問題一覧
1
What is the purpose of competency assessment?
A. Identify employees in need of retraining
B. Evaluate an individual’s level of knowledge
during a job interview
C. Identify employees who need to be fired
D. All of the above
A. Identify employees in need of retraining
2
Employees are the core of an organization, and
therefore they:
A. Must be trained
B. Must report errors without fear of reprisal
C. Are a key part of p
D. All of the above
3
Early identification of problems by evaluating the
compliance with established SOP is the purpose of:
A. Internal audits
B. Accident reports
C. Root-cause analysis
D. FDA inspections
A. Internal audits
4
All of the following statements are true regarding
internal audits except that they:
A. Help identify problems early
B. Ensure continuous quality improvement efforts
C. Are used solely for the purpose of identifying
“troublemakers”
D. Are one of the many responsibilities of the QA
unit
C. Are used solely for the purpose of identifying “troublemakers
5
Ultimately the responsibility for a safety program in
the laboratory belongs to:
A. CDC
B. The employer or laboratory director
C. OSHA
D. The employee
B. The employer or laboratory director
6
All blood banks as mandated by law must have a:
A. Water fountain
B. Written laboratory safety program
C. BSC
D. Foot-operated hand wash
B. Written laboratory safety program
7
The reporting of an accident or injury should occur
when any:
A. Injury may result in a fatality
B. Injury involves possible infection with HIV or
HBV
C. Accident involves nonemployees or jeopardizes
a patient
D. Accident or injury occurs
D. Accident or injury occurs
8
One of the best ways to protect employees and
keep a safe laboratory environment is to provide
employees with:
A. Health insurance
B. Safety education
C. Rest breaks
D. Fluid-repellent laboratory coats
B. Safety education
9
Waste container for sharp materials like needles,
syringe and scalpel blades:
A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange
C. Red
10
BIODEGRADABLE WASTES like leftover food, used
cooking oil, fish entrails, scale, fins, fruits, vegetable
peelings, rotten fruits, and vegetables:
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
C. Green
11
NON-BIODEGRADABLE WASTES like paper or paper
products (newspaper, tetra packs, etc.), bottles
(glass and plastics), and packaging materials
(Styropor, candy wrapper, aluminum cans):
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
D. Black
12
Radioactive wastes or medical equipment
contaminated or exposed in radioactivity:
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
A. Orange
13
Pharmaceutical and chemical wastes:
A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange
B. Yellow with black band
14
Infectious and pathological wastes such as used test
strips, used beads or plates, used reaction pads or
foils, used swabs, used gloves, used cord clamp,
used plaster, used masks:
A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange
A. Yellow
15
Government agency responsible for the regulation
and licensing of nuclear facilities and radioactive
materials:
A. DOLE
B. DOST
C. DOH
D. PNRI
D. PNRI
16
Organ Donation Act of 1991:
A. RA 1517
B. RA 4688
C. RA 7170
D. RA 9165
C. RA 7170
17
Board of Examiners for Medical Technology are
appointed by:
A. Philippine Society of Pathologists
B. Philippine Association of Medical Technologists
C. President of the Philippines
D. Vice President of the Philippines
C. President of the Philippines
18
Certificate of Registration as MT will be issued to
successful applicant who has attained the age of:
A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21
D. 21
19
Section 27 of RA 5527:
A. Qualification for Examination
B. Oath-taking
C. Foreign Reciprocity
D. Penal Provisions
C. Foreign Reciprocity
20
During the morning rush, your laboratory manager
comes into the laboratory and starts explaining a
new policy regarding vacation requests. Word
spreads of the change throughout the day, and the
message has changed somewhat. Several in the
laboratory are upset and complain to the
laboratory man- ager. Which of the following
actions is the most appropriate way to handle such
a situation?
A. Nothing should be changed, it was handled
appropriately
B. The manager should have posted the change on
the bulletin board in the break room
C. The manager should have announced the policy
on each shift
D. The manager should have discussed and
distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting,
or several laboratory meetings, so that all
employees heard the policy from the manager
D. The manager should have discussed and distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting, or several laboratory meetings, so that all employees heard the policy from the manager
21
The process of working with people and resources
to accomplish organizational goals:
A. Authority
B. Supervision
C. Management
D. Leadership
C. Management
22
What is the most important role of the manager in
charge?
A. Independent decision making
B. Communication
C. Informal discussions
D. None of the above
B. Communication
23
Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of
laboratory services:
A. Laboratory supervisor
B. Laboratory manager or chief MT
C. Laboratory director
D. Administrator
A. Laboratory supervisor
24
You are the lead chemistry MLS. Your laboratory
manager has asked you to evaluate two new
methods for cholesterol analysis. In your
evaluation, you found that method A was very
accurate and precise and that method B was not
very accurate and precise. However, the laboratory
will make more money by investing in method B.
Which of the following decisions would exhibit
professionalism?
A. Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce
the most accurate and precise results
B. Recommend method B to your laboratory
manager. It is important that the laboratory
make as much money as possible
C. State that you are unable to make a
recommendation, because no difference in the
methods was noted
D. Recommend that you need more time to
evaluate both methods
A. Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce the most accurate and precise results
25
Which of the following components should not be
included in a written procedure?
A. Test method
B. Cost per billable test
C. Quality control procedures
D. Reagents and media needs
B. Cost per billable test
26
Key attributes for good documentation, except:
A. Accurate
B. Attributable
C. Legible
D. Always computer-generated
D. Always computer-generated
27
. Considered to be an EXPRESSION OF
DISSATISFACTION, which requires a response:
A. Reaction
B. Adverse reaction
C. Complaint
D. Discrepancy
C. Complaint
28
entinel event:
A. Insufficient specimen
B. Positive blood culture
C. Wrong medication
D. Surgery on wrong patient or body part
D. Surgery on wrong patient or body part
29
Mary is an MLT working as a phlebotomist in a
private laboratory. A woman comes in with her 16-
year-old daughter who has a requisition for
follicular stimulating hormone, luteinzing hormone
(LH), estradiol and human chorionic gonadotropin
(hCG). The daughter tells Mary that she is willing to
have some of the tests on the requisition
performed but not the CG. The mother shakes her
head and reminds the daughter that the tests are
necessary for a diagnosis by the doctor. What
should Mary do?
A. Follow the request of the mother because she is
the parent and responsible for the care of her
underage child.
B. Follow the request of the daughter because she
seems capable of making decisions on her own
and there is no set age of consent.
C. In an effort to maintain consent, Mary should
contact the patient's physician.
D. Proceed with the venipuncture because the
requisition itself is consent enough.
C. In an effort to maintain consent, Mary should contact the patient's physician.
30
Which of the following is not a controlled act?
A. Communicating with patients or their
representatives about the diagnosis.
B. Setting or casting a fracture of a bone or a
dislocation of a joint.
C. Weighing a patient.
D. Prescribing a hearing aid.
C. Weighing a patient.
31
Alice, an MLT who is working in a community
laboratory, receives a phone call from a lawyer
requesting copies of his client's test results. The
lawyer says that his request is urgent as his client is
to appear in court the next day. What should Alice
do?
A. Alice should release the results to the lawyer
immediately.
B. Alice should tell the lawyer that the laboratory
can only release information to the physician
who ordered the tests and direct him to the
physician.
C. Alice should refuse to release the results.
D. Alice should ask the lawyer to submit his
request in writing and upon receipt of the
request, release the results
B. Alice should tell the lawyer that the laboratory can only release information to the physician who ordered the tests and direct him to the physician.
32
While assisting with a blood collection on a 26-yearold female patient who is unconscious, Heidi, an
MLT, overhears Roger, one of the nurses assisting
with the patient, making inappropriate sexual
remarks about the patient's body and what he
would like to do to it. What should Heidi do?
A. Heidi should report what she has witnessed to
the hospital and also file a report regarding
Roger's comments with the College of Nurses.
B. Heidi does not have to do anything, after all the
patient is unconscious and therefore not aware
of what is being said.
C. Heidi should confront Roger and tell him his
behavior is inappropriate.
D. Heidi should not do anything, everyone knows
that Roger is a playboy and nothing is ever going
to change that.
A. Heidi should report what she has witnessed to the hospital and also file a report regarding Roger's comments with the College of Nurses
33
The hospital where Mary works is planning to
install Point of Care (POC) testing for several
analytes in the emergency department; the lab will
be responsible for validating and maintaining the
instruments but the nursing staff will be doing the
testing. The general consensus in the lab is that the
nurses don't have the background required to
perform POC testing and it would be better if it was
assigned to the MLTs. Mary, a senior MLT, has been
asked to train several of the nurses on how to use
the equipment, she is reluctant because she agrees
that testing should stay in the lab. What is the next
step for Mary?
A. Ask for the opportunity to present her concerns
to upper management and to point out that the
lab staff are already trained to use the
equipment and will need little orientation
before testing can start. This would be a cost
saver for the hospital.
B. Ask for the opportunity to present her concerns
to upper management and cite improved
patient care as a reason to assign POC testing to
the laboratory.
C. Look at the training assignment as an
opportunity to collaborate with nursing staff
and to help them understand the role of the
Medical Laboratory Technologist in patient care.
D. Ask for the training to be assigned to another
MLT, someone who needs the experience more
than she does.
C. Look at the training assignment as an opportunity to collaborate with nursing staff and to help them understand the role of the Medical Laboratory Technologist in patient care.
34
The major benefit(s) of laboratory automation is
(are):
A. Reduction in medical errors.
B. Improved safety for laboratory staff.
C. Faster turnaround time.
D. All the above.
D. All the above.
35
Steps in automation designed to mimic manual
techniques include:
A. Pipetting of specimen
B. Pipetting of reagents
C. Measurement of chemical reactions
D. All the above
D. All the above
36
Health indicators, EXCEPT:
A. Life expectancy
B. Mortality
C. Incidence or prevalence
D. Injury rate
D. Injury rate
37
Which of the following is objective?
A. Pea-sized
B. Rough
C. 1 cm. length
D. All of these
C. 1 cm. length
38
How would 6.32 be rounded off to one less decimal
place?
A. 6.32
B. 6.4
C. 7.0
D. 6.3
D. 6.3
39
How would 15.57 be rounded off to one less decimal
place?
A. 15.6
B. 15.5
C. 16.0
D. 15.0
A. 15.6
40
How would 25.96 be rounded off to one less decimal
place?
A. 26.0
B. 25.9
C. 25.6
D. 26.96
A. 26.0
41
Accuracy is defined as:
A. How close results are to one another
B. How close a test result is to the true value
C. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood;
known concentration of constituent
D. Comparison of an instrument measure or
reading to known physical constant
B. How close a test result is to the true value
42
Precision is defined as:
A. How close results are to one another
B. How close a test result is to the true value
C. Comparison of an instrument measure or
reading to a known physical constant
D. Measurement of a highly purified substance of
known composition
A. How close results are to one another
43
Calibration is defined as:
A. How close results are to one another
B. How close a test result is to the true value
C. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood;
known concentration of constituent
D. Comparison of an instrument measure or
reading to a known physical constant
D. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
44
Sensitivity is:
A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that
produce a positive result
B. Cases without a specific disease or condition
that produce a negative result
C. Cases with a specific disease or condition that
produce a negative result
D. Cases without a specific disease or condition
that produce a positive result
A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result
45
The standard deviation is:
A. Equal to SD divided by the mean
B. Measure of variability
C. The same as the mean value
D. An exact measurement of an analytic value
B. Measure of variability
46
Levey-Jennings plots:
A. Show values on a chart
B. Have three warning rules
C. Have three mandatory rules
D. All the above
A. Show values on a chart
47
A procedure with minimal complexity,
instrumentation, and personnel requirements so
that the results can be quickly determined:
A. Waived test
B. Nonwaived test
C. Definitive test
D. Presumptive test
D. Presumptive test
48
Highly sensitive and specific test in which results can
be used as legal evidence:
A. Waived test
B. Non-waived test
C. Definitive test
D. Presumptive test
C. Definitive test
49
Tests that are very simple or pose no reasonable risk
of harm to the patient if the test is performed
incorrectly:
A. Waived test
B. Nonwaived test
C. Definitive test
D. Reference or gold standard
A. Waived test
50
Complex tests that require skill to perform and
interpret and are therefore regulated:
A. Waived test
B. Nonwaived test
C. Definitive test
D. Reference or gold standard
B. Nonwaived test
51
Best available approximation of a true value,
although not necessarily 100% accurate:
A. Waived test
B. Nonwaived test
C. Definitive test
D. Reference or gold standard
D. Reference or gold standard
52
A nurse calls the laboratory technologist on duty
asking about blood collection for the analysis of
enzymes (AST, ALP, ALT, GGT, CK). Which of the
following tubes would you suggest the technologist
collect?
A. Red top
B. EDTA
C. Oxalate
D. Fluoride
A. Red top
53
A blood sample is left on a phlebotomy tray for 4.5
hours before it is delivered to the laboratory. Which
group of tests could be performed?
A. Glucose, Na, K, Cl, TCO2
B. Uric acid, BUN, creatinine
C. Total and direct bilirubin
D. CK, ALT, ALP, AST
B. Uric acid, BUN, creatinine
54
Treatment by therapeutic phlebotomy:
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Hemochromatosis
D. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Hemochromatosis
55
D. Hyperbilirubinemia
883. Formation of glucose-6-phosphate from
noncarbohydrate sources:
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Gluconeogenesis
D. Gluconeogenesis
56
IPOLYSIS: decomposition of fat
884. Before an OGTT is performed, individuals should
ingest at least ______ per day of carbohydrates for
the _____ days preceding the test.
A. 75 grams CHO per day for 2 days
B. 100 grams CHO per day for 2 days
C. 100 grams CHO per day for 3 days
D. 150 grams CHO per day for 3 days
D. 150 grams CHO per day for 3 days
57
When preparing a patient for an oral glucose
tolerance test (OGTT), which of the following
conditions will lead to erroneous results?
A. The patient remains ambulatory for 3 days prior
to the test
B. Carbohydrate intake is restricted to below 150
g/day for 3 days prior to test
C. No food, coffee, tea, or smoking is allowed 8
hours before and during the test
D. Administration of 75 g of glucose is given to an
adult patient following a 10–12-hour fast
B. Carbohydrate intake is restricted to below 150 g/day for 3 days prior to test
58
According to the National Cholesterol Education
Program, which lipid or lipoprotein class is more
important for therapeutic decision making (diet and
medication decisions)?
A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Cholesterol
B. LDL
59
Which enzyme deficiency is most commonly
associated with familial hypertriglyceridemia
associated with fasting plasma chylomicrons
(formerly type I hyperlipoproteinemia)?
A. β Glucocerebrosidase deficiency
B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase
deficiency
C. Apo-B deficiency
D. Apo-C-III deficiency
B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase deficiency
60
Most useful index for assessing severity of liver
disease:
A. Albumin
B. Total protein
C. Urea
D. Creatinine
A. Albumin
61
Important role in maintaining colloidal oncotic
pressure and preventing edema:
A. Albumin
B. Prealbumin
C. Transferrin
D. Fibrinogen
A. Albumin
62
Nutritional assessment with poor protein-caloric
status is associated with:
A. A decreased level of prealbumin
B. A low level of γ-globulins
C. An elevated ceruloplasmin concentration
D. An increased level of α1-fetoprotein
A. A decreased level of prealbumin
63
All of the following migrate with the alpha2
globulins, EXCEPT:
A. Alpha2-macroglobulin
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. Haptoglobin
D. Transferrin
D. Transferrin
64
The largest major nonimmunoglobulin protein in
plasma:
A. Alpha1-antitrypsin
B. Alpha1-acid glycoprotein
C. Alpha2-macroglobulin
D. Transferrin
C. Alpha2-macroglobulin
65
Diffuse but LARGE elevation of gamma-globulins:
A. Chronic liver disease
B. Chronic inflammatory disease
C. Hypoalbuminemia
D. Nephrotic syndrome
A. Chronic liver disease
66
Diffuse but SMALL elevation of gamma-globulins:
A. Chronic liver disease
B. Chronic inflammatory disease
C. Hypoalbuminemia
D. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Chronic inflammatory disease
67
All of the following are true for nephrotic
syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. Striking proteinuria
B. Decreased in serum albumin and total protein
C. Increased creatinine, BUN and uric acid
D. None of these
D. None of these
68
True for glomerulonephritis:
A. Elevated urine protein
B. Increased serum creatinine and BUN
C. RBCs and casts in urine
D. All of these
D. All of these
69
To assure ammonia level result, the specimen
should be:
A. Incubated at 37 o
C prior to testing
B. Spun and separated immediately, tested as
routine
C. Spun, separated, iced and tested immediately
D. Stored at room temperature until tested
C. Spun, separated, iced and tested immediately
70
Which test is the most sensitive in detecting early
monoclonal gammopathies?
A. High-resolution serum protein electrophoresis
B. Urinary electrophoresis for monoclonal light
chains
C. Capillary electrophoresis of serum and urine
D. Serum-free light chain immunoassay
D. Serum-free light chain immunoassay
71
Which test is the most useful way to evaluate the
response to treatment for multiple myeloma?
A. Measure of total immunoglobulin
B. Measurement of 24-hour urinary light chain
concentration (Bence–Jones protein)
C. Capillary electrophoresis of M-protein
recurrence
D. Measurement of serum-free light chai
D. Measurement of serum-free light chain
72
Which of the following is a characteristic of
conjugated bilirubin?
A. It is water soluble
B. It reacts more slowly than unconjugated
bilirubin
C. It is more stable than unconjugated bilirubin
D. It has the same absorbance properties as
unconjugated bilirubin
A. It is water soluble
73
Gilbert’s syndrome:
A. Bilirubin transport deficit
B. Conjugation deficit
C. Excretory deficit
D. None of these
A. Bilirubin transport deficit
74
Crigler-Najjar syndrome:
A. Bilirubin transport deficit
B. Conjugation deficit
C. Excretory deficit
D. None of these
B. Conjugation deficit
75
Overall capacity to transport bile:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum bile acids
D. Urine urobilinogen
A. Serum bilirubin level
76
Abnormality of bile duct epithelium:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes
D. Serum aminotransferase levels
C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes
77
Capacity to conjugate bilirubin; quantity of
hemoglobin turnover:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum bile acids
D. Urine urobilinogen
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
78
Hepatocellular damage and necrosis:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes
D. Serum aminotransferase levels
D. Serum aminotransferase levels
79
Abnormality of bile duct epithelium:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes
D. Serum aminotransferase levels
C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes
80
For carbon dioxide determination, ACIDIFYING the
sample:
A. Converts the various forms of CO2 in plasma to
gaseous CO2 by dilution with an acid buffer
B. Prevents conversion of the various forms of CO2 in
plasma to gaseous CO2 by dilution with an acid
buffer
C. Converts all CO2 and carbonic acid to HCO3−
D. Prevents conversion of all CO2 and carbonic acid to
HCO3−
A. Converts the various forms of CO2 in plasma to gaseous CO2 by dilution with an acid buffer
81
What is the anticoagulant of choice for blood gas
analysis?
A. EDTA
B. Heparin
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Citrate
B. Heparin
82
Which of the following tissues does not secrete
steroid hormones?
A. Ovaries
B. Pituitary gland
C. Testes
D. Adrenal cortex
B. Pituitary gland
83
Which of the following is the most potent
androgen?
A. Androstenedione
B. Dehydroepiandrosterone
C. Androsterone
D. Testosterone
D. Testosterone
84
Hormone that regulates synthesis and release of the
thyroid hormones is produced in:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary gland
C. Posterior pituitary gland
D. Thyroid
B. Anterior pituitary gland
85
Which assay using 24-hour urine is considered the
best single screening test for pheochromocytoma?
A. Total urinary catecholamines
B. VMA
C. Homovanillic acid (HVA)
D. Metanephrines
D. Metanephrines
86
Urinary HVA is most often assayed to detect:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Adrenal medullary carcinoma
D. Psychiatric disorders such as manic depression
B. Neuroblastoma
87
Which of the following would not be a typical
analyte in a clinical chemistry test?
A. Calcium
B. Protein
C. Octane
D. Cocaine
C. Octane
88
Which of the following would be a typical analyte in
a clinical chemistry test?
A. Calcium
B. E. coli positivity
C. Octane
D. Food additives
A. Calcium
89
What type of additive is in a blood collection tube
with a red cap?
A. Lithium or sodium heparin
B. Potassium EDTA
C. Thrombin
D. No additive
D. No additive
90
How should a laboratory verify the reference range
it uses for a particular test?
A. Call another laboratory
B. Use the numbers from a textbook
C. Test samples from healthy people
D. Look on a medical internet site
C. Test samples from healthy people
91
Typically, a patient test result that EXCEEDS 3 SD of
the mean value for analyte is found with a
frequency of:
A. 1 in 5
B. 1 in 20
C. 1 in 100
D. Never
C. 1 in 100
92
Potentiometric methods are most useful for which
of the following types of analytes?
A. Proteins
B. Electrolytes
C. Drugs of abuse
D. Lipids
B. Electrolytes
93
In a test for albumin, all the albumin reacts very
rapidly with an excess of the dye bromocresol
purple (BCP) to produce a colored complex. The
detector is set to measure the product complex.
What method is most suitable for this
determination of albumin? !!!!
A. Endpoint (end-up)
B. Endpoint (end-down)
C. Rate (rate-up)
D. Rate (rate-down)
A. Endpoint (end-up)
94
Transferrin reacts with a specific antibody to
produce immune complexes. What method would
be most suitable to measure the concentration of
transferrin?
A. Immunoturbidimetry
B. Fluorescence
C. Potentiometry
D. None of the above
A. Immunoturbidimetry
95
What is the best estimate of concentration of
substance J in a sample whose absorbance is 0.50?
A. Between 1 and 2 nmol/L
B. Between 2 and 3 nmol/L
C. Between 3 and 4 nmol/L
D. Greater than 4 nmol/L
B. Between 2 and 3 nmol/
96
When a serum sample has intrinsic color that
absorbs at the same wavelength used to detect the
reaction product, what technique could help
distinguish the color produced by the analyte from
the intrinsic color of the sample?
A. Blanking
B. Immunoturbidimetry
C. Ion-selective electrode
D. PETINIA
A. Blanking
97
Which of the following analyses would best be
done using a photometric rate reaction?
A. Measurement of lipase activity
B. Determination of albumin with the dye
bromocresol green
C. Determination of potassium in the presence of
excess sodium
D. None of these could be done using a rate
reaction
A. Measurement of lipase activity
98
Pretreatment is designed to do which of the
following?
A. Ensure the concentration of analyte is in the
measurable range
B. Remove substances that could be erroneously
measured as analyte
C. Adjust the wavelength of light used for analysis
D. Introduce a fluorophore
B. Remove substances that could be erroneously measured as analyte
99
Which of the following would NOT be a typical
methodology for a clinical chemistry test?
A. Immunoturbidimetry
B. Microscopy
C. EMIT®
D. ISE
B. Microscopy
100
Which of the following sets of values for repeat
analyses of a QC sample (target value of 50) reflects
the best precision?
A. 50, 51, 52
B. 50, 52, 56
C. 48, 50, 52
D. 44, 50, 53
A. 50, 51, 52
other names parasitology
other names parasitology
Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前other names parasitology
other names parasitology
70問 • 2年前PARASITOLOGY
PARASITOLOGY
Yves Laure Pimentel · 111問 · 2年前PARASITOLOGY
PARASITOLOGY
111問 • 2年前HTMLBE
HTMLBE
Yves Laure Pimentel · 64問 · 2年前HTMLBE
HTMLBE
64問 • 2年前HISTOPATHOLOGY
HISTOPATHOLOGY
Yves Laure Pimentel · 69問 · 2年前HISTOPATHOLOGY
HISTOPATHOLOGY
69問 • 2年前CC - 1 LAB. SAFETY, BASIC UNITS, AND CONVERSION FACTOR
CC - 1 LAB. SAFETY, BASIC UNITS, AND CONVERSION FACTOR
Yves Laure Pimentel · 61問 · 2年前CC - 1 LAB. SAFETY, BASIC UNITS, AND CONVERSION FACTOR
CC - 1 LAB. SAFETY, BASIC UNITS, AND CONVERSION FACTOR
61問 • 2年前CC-2 SPECTROPHOTOMETRY
CC-2 SPECTROPHOTOMETRY
Yves Laure Pimentel · 100問 · 2年前CC-2 SPECTROPHOTOMETRY
CC-2 SPECTROPHOTOMETRY
100問 • 2年前CC-3 ELECTROPHORESIS
CC-3 ELECTROPHORESIS
Yves Laure Pimentel · 41問 · 2年前CC-3 ELECTROPHORESIS
CC-3 ELECTROPHORESIS
41問 • 2年前AUBF LAB SAFETY
AUBF LAB SAFETY
Yves Laure Pimentel · 87問 · 2年前AUBF LAB SAFETY
AUBF LAB SAFETY
87問 • 2年前CSF 1
CSF 1
Yves Laure Pimentel · 100問 · 2年前CSF 1
CSF 1
100問 • 2年前CSF 2
CSF 2
Yves Laure Pimentel · 82問 · 2年前CSF 2
CSF 2
82問 • 2年前SEMEN 1
SEMEN 1
Yves Laure Pimentel · 100問 · 2年前SEMEN 1
SEMEN 1
100問 • 2年前SEMEN 2
SEMEN 2
Yves Laure Pimentel · 7問 · 2年前SEMEN 2
SEMEN 2
7問 • 2年前SYNOVIAL FLUID 1
SYNOVIAL FLUID 1
Yves Laure Pimentel · 100問 · 2年前SYNOVIAL FLUID 1
SYNOVIAL FLUID 1
100問 • 2年前SYNOVIAL FLUID 2
SYNOVIAL FLUID 2
Yves Laure Pimentel · 6問 · 2年前SYNOVIAL FLUID 2
SYNOVIAL FLUID 2
6問 • 2年前SEROUS FLUID
SEROUS FLUID
Yves Laure Pimentel · 25問 · 2年前SEROUS FLUID
SEROUS FLUID
25問 • 2年前PLEURAL FLUID
PLEURAL FLUID
Yves Laure Pimentel · 44問 · 2年前PLEURAL FLUID
PLEURAL FLUID
44問 • 2年前PERICARDIAL FLUID
PERICARDIAL FLUID
Yves Laure Pimentel · 18問 · 2年前PERICARDIAL FLUID
PERICARDIAL FLUID
18問 • 2年前PERITONEAL FLUID/ ASCITIC FLUID
PERITONEAL FLUID/ ASCITIC FLUID
Yves Laure Pimentel · 30問 · 2年前PERITONEAL FLUID/ ASCITIC FLUID
PERITONEAL FLUID/ ASCITIC FLUID
30問 • 2年前AMNIOTIC FLUID
AMNIOTIC FLUID
Yves Laure Pimentel · 92問 · 2年前AMNIOTIC FLUID
AMNIOTIC FLUID
92問 • 2年前FECALYSIS
FECALYSIS
Yves Laure Pimentel · 80問 · 2年前FECALYSIS
FECALYSIS
80問 • 2年前問題一覧
1
What is the purpose of competency assessment?
A. Identify employees in need of retraining
B. Evaluate an individual’s level of knowledge
during a job interview
C. Identify employees who need to be fired
D. All of the above
A. Identify employees in need of retraining
2
Employees are the core of an organization, and
therefore they:
A. Must be trained
B. Must report errors without fear of reprisal
C. Are a key part of p
D. All of the above
3
Early identification of problems by evaluating the
compliance with established SOP is the purpose of:
A. Internal audits
B. Accident reports
C. Root-cause analysis
D. FDA inspections
A. Internal audits
4
All of the following statements are true regarding
internal audits except that they:
A. Help identify problems early
B. Ensure continuous quality improvement efforts
C. Are used solely for the purpose of identifying
“troublemakers”
D. Are one of the many responsibilities of the QA
unit
C. Are used solely for the purpose of identifying “troublemakers
5
Ultimately the responsibility for a safety program in
the laboratory belongs to:
A. CDC
B. The employer or laboratory director
C. OSHA
D. The employee
B. The employer or laboratory director
6
All blood banks as mandated by law must have a:
A. Water fountain
B. Written laboratory safety program
C. BSC
D. Foot-operated hand wash
B. Written laboratory safety program
7
The reporting of an accident or injury should occur
when any:
A. Injury may result in a fatality
B. Injury involves possible infection with HIV or
HBV
C. Accident involves nonemployees or jeopardizes
a patient
D. Accident or injury occurs
D. Accident or injury occurs
8
One of the best ways to protect employees and
keep a safe laboratory environment is to provide
employees with:
A. Health insurance
B. Safety education
C. Rest breaks
D. Fluid-repellent laboratory coats
B. Safety education
9
Waste container for sharp materials like needles,
syringe and scalpel blades:
A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange
C. Red
10
BIODEGRADABLE WASTES like leftover food, used
cooking oil, fish entrails, scale, fins, fruits, vegetable
peelings, rotten fruits, and vegetables:
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
C. Green
11
NON-BIODEGRADABLE WASTES like paper or paper
products (newspaper, tetra packs, etc.), bottles
(glass and plastics), and packaging materials
(Styropor, candy wrapper, aluminum cans):
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
D. Black
12
Radioactive wastes or medical equipment
contaminated or exposed in radioactivity:
A. Orange
B. Red
C. Green
D. Black
A. Orange
13
Pharmaceutical and chemical wastes:
A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange
B. Yellow with black band
14
Infectious and pathological wastes such as used test
strips, used beads or plates, used reaction pads or
foils, used swabs, used gloves, used cord clamp,
used plaster, used masks:
A. Yellow
B. Yellow with black band
C. Red
D. Orange
A. Yellow
15
Government agency responsible for the regulation
and licensing of nuclear facilities and radioactive
materials:
A. DOLE
B. DOST
C. DOH
D. PNRI
D. PNRI
16
Organ Donation Act of 1991:
A. RA 1517
B. RA 4688
C. RA 7170
D. RA 9165
C. RA 7170
17
Board of Examiners for Medical Technology are
appointed by:
A. Philippine Society of Pathologists
B. Philippine Association of Medical Technologists
C. President of the Philippines
D. Vice President of the Philippines
C. President of the Philippines
18
Certificate of Registration as MT will be issued to
successful applicant who has attained the age of:
A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21
D. 21
19
Section 27 of RA 5527:
A. Qualification for Examination
B. Oath-taking
C. Foreign Reciprocity
D. Penal Provisions
C. Foreign Reciprocity
20
During the morning rush, your laboratory manager
comes into the laboratory and starts explaining a
new policy regarding vacation requests. Word
spreads of the change throughout the day, and the
message has changed somewhat. Several in the
laboratory are upset and complain to the
laboratory man- ager. Which of the following
actions is the most appropriate way to handle such
a situation?
A. Nothing should be changed, it was handled
appropriately
B. The manager should have posted the change on
the bulletin board in the break room
C. The manager should have announced the policy
on each shift
D. The manager should have discussed and
distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting,
or several laboratory meetings, so that all
employees heard the policy from the manager
D. The manager should have discussed and distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting, or several laboratory meetings, so that all employees heard the policy from the manager
21
The process of working with people and resources
to accomplish organizational goals:
A. Authority
B. Supervision
C. Management
D. Leadership
C. Management
22
What is the most important role of the manager in
charge?
A. Independent decision making
B. Communication
C. Informal discussions
D. None of the above
B. Communication
23
Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of
laboratory services:
A. Laboratory supervisor
B. Laboratory manager or chief MT
C. Laboratory director
D. Administrator
A. Laboratory supervisor
24
You are the lead chemistry MLS. Your laboratory
manager has asked you to evaluate two new
methods for cholesterol analysis. In your
evaluation, you found that method A was very
accurate and precise and that method B was not
very accurate and precise. However, the laboratory
will make more money by investing in method B.
Which of the following decisions would exhibit
professionalism?
A. Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce
the most accurate and precise results
B. Recommend method B to your laboratory
manager. It is important that the laboratory
make as much money as possible
C. State that you are unable to make a
recommendation, because no difference in the
methods was noted
D. Recommend that you need more time to
evaluate both methods
A. Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce the most accurate and precise results
25
Which of the following components should not be
included in a written procedure?
A. Test method
B. Cost per billable test
C. Quality control procedures
D. Reagents and media needs
B. Cost per billable test
26
Key attributes for good documentation, except:
A. Accurate
B. Attributable
C. Legible
D. Always computer-generated
D. Always computer-generated
27
. Considered to be an EXPRESSION OF
DISSATISFACTION, which requires a response:
A. Reaction
B. Adverse reaction
C. Complaint
D. Discrepancy
C. Complaint
28
entinel event:
A. Insufficient specimen
B. Positive blood culture
C. Wrong medication
D. Surgery on wrong patient or body part
D. Surgery on wrong patient or body part
29
Mary is an MLT working as a phlebotomist in a
private laboratory. A woman comes in with her 16-
year-old daughter who has a requisition for
follicular stimulating hormone, luteinzing hormone
(LH), estradiol and human chorionic gonadotropin
(hCG). The daughter tells Mary that she is willing to
have some of the tests on the requisition
performed but not the CG. The mother shakes her
head and reminds the daughter that the tests are
necessary for a diagnosis by the doctor. What
should Mary do?
A. Follow the request of the mother because she is
the parent and responsible for the care of her
underage child.
B. Follow the request of the daughter because she
seems capable of making decisions on her own
and there is no set age of consent.
C. In an effort to maintain consent, Mary should
contact the patient's physician.
D. Proceed with the venipuncture because the
requisition itself is consent enough.
C. In an effort to maintain consent, Mary should contact the patient's physician.
30
Which of the following is not a controlled act?
A. Communicating with patients or their
representatives about the diagnosis.
B. Setting or casting a fracture of a bone or a
dislocation of a joint.
C. Weighing a patient.
D. Prescribing a hearing aid.
C. Weighing a patient.
31
Alice, an MLT who is working in a community
laboratory, receives a phone call from a lawyer
requesting copies of his client's test results. The
lawyer says that his request is urgent as his client is
to appear in court the next day. What should Alice
do?
A. Alice should release the results to the lawyer
immediately.
B. Alice should tell the lawyer that the laboratory
can only release information to the physician
who ordered the tests and direct him to the
physician.
C. Alice should refuse to release the results.
D. Alice should ask the lawyer to submit his
request in writing and upon receipt of the
request, release the results
B. Alice should tell the lawyer that the laboratory can only release information to the physician who ordered the tests and direct him to the physician.
32
While assisting with a blood collection on a 26-yearold female patient who is unconscious, Heidi, an
MLT, overhears Roger, one of the nurses assisting
with the patient, making inappropriate sexual
remarks about the patient's body and what he
would like to do to it. What should Heidi do?
A. Heidi should report what she has witnessed to
the hospital and also file a report regarding
Roger's comments with the College of Nurses.
B. Heidi does not have to do anything, after all the
patient is unconscious and therefore not aware
of what is being said.
C. Heidi should confront Roger and tell him his
behavior is inappropriate.
D. Heidi should not do anything, everyone knows
that Roger is a playboy and nothing is ever going
to change that.
A. Heidi should report what she has witnessed to the hospital and also file a report regarding Roger's comments with the College of Nurses
33
The hospital where Mary works is planning to
install Point of Care (POC) testing for several
analytes in the emergency department; the lab will
be responsible for validating and maintaining the
instruments but the nursing staff will be doing the
testing. The general consensus in the lab is that the
nurses don't have the background required to
perform POC testing and it would be better if it was
assigned to the MLTs. Mary, a senior MLT, has been
asked to train several of the nurses on how to use
the equipment, she is reluctant because she agrees
that testing should stay in the lab. What is the next
step for Mary?
A. Ask for the opportunity to present her concerns
to upper management and to point out that the
lab staff are already trained to use the
equipment and will need little orientation
before testing can start. This would be a cost
saver for the hospital.
B. Ask for the opportunity to present her concerns
to upper management and cite improved
patient care as a reason to assign POC testing to
the laboratory.
C. Look at the training assignment as an
opportunity to collaborate with nursing staff
and to help them understand the role of the
Medical Laboratory Technologist in patient care.
D. Ask for the training to be assigned to another
MLT, someone who needs the experience more
than she does.
C. Look at the training assignment as an opportunity to collaborate with nursing staff and to help them understand the role of the Medical Laboratory Technologist in patient care.
34
The major benefit(s) of laboratory automation is
(are):
A. Reduction in medical errors.
B. Improved safety for laboratory staff.
C. Faster turnaround time.
D. All the above.
D. All the above.
35
Steps in automation designed to mimic manual
techniques include:
A. Pipetting of specimen
B. Pipetting of reagents
C. Measurement of chemical reactions
D. All the above
D. All the above
36
Health indicators, EXCEPT:
A. Life expectancy
B. Mortality
C. Incidence or prevalence
D. Injury rate
D. Injury rate
37
Which of the following is objective?
A. Pea-sized
B. Rough
C. 1 cm. length
D. All of these
C. 1 cm. length
38
How would 6.32 be rounded off to one less decimal
place?
A. 6.32
B. 6.4
C. 7.0
D. 6.3
D. 6.3
39
How would 15.57 be rounded off to one less decimal
place?
A. 15.6
B. 15.5
C. 16.0
D. 15.0
A. 15.6
40
How would 25.96 be rounded off to one less decimal
place?
A. 26.0
B. 25.9
C. 25.6
D. 26.96
A. 26.0
41
Accuracy is defined as:
A. How close results are to one another
B. How close a test result is to the true value
C. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood;
known concentration of constituent
D. Comparison of an instrument measure or
reading to known physical constant
B. How close a test result is to the true value
42
Precision is defined as:
A. How close results are to one another
B. How close a test result is to the true value
C. Comparison of an instrument measure or
reading to a known physical constant
D. Measurement of a highly purified substance of
known composition
A. How close results are to one another
43
Calibration is defined as:
A. How close results are to one another
B. How close a test result is to the true value
C. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood;
known concentration of constituent
D. Comparison of an instrument measure or
reading to a known physical constant
D. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
44
Sensitivity is:
A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that
produce a positive result
B. Cases without a specific disease or condition
that produce a negative result
C. Cases with a specific disease or condition that
produce a negative result
D. Cases without a specific disease or condition
that produce a positive result
A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result
45
The standard deviation is:
A. Equal to SD divided by the mean
B. Measure of variability
C. The same as the mean value
D. An exact measurement of an analytic value
B. Measure of variability
46
Levey-Jennings plots:
A. Show values on a chart
B. Have three warning rules
C. Have three mandatory rules
D. All the above
A. Show values on a chart
47
A procedure with minimal complexity,
instrumentation, and personnel requirements so
that the results can be quickly determined:
A. Waived test
B. Nonwaived test
C. Definitive test
D. Presumptive test
D. Presumptive test
48
Highly sensitive and specific test in which results can
be used as legal evidence:
A. Waived test
B. Non-waived test
C. Definitive test
D. Presumptive test
C. Definitive test
49
Tests that are very simple or pose no reasonable risk
of harm to the patient if the test is performed
incorrectly:
A. Waived test
B. Nonwaived test
C. Definitive test
D. Reference or gold standard
A. Waived test
50
Complex tests that require skill to perform and
interpret and are therefore regulated:
A. Waived test
B. Nonwaived test
C. Definitive test
D. Reference or gold standard
B. Nonwaived test
51
Best available approximation of a true value,
although not necessarily 100% accurate:
A. Waived test
B. Nonwaived test
C. Definitive test
D. Reference or gold standard
D. Reference or gold standard
52
A nurse calls the laboratory technologist on duty
asking about blood collection for the analysis of
enzymes (AST, ALP, ALT, GGT, CK). Which of the
following tubes would you suggest the technologist
collect?
A. Red top
B. EDTA
C. Oxalate
D. Fluoride
A. Red top
53
A blood sample is left on a phlebotomy tray for 4.5
hours before it is delivered to the laboratory. Which
group of tests could be performed?
A. Glucose, Na, K, Cl, TCO2
B. Uric acid, BUN, creatinine
C. Total and direct bilirubin
D. CK, ALT, ALP, AST
B. Uric acid, BUN, creatinine
54
Treatment by therapeutic phlebotomy:
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Hemochromatosis
D. Hyperbilirubinemia
C. Hemochromatosis
55
D. Hyperbilirubinemia
883. Formation of glucose-6-phosphate from
noncarbohydrate sources:
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Gluconeogenesis
D. Gluconeogenesis
56
IPOLYSIS: decomposition of fat
884. Before an OGTT is performed, individuals should
ingest at least ______ per day of carbohydrates for
the _____ days preceding the test.
A. 75 grams CHO per day for 2 days
B. 100 grams CHO per day for 2 days
C. 100 grams CHO per day for 3 days
D. 150 grams CHO per day for 3 days
D. 150 grams CHO per day for 3 days
57
When preparing a patient for an oral glucose
tolerance test (OGTT), which of the following
conditions will lead to erroneous results?
A. The patient remains ambulatory for 3 days prior
to the test
B. Carbohydrate intake is restricted to below 150
g/day for 3 days prior to test
C. No food, coffee, tea, or smoking is allowed 8
hours before and during the test
D. Administration of 75 g of glucose is given to an
adult patient following a 10–12-hour fast
B. Carbohydrate intake is restricted to below 150 g/day for 3 days prior to test
58
According to the National Cholesterol Education
Program, which lipid or lipoprotein class is more
important for therapeutic decision making (diet and
medication decisions)?
A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Cholesterol
B. LDL
59
Which enzyme deficiency is most commonly
associated with familial hypertriglyceridemia
associated with fasting plasma chylomicrons
(formerly type I hyperlipoproteinemia)?
A. β Glucocerebrosidase deficiency
B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase
deficiency
C. Apo-B deficiency
D. Apo-C-III deficiency
B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase deficiency
60
Most useful index for assessing severity of liver
disease:
A. Albumin
B. Total protein
C. Urea
D. Creatinine
A. Albumin
61
Important role in maintaining colloidal oncotic
pressure and preventing edema:
A. Albumin
B. Prealbumin
C. Transferrin
D. Fibrinogen
A. Albumin
62
Nutritional assessment with poor protein-caloric
status is associated with:
A. A decreased level of prealbumin
B. A low level of γ-globulins
C. An elevated ceruloplasmin concentration
D. An increased level of α1-fetoprotein
A. A decreased level of prealbumin
63
All of the following migrate with the alpha2
globulins, EXCEPT:
A. Alpha2-macroglobulin
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. Haptoglobin
D. Transferrin
D. Transferrin
64
The largest major nonimmunoglobulin protein in
plasma:
A. Alpha1-antitrypsin
B. Alpha1-acid glycoprotein
C. Alpha2-macroglobulin
D. Transferrin
C. Alpha2-macroglobulin
65
Diffuse but LARGE elevation of gamma-globulins:
A. Chronic liver disease
B. Chronic inflammatory disease
C. Hypoalbuminemia
D. Nephrotic syndrome
A. Chronic liver disease
66
Diffuse but SMALL elevation of gamma-globulins:
A. Chronic liver disease
B. Chronic inflammatory disease
C. Hypoalbuminemia
D. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Chronic inflammatory disease
67
All of the following are true for nephrotic
syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. Striking proteinuria
B. Decreased in serum albumin and total protein
C. Increased creatinine, BUN and uric acid
D. None of these
D. None of these
68
True for glomerulonephritis:
A. Elevated urine protein
B. Increased serum creatinine and BUN
C. RBCs and casts in urine
D. All of these
D. All of these
69
To assure ammonia level result, the specimen
should be:
A. Incubated at 37 o
C prior to testing
B. Spun and separated immediately, tested as
routine
C. Spun, separated, iced and tested immediately
D. Stored at room temperature until tested
C. Spun, separated, iced and tested immediately
70
Which test is the most sensitive in detecting early
monoclonal gammopathies?
A. High-resolution serum protein electrophoresis
B. Urinary electrophoresis for monoclonal light
chains
C. Capillary electrophoresis of serum and urine
D. Serum-free light chain immunoassay
D. Serum-free light chain immunoassay
71
Which test is the most useful way to evaluate the
response to treatment for multiple myeloma?
A. Measure of total immunoglobulin
B. Measurement of 24-hour urinary light chain
concentration (Bence–Jones protein)
C. Capillary electrophoresis of M-protein
recurrence
D. Measurement of serum-free light chai
D. Measurement of serum-free light chain
72
Which of the following is a characteristic of
conjugated bilirubin?
A. It is water soluble
B. It reacts more slowly than unconjugated
bilirubin
C. It is more stable than unconjugated bilirubin
D. It has the same absorbance properties as
unconjugated bilirubin
A. It is water soluble
73
Gilbert’s syndrome:
A. Bilirubin transport deficit
B. Conjugation deficit
C. Excretory deficit
D. None of these
A. Bilirubin transport deficit
74
Crigler-Najjar syndrome:
A. Bilirubin transport deficit
B. Conjugation deficit
C. Excretory deficit
D. None of these
B. Conjugation deficit
75
Overall capacity to transport bile:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum bile acids
D. Urine urobilinogen
A. Serum bilirubin level
76
Abnormality of bile duct epithelium:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes
D. Serum aminotransferase levels
C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes
77
Capacity to conjugate bilirubin; quantity of
hemoglobin turnover:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum bile acids
D. Urine urobilinogen
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
78
Hepatocellular damage and necrosis:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes
D. Serum aminotransferase levels
D. Serum aminotransferase levels
79
Abnormality of bile duct epithelium:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes
D. Serum aminotransferase levels
C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes
80
For carbon dioxide determination, ACIDIFYING the
sample:
A. Converts the various forms of CO2 in plasma to
gaseous CO2 by dilution with an acid buffer
B. Prevents conversion of the various forms of CO2 in
plasma to gaseous CO2 by dilution with an acid
buffer
C. Converts all CO2 and carbonic acid to HCO3−
D. Prevents conversion of all CO2 and carbonic acid to
HCO3−
A. Converts the various forms of CO2 in plasma to gaseous CO2 by dilution with an acid buffer
81
What is the anticoagulant of choice for blood gas
analysis?
A. EDTA
B. Heparin
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Citrate
B. Heparin
82
Which of the following tissues does not secrete
steroid hormones?
A. Ovaries
B. Pituitary gland
C. Testes
D. Adrenal cortex
B. Pituitary gland
83
Which of the following is the most potent
androgen?
A. Androstenedione
B. Dehydroepiandrosterone
C. Androsterone
D. Testosterone
D. Testosterone
84
Hormone that regulates synthesis and release of the
thyroid hormones is produced in:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary gland
C. Posterior pituitary gland
D. Thyroid
B. Anterior pituitary gland
85
Which assay using 24-hour urine is considered the
best single screening test for pheochromocytoma?
A. Total urinary catecholamines
B. VMA
C. Homovanillic acid (HVA)
D. Metanephrines
D. Metanephrines
86
Urinary HVA is most often assayed to detect:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Adrenal medullary carcinoma
D. Psychiatric disorders such as manic depression
B. Neuroblastoma
87
Which of the following would not be a typical
analyte in a clinical chemistry test?
A. Calcium
B. Protein
C. Octane
D. Cocaine
C. Octane
88
Which of the following would be a typical analyte in
a clinical chemistry test?
A. Calcium
B. E. coli positivity
C. Octane
D. Food additives
A. Calcium
89
What type of additive is in a blood collection tube
with a red cap?
A. Lithium or sodium heparin
B. Potassium EDTA
C. Thrombin
D. No additive
D. No additive
90
How should a laboratory verify the reference range
it uses for a particular test?
A. Call another laboratory
B. Use the numbers from a textbook
C. Test samples from healthy people
D. Look on a medical internet site
C. Test samples from healthy people
91
Typically, a patient test result that EXCEEDS 3 SD of
the mean value for analyte is found with a
frequency of:
A. 1 in 5
B. 1 in 20
C. 1 in 100
D. Never
C. 1 in 100
92
Potentiometric methods are most useful for which
of the following types of analytes?
A. Proteins
B. Electrolytes
C. Drugs of abuse
D. Lipids
B. Electrolytes
93
In a test for albumin, all the albumin reacts very
rapidly with an excess of the dye bromocresol
purple (BCP) to produce a colored complex. The
detector is set to measure the product complex.
What method is most suitable for this
determination of albumin? !!!!
A. Endpoint (end-up)
B. Endpoint (end-down)
C. Rate (rate-up)
D. Rate (rate-down)
A. Endpoint (end-up)
94
Transferrin reacts with a specific antibody to
produce immune complexes. What method would
be most suitable to measure the concentration of
transferrin?
A. Immunoturbidimetry
B. Fluorescence
C. Potentiometry
D. None of the above
A. Immunoturbidimetry
95
What is the best estimate of concentration of
substance J in a sample whose absorbance is 0.50?
A. Between 1 and 2 nmol/L
B. Between 2 and 3 nmol/L
C. Between 3 and 4 nmol/L
D. Greater than 4 nmol/L
B. Between 2 and 3 nmol/
96
When a serum sample has intrinsic color that
absorbs at the same wavelength used to detect the
reaction product, what technique could help
distinguish the color produced by the analyte from
the intrinsic color of the sample?
A. Blanking
B. Immunoturbidimetry
C. Ion-selective electrode
D. PETINIA
A. Blanking
97
Which of the following analyses would best be
done using a photometric rate reaction?
A. Measurement of lipase activity
B. Determination of albumin with the dye
bromocresol green
C. Determination of potassium in the presence of
excess sodium
D. None of these could be done using a rate
reaction
A. Measurement of lipase activity
98
Pretreatment is designed to do which of the
following?
A. Ensure the concentration of analyte is in the
measurable range
B. Remove substances that could be erroneously
measured as analyte
C. Adjust the wavelength of light used for analysis
D. Introduce a fluorophore
B. Remove substances that could be erroneously measured as analyte
99
Which of the following would NOT be a typical
methodology for a clinical chemistry test?
A. Immunoturbidimetry
B. Microscopy
C. EMIT®
D. ISE
B. Microscopy
100
Which of the following sets of values for repeat
analyses of a QC sample (target value of 50) reflects
the best precision?
A. 50, 51, 52
B. 50, 52, 56
C. 48, 50, 52
D. 44, 50, 53
A. 50, 51, 52