True / False: Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces (SOF) gunship use the same call for fire format

______________________ is a defensive task that involves organized movement away from the enemy.

__________________ is a defensive task that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force

What is the max range of the M252 81mm mortar?

Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of _________ mils.

____________ is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to minimize their vision.

A _______________ is an area, usually a friendly unit or location which the maneuver commander designates as critical to the protection of an asset whose loss would seriously jeopardize the mission.

The observer normally uses __________ for suppression and smoke missions. ______________ will tell the FDC the total time to engage a target.

A _______________ is the angular measurement from the adjusting point to the burst as seen from the observer's position.

A ________________ is: An entity or object that performs a function for the adversary considered for possible engagement or other action. In intelligence usage, a country, area, installation, agency, or person against which intelligence operations are directed. An area designated and numbered for future firing. In gunfire support usage, an impact burst that hits the target (JP 3-60).

______________ can support or conduct close combat attack, CAS, strike coordination and reconnaissance, AI, and other joint fires missions. Specific tasks for the ______________ may include target acquisition and marking, terminal guidance of ordinance, providing accurate coordinates for precision-guided munitions.

What is the initial height of burst for 155mm M485A2 Illumination?

True/False: There are five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect. These five requirements for accurate fires are: accurate target location and size, accurate firing unit location, accurate weapon and ammunition information, accurate meteorological information, and accurate computational procedures. The observer is solely responsible for the first requirement.

True / False: During multiple missions the observer should use the assigned target number followed by corrections.

True / False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two overs and two shorts) along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 50 meters apart.

A _______________________ is a plan that addresses each means of fire support available and describes how Army indirect fires, joint fires, and target acquisition are integrated with maneuver to facilitate operational success

__________ is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities.

The act of drawing the attention and forces of an enemy from the point of the principal operation; an attack, alarm, or feint that diverts attention.

The __________________ plans, coordinates, integrates, synchronizes and deconflicts the employment and assessment of fires for both current and future operations. They’re generally organized with a fire support officer and assistants, an air defense airspace management element (ADAM), an electronic warfare element, a targeting element, and digital systems operators.

The method of engagement consists of

What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings in relation to the registration point?

A _____________ is a land area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited

n artillery and mortar calls for fire, the observers will always convert direction to __________ direction in the CFF request.

________________ is the authority over forces that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned.

Brevity: The laser designator system is inoperative

Normally, _________________ missions are fired on planned targets, and a length of time to continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire.

During adjustments of a fire mission an observer spots round burst left of the target along the OT line. The observer measures the angular deviation as 70 mils. His deviation spotting is _______________.

_____________ is the process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate response to them, considering operational requirements and capabilities

__________________ is best used on danger close missions and other missions requiring the observer to make small adjustments to bring fires onto the target in order to minimizing collateral damage.

The ______________ is the operation that directly accomplishes the mission.

A spotting of __________ is a round not observed but known to have Impacted.

________________ is the detection, identification, and location of a target in sufficient detail to permit the effective employment of weapons

True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the observer’s location.

The second step of the targeting process, ___________, directs how and which target acquisition assets find the specified targets to the requisite level of accuracy.

Use the ____________________ pattern when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination.

In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation spottings of the rounds establishing the two over and two short (this may include two, three, or four deviation spottings). Then ____________ the total of the deviation spottings by the number of rounds (two, three, or four) to get an average deviation. Express the result to the nearest mil. The average deviation multiplied by the observer-target factor equals the correction, which the observer expresses to the nearest _____________.

__________ is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft. A certified and qualified joint terminal attack controller (JTAC) or forward air controller (airborne) (FAC-[A]) will be recognized across the Department of Defense as capable and authorized to perform ______.

Upon achieving the objective of registration the observer has recorded the following usable deviation spottings. What should the observer send to the FDC for deviation refinement? Round. Spotting. OT Factor 6. 7 right. 2 7. 15 Right. 1 8. 5 left. 1 9. 3 right. 1

___________________ is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. It includes developing integrated fire plans (target lists, no fire lists, fire support execution matrix, scheme of fires, and overlays) and determining joint fires observer control options that support the commander's scheme of maneuver.

Permissive fire support coordination measures ____________ the attack of targets by reducing the coordination necessary for the clearance of fires.

The _____________ has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of maneuver, and provides the commander’s intent for an operation and issues guidance, including guidance for fire support. The ______ translates the guidance into fire support tasks. Each fire support task and purpose directly supports a maneuver task and purpose. They then assign responsibility of tasks in the Fire Support Plan, assets, and priority of fires, to the observers using all available assets. They ensure dissemination of fire support (FS) products to all supporting assets.

______________ occurs throughout the operations process. Targeting is continuously refined and adjusted between the commander and staff as the operation unfolds. Combat assessment measures how effectively attack systems and munitions functioned, effects on the target, and a recommendation as to whether the target should be reattacked

In the event the Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to

_________________________ is best when responsive fires are required and the observer is experienced in the adjustment of fire.

___________ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets

The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _______ with shorter hash marks at _________ increments.

The _____________ and its elements integrate the fires warfighting function into operations. It has resources to plan for future operations from the main command post and to support current operations from the tactical command post (when deployed). Additionally it has the limited capability to provide coverage to the command group and the deputy command group when deployed. The _____________ is the centerpiece of the targeting process, focused on integrating both lethal and nonlethal effects. The __________ thus collaboratively plans, coordinates and synchronizes fire support, to include Joint Fires.

The warning order clears the net for the fire mission. The warning order consists of

True / False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target location.

Brevity: Acquisition of laser designation or the platform is laser spot tracker (LST) capable.

Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how are the corrections sent?

What is line 8 of the JFO target brief?

True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.

Brevity: Mark / marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer.

A _______________ is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to measuring task accomplishment.

. In the initial call for fire the observer should announce ______________ to indicate the observer cannot see the target (because of vegetation, terrain, weather, intensity of the conflict, or smoke).

____________________ provides immediate indirect fires to neutralize, destroy, and suppress enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired

_____________________ is a support relationship requiring a force to support another supporting unit

________________ is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.

______________ is the commander’s guidance to his staff, subordinate commanders, fire support planners, and supporting agencies to organize and employ fire support in accordance with the relative importance of the unit’s mission

_____________________ is the act of designing an operating force, support staff, or sustainment package of specific size and composition to meet a unique task or mission

Methods of Engagement: If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they use in the call for fire?

A ______________________ is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.

_______________is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation

Slow the time of arrival of enemy forces or capabilities or alter the ability of the enemy or adversary to project forces or capabilities.

A _______________ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack.

What is the preferred method of establishing accurate target location?

How would an observer maintain positive control of SOF Gunship or Army Attack Aviation during engagement?

A __________ is a three-dimensional area used to facilitate the integration of joint fires and airspace

______________________ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission

True / False: Regardless of friendly force posture, commanders, JTACs, and aircrew will refer to the Standing posture column and use this distance to determine when danger close procedures apply.

When engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under fire, the observer announces __________________ (followed by the target location).

________________is a clear and concise expression of the purpose of the operation and the desired military end state that supports mission command, provides focus to the staff, and helps subordinate and supporting commanders act to achieve the commander’s desired results without further orders, even when the operation does not unfold as planned

What is the max range of the M120 120mm mortar?

What is the minimum illumination HOB correction?

What brevity term is sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?

Actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly mission.

True / False: MARK is included in the method of engagement to indicate that the observer is going to call for rounds for either of the following reasons -to orient themselves in zone of observation -to indicate targets to ground troops, aircraft, or other observers -to mark the Illumination optimal height of burst

____________ is the delivery technique of applying accurately computed corrections (not determined by firing) to standard firing data for all nonstandard conditions (weather, weapon, ammunition, rotation of the earth) to deliver accurate surprise, nuclear, or nonnuclear fire on any known target in any direction from any weapon limited only by the characteristics of the weapon and ammunition used

A _______________ is a target, based on either time or importance, on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element.

________________ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces. Both can be executed as either hasty or deliberate attacks and are typically supported with integrated joint fires (ATP 304.1). US Army attack helicopters can also perform close air support (CAS) in support of another component. The United States Marine Corps (USMC) employs its attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform. Attack helicopters can employ precision guided munitions and provide terminal guidance for other weapon platforms.

If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD _____ or DROP _____ from the last data fired.

If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, they would include _____________ in the method of control.

Brevity: Once the aircrew sees the IR energy and is able to discern between the friendly and target end of the pointer, a ____________________ call may be made.

True / False: The three HOB spottings are air, graze, and mixed.

True / False: During impact registration range refinement, if the registration point is nearer the last round(s) fired, no range refinement is necessary to move the impact toward the registration point.

_________ is the first step in the targeting process. It begins with the military decision-making process (MDMP). It does not end when the plan is completed; the decide function continues throughout the operation.

A ______________ is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment, upon which actions are planned using deliberate targeting, creating effects which support commander’s objectives.

__________ is to place units or personnel in an organization where such placement is relatively permanent, and/or where such organization controls and administers the units or personnel for the primary function, or greater portion of the functions, of the unit or personnel

_________ is a tactical mission task in which the unit employs all available means to break through or establish a passage through an enemy defense, obstacle, minefield or fortification

_______________ are those operations undertaken by a commander to provide early and accurate warning of enemy operations, to provide the force being protected with time and maneuver space within which to react to the enemy, and to develop the situation to allow the commander to effectively use the protected force

Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE when they split a ______ meter bracket. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is _____ meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a _____ meter bracket is split.

In a polar plot mission a _____________ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is located above or below the observer's location.

If there is a significant difference in vertical shift (greater than or equal to _________ meters in altitude between the observer's position or known point and the target), the observer includes the vertical shift in his target location (expressed to the nearest _______ meters).

What spotting would an observer make if the round was a dud (nonfunctioning fuze), resulting in no visual or audible identification.

True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and deception.

During a quick smoke mission with shell smoke (HC) use HE in adjustment until a ____ meter bracket is split. The observer then requests shell smoke. Fire one smoke round, and make any necessary corrections. Then request FFE.

JTACs and FAC(A)s can use ________ to develop and correlate targeting data, mark targets, and provide terminal guidance operations.

______________ is an offensive task that usually follows the conduct of a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth

What is NOT a method in which to achieve responsive fires?