver Commander / FSO
8
A ________________ is: An entity or object that performs a function for the adversary considered for possible engagement or other action. In intelligence usage, a country, area, installation, agency, or person against which intelligence operations are directed. An area designated and numbered for future firing. In gunfire support usage, an impact burst that hits the target (JP 3-60).
Target
9
A target identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting.
Target of Opportunity
10
A ______________ is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment, upon which actions are planned using deliberate targeting, creating effects which support commander’s objectives.
Planned Target
11
A _____________ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time.
Scheduled Target
12
A ___________ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic targeting.
On-Call Target
13
A _______________ is a target, based on either time or importance, on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element.
Priority Target
14
________________ is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.
Final Protective Fire
15
A __________________ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously.
Group of Targets
16
A ____________________ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.
Series of Targets
17
A _______________ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack.
Program of Targets
18
___________________ is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. It includes developing integrated fire plans (target lists, no fire lists, fire support execution matrix, scheme of fires, and overlays) and determining joint fires observer control options that support the commander's scheme of maneuver.
Fire Support Planning
19
_______________________ is the planning and executing of fires so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons (JP 3-09). The FIST must maintain situational understanding at all times and monitor voice requests for fire support within the maneuver element to prevent fratricide, civilian and non-combatant casualties, and ensure that collateral damage is achieved only to the level to achieve mission success, as the result of friendly fire support. The FIST must advise the commander on any FSCMs in effect.
Fire Support Coordination
20
_________ can be conducted at any place and time friendly forces are in close proximity to enemy forces. The word “close” does not imply a specific distance; rather, it is situational. The requirement for detailed integration because of proximity, fires, or movement is the determining factor.
Close Air Support
21
__________ is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft. A certified and qualified joint terminal attack controller (JTAC) or forward air controller (airborne) (FAC-[A]) will be recognized across the Department of Defense as capable and authorized to perform ______.
Terminal Attack Control (TAC)
22
__________ is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of individual attacks and the situation requires the JTAC/FAC (A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and visually acquire the target for each attack.
Type 1 Control
23
___________is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions.
Type 3 Control
24
True / False: When occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; A reconnaissance security sweep should be made 180 degrees forward of the OP.
False
25
Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of LLocation.
Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy forces (provides the best observation).
26
Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the team?
Communication
27
Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of Ttargeting.
Refine company/troop targets and those assigned by higher headquarters.
28
True / False: Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O-observation ensure all team members are proficient in friendly/threat forces recognition.
True
29
Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what does the P stand for?
Position Improvement
30
What is the preferred method of establishing accurate target location?
Automated Targeting Tools
31
An observer must be able to self-locate to within ______ meters or ________ meters if degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids.
10 or 100
32
_______________is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation
Mensuration
33
Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that could be
True North, Grid North, Magnetic North
34
____________ is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer-target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the target.
Angle T
35
If angle T is ___________ or greater, the FDC should tell the observer. If the observer is told that angle T is _________ or greater, at first observer continues to use the original OT factor to make deviation corrections. If the observer is getting more of a correction than asked for, the observer should consider cutting the corrections to better adjust rounds onto the target.
500 Mils
36
The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _______ with shorter hash marks at _________ increments.
10 mils and 5 mils
37
Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic7 compass on a tripod or other stable platform, the observer can measure direction to an accuracy of ____________. Take care when using a compass around electronic devices such as radios and computers, or large concentrations of metal such as vehicles. Observers should move about ____________ away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings.
10 mils and 50 meters
38
n artillery and mortar calls for fire, the observers will always convert direction to __________ direction in the CFF request.
Grid
39
Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of _________ mils.
10
40
Laser range finders are the preferred means of determining the observer-target distance. When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest __________ meters
10
41
Using flash to bang, the observer counts the number of seconds between the time the round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang) and multiply by _________ meters/second. The answer is the approximate number of meters between the observer and the round.
350
42
If there is a significant difference in vertical shift (greater than or equal to _________ meters in altitude between the observer's position or known point and the target), the observer includes the vertical shift in his target location (expressed to the nearest _______ meters).
35, 5
43
The terrain sketch is a panoramic sketch as precise as possible of the terrain by the observer of his area of responsibility. It aids in target location in a static environment. What should the terrain sketch also provide?
Means of orienting relief personnel
44
The warning order clears the net for the fire mission. The warning order consists of
Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location
45
Normally, _________________ missions are fired on planned targets, and a length of time to continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire.
Suppression
46
When engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under fire, the observer announces __________________ (followed by the target location).
Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
47
True / False: When conducting an immediate suppression or immediate smoke mission the CFF is sent in three transmissions.
False
48
Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how are the corrections sent?
in the form of a grid to the burst location
49
True / False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target location.
False
50
In a polar plot mission a _____________ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is located above or below the observer's location.
Vertical Shift
51
True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the observer’s location.
False
52
What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?
so the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use
53
The method of engagement consists of
type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and mark
54
True / False: The type of adjustment that may be employed is area fire or precision fire.
True
55
True / False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction missions.
Falss
56
Danger close for artillery and mortars is ______ and naval gunfire is_______.
600/750
57
True / False: MARK is included in the method of engagement to indicate that the observer is going to call for rounds for either of the following reasons -to orient themselves in zone of observation -to indicate targets to ground troops, aircraft, or other observers -to mark the Illumination optimal height of burst
False
58
Methods of Engagement: If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they use in the call for fire?
Followed By
59
If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give __________
Attitude
60
If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, they would include _____________ in the method of control.
At My Command
61
. In the initial call for fire the observer should announce ______________ to indicate the observer cannot see the target (because of vegetation, terrain, weather, intensity of the conflict, or smoke).
Cannot Observe
62
True / False: The FDC announces “SPLASH” to the observer 5 seconds prior to round impact. The observer then announces SPLASH out, the observer does not wait to see the impact to announce SPLASH out.
True
63
The observer normally uses __________ for suppression and smoke missions. ______________ will tell the FDC the total time to engage a target.
Duration
64
A __________ is the observer's determination of the location of the burst, or the mean point of impact (MPI) of a group of bursts, with respect to the adjusting point as observed along the observer-target line.
Spotting
65
True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.
True
66
True / False: The three HOB spottings are air, graze, and mixed.
False
67
A spotting of ________ is a round whose location cannot be determined by sight or sound.
Lost
68
A spotting of __________ is a round not observed but known to have Impacted.
Unobserved
69
A _______________ is the angular measurement from the adjusting point to the burst as seen from the observer's position.
Deviation Spotting
70
True / False: A spotting of “LINE” is a round that impacts on line with the adjusting point as seen by the observer (on the observer-target line).
True
71
During adjustments of a fire mission an observer spots round burst left of the target along the OT line. The observer measures the angular deviation as 70 mils. His deviation spotting is _______________.
70 Left
72
What spotting would an observer make if the round was a dud (nonfunctioning fuze), resulting in no visual or audible identification.
Lost
73
During subsequent corrections the observer sends the observer-target direction if it has not been sent previously or if the observer-target direction changes by more than ____________ from the previously announced direction.
100 mils
74
If a burst correction is desired during an immediate suppression mission what should be transmitted before the correction?
Target Description
75
Which adjustment technique mathematically ensures FFE rounds will be within 50 meters of the target.
Successive Bracketing
76
_________________________ is best when responsive fires are required and the observer is experienced in the adjustment of fire.
Hasty Bracketing
77
__________________ is best used on danger close missions and other missions requiring the observer to make small adjustments to bring fires onto the target in order to minimizing collateral damage.
Creeping Fire
78
Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE when they split a ______ meter bracket. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is _____ meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a _____ meter bracket is split.
100, 38, 200
79
The objective of impact registration is to get spottings of _________________________ along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 25 meters apart.
4 rounds, 2 over and 2 short
80
True / False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two overs and two shorts) along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 50 meters apart.
True
81
During a registration mission spottings of target hit or range correct count as spottings of _______________________.
Both Over and Short
82
During impact registration the observer spots the rounds for deviation to the nearest one mil and brings the rounds onto the observer-target line before ________________
Splitting 200 meter bracket
83
During impact registration when the 50 meter range bracket has been established, _____ rounds are fired with data 25 meters in the direction opposite that of the last range spotting.
2
84
True / False: During impact registration range refinement, if the registration point is nearer the last round(s) fired, no range refinement is necessary to move the impact toward the registration point.
True
85
If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD _____ or DROP _____ from the last data fired.
10
86
If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket, (instead of the last round) the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD ____ or DROP _____.
20
87
What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings in relation to the registration point?
DA 5429-R
88
In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation spottings of the rounds establishing the two over and two short (this may include two, three, or four deviation spottings). Then ____________ the total of the deviation spottings by the number of rounds (two, three, or four) to get an average deviation. Express the result to the nearest mil. The average deviation multiplied by the observer-target factor equals the correction, which the observer expresses to the nearest _____________.
Divide, 10 Meters
89
Upon achieving the objective of registration the observer has recorded the following usable deviation spottings. What should the observer send to the FDC for deviation refinement?
Round. Spotting. OT Factor
6. 7 right. 2
7. 15 Right. 1
8. 5 left. 1
9. 3 right. 1
Left 10
90
Mortar registration procedures are identical to the impact registration procedures for artillery. The exception is that once a ___ meter range bracket has been split and the last round fired is within ___ meters of the target, the observer sends refinement corrections to the FDC and ends the mission. Make range corrections to the nearest 25 meters. Only ___ round over and ___ round short are required.
100, 50, 1, 1
91
In the event the Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to
Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud
92
What munition is available to utilize with the 120mm mortar that minimizes collateral damage and reduces the number of rounds required to defeat targets?
APMI
93
What fuze can be added to 155mm HE to provide near precision?
PGK
94
The illumination shell is a base ejection projectile containing a flare attached to a parachute. What is NOT a use of Illumination?
Mark Friendly Locations for CAS attacks
95
What is the initial height of burst for 155mm M485A2 Illumination?
600
96
What is the initial height of burst for 105mm Illumination?
750
97
What is the initial height of burst for 120mm Illumination?
500
98
Use the ____________________ pattern when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination.
Two Gun Illumination
99
Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?
Two gun illumination lateral spread
100
In order for an observer to achieve as few as possible shadows during an illumination mission they should request ___________________ in the call for fire.
Illumination Range and Lateral Spread