What is the purpose of competency assessment? A. Identify employees in need of retraining B. Evaluate an individual’s level of knowledge during a job interview C. Identify employees who need to be fired D. All of the above

Employees are the core of an organization, and therefore they: A. Must be trained B. Must report errors without fear of reprisal C. Are a key part of p

Early identification of problems by evaluating the compliance with established SOP is the purpose of: A. Internal audits B. Accident reports C. Root-cause analysis D. FDA inspections

All of the following statements are true regarding internal audits except that they: A. Help identify problems early B. Ensure continuous quality improvement efforts C. Are used solely for the purpose of identifying “troublemakers” D. Are one of the many responsibilities of the QA unit

Ultimately the responsibility for a safety program in the laboratory belongs to: A. CDC B. The employer or laboratory director C. OSHA D. The employee

All blood banks as mandated by law must have a: A. Water fountain B. Written laboratory safety program C. BSC D. Foot-operated hand wash

The reporting of an accident or injury should occur when any: A. Injury may result in a fatality B. Injury involves possible infection with HIV or HBV C. Accident involves nonemployees or jeopardizes a patient D. Accident or injury occurs

One of the best ways to protect employees and keep a safe laboratory environment is to provide employees with: A. Health insurance B. Safety education C. Rest breaks D. Fluid-repellent laboratory coats

Waste container for sharp materials like needles, syringe and scalpel blades: A. Yellow B. Yellow with black band C. Red D. Orange

BIODEGRADABLE WASTES like leftover food, used cooking oil, fish entrails, scale, fins, fruits, vegetable peelings, rotten fruits, and vegetables: A. Orange B. Red C. Green D. Black

NON-BIODEGRADABLE WASTES like paper or paper products (newspaper, tetra packs, etc.), bottles (glass and plastics), and packaging materials (Styropor, candy wrapper, aluminum cans): A. Orange B. Red C. Green D. Black

Radioactive wastes or medical equipment contaminated or exposed in radioactivity: A. Orange B. Red C. Green D. Black

Pharmaceutical and chemical wastes: A. Yellow B. Yellow with black band C. Red D. Orange

Infectious and pathological wastes such as used test strips, used beads or plates, used reaction pads or foils, used swabs, used gloves, used cord clamp, used plaster, used masks: A. Yellow B. Yellow with black band C. Red D. Orange

Government agency responsible for the regulation and licensing of nuclear facilities and radioactive materials: A. DOLE B. DOST C. DOH D. PNRI

Organ Donation Act of 1991: A. RA 1517 B. RA 4688 C. RA 7170 D. RA 9165

Board of Examiners for Medical Technology are appointed by: A. Philippine Society of Pathologists B. Philippine Association of Medical Technologists C. President of the Philippines D. Vice President of the Philippines

Certificate of Registration as MT will be issued to successful applicant who has attained the age of: A. 18 B. 19 C. 20 D. 21

Section 27 of RA 5527: A. Qualification for Examination B. Oath-taking C. Foreign Reciprocity D. Penal Provisions

During the morning rush, your laboratory manager comes into the laboratory and starts explaining a new policy regarding vacation requests. Word spreads of the change throughout the day, and the message has changed somewhat. Several in the laboratory are upset and complain to the laboratory man- ager. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate way to handle such a situation? A. Nothing should be changed, it was handled appropriately B. The manager should have posted the change on the bulletin board in the break room C. The manager should have announced the policy on each shift D. The manager should have discussed and distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting, or several laboratory meetings, so that all employees heard the policy from the manager

The process of working with people and resources to accomplish organizational goals: A. Authority B. Supervision C. Management D. Leadership

What is the most important role of the manager in charge? A. Independent decision making B. Communication C. Informal discussions D. None of the above

Focus on PEOPLE and OPERATIONAL DELIVERY of laboratory services: A. Laboratory supervisor B. Laboratory manager or chief MT C. Laboratory director D. Administrator

You are the lead chemistry MLS. Your laboratory manager has asked you to evaluate two new methods for cholesterol analysis. In your evaluation, you found that method A was very accurate and precise and that method B was not very accurate and precise. However, the laboratory will make more money by investing in method B. Which of the following decisions would exhibit professionalism? A. Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce the most accurate and precise results B. Recommend method B to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory make as much money as possible C. State that you are unable to make a recommendation, because no difference in the methods was noted D. Recommend that you need more time to evaluate both methods

Which of the following components should not be included in a written procedure? A. Test method B. Cost per billable test C. Quality control procedures D. Reagents and media needs

Key attributes for good documentation, except: A. Accurate B. Attributable C. Legible D. Always computer-generated

. Considered to be an EXPRESSION OF DISSATISFACTION, which requires a response: A. Reaction B. Adverse reaction C. Complaint D. Discrepancy

entinel event: A. Insufficient specimen B. Positive blood culture C. Wrong medication D. Surgery on wrong patient or body part

Mary is an MLT working as a phlebotomist in a private laboratory. A woman comes in with her 16- year-old daughter who has a requisition for follicular stimulating hormone, luteinzing hormone (LH), estradiol and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). The daughter tells Mary that she is willing to have some of the tests on the requisition performed but not the CG. The mother shakes her head and reminds the daughter that the tests are necessary for a diagnosis by the doctor. What should Mary do? A. Follow the request of the mother because she is the parent and responsible for the care of her underage child. B. Follow the request of the daughter because she seems capable of making decisions on her own and there is no set age of consent. C. In an effort to maintain consent, Mary should contact the patient's physician. D. Proceed with the venipuncture because the requisition itself is consent enough.

Which of the following is not a controlled act? A. Communicating with patients or their representatives about the diagnosis. B. Setting or casting a fracture of a bone or a dislocation of a joint. C. Weighing a patient. D. Prescribing a hearing aid.

Alice, an MLT who is working in a community laboratory, receives a phone call from a lawyer requesting copies of his client's test results. The lawyer says that his request is urgent as his client is to appear in court the next day. What should Alice do? A. Alice should release the results to the lawyer immediately. B. Alice should tell the lawyer that the laboratory can only release information to the physician who ordered the tests and direct him to the physician. C. Alice should refuse to release the results. D. Alice should ask the lawyer to submit his request in writing and upon receipt of the request, release the results

While assisting with a blood collection on a 26-yearold female patient who is unconscious, Heidi, an MLT, overhears Roger, one of the nurses assisting with the patient, making inappropriate sexual remarks about the patient's body and what he would like to do to it. What should Heidi do? A. Heidi should report what she has witnessed to the hospital and also file a report regarding Roger's comments with the College of Nurses. B. Heidi does not have to do anything, after all the patient is unconscious and therefore not aware of what is being said. C. Heidi should confront Roger and tell him his behavior is inappropriate. D. Heidi should not do anything, everyone knows that Roger is a playboy and nothing is ever going to change that.

The hospital where Mary works is planning to install Point of Care (POC) testing for several analytes in the emergency department; the lab will be responsible for validating and maintaining the instruments but the nursing staff will be doing the testing. The general consensus in the lab is that the nurses don't have the background required to perform POC testing and it would be better if it was assigned to the MLTs. Mary, a senior MLT, has been asked to train several of the nurses on how to use the equipment, she is reluctant because she agrees that testing should stay in the lab. What is the next step for Mary? A. Ask for the opportunity to present her concerns to upper management and to point out that the lab staff are already trained to use the equipment and will need little orientation before testing can start. This would be a cost saver for the hospital. B. Ask for the opportunity to present her concerns to upper management and cite improved patient care as a reason to assign POC testing to the laboratory. C. Look at the training assignment as an opportunity to collaborate with nursing staff and to help them understand the role of the Medical Laboratory Technologist in patient care. D. Ask for the training to be assigned to another MLT, someone who needs the experience more than she does.

The major benefit(s) of laboratory automation is (are): A. Reduction in medical errors. B. Improved safety for laboratory staff. C. Faster turnaround time. D. All the above.

Steps in automation designed to mimic manual techniques include: A. Pipetting of specimen B. Pipetting of reagents C. Measurement of chemical reactions D. All the above

Health indicators, EXCEPT: A. Life expectancy B. Mortality C. Incidence or prevalence D. Injury rate

Which of the following is objective? A. Pea-sized B. Rough C. 1 cm. length D. All of these

How would 6.32 be rounded off to one less decimal place? A. 6.32 B. 6.4 C. 7.0 D. 6.3

How would 15.57 be rounded off to one less decimal place? A. 15.6 B. 15.5 C. 16.0 D. 15.0

How would 25.96 be rounded off to one less decimal place? A. 26.0 B. 25.9 C. 25.6 D. 26.96

Accuracy is defined as: A. How close results are to one another B. How close a test result is to the true value C. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent D. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to known physical constant

Precision is defined as: A. How close results are to one another B. How close a test result is to the true value C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant D. Measurement of a highly purified substance of known composition

Calibration is defined as: A. How close results are to one another B. How close a test result is to the true value C. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent D. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant

Sensitivity is: A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result B. Cases without a specific disease or condition that produce a negative result C. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a negative result D. Cases without a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result

The standard deviation is: A. Equal to SD divided by the mean B. Measure of variability C. The same as the mean value D. An exact measurement of an analytic value

Levey-Jennings plots: A. Show values on a chart B. Have three warning rules C. Have three mandatory rules D. All the above

A procedure with minimal complexity, instrumentation, and personnel requirements so that the results can be quickly determined: A. Waived test B. Nonwaived test C. Definitive test D. Presumptive test

Highly sensitive and specific test in which results can be used as legal evidence: A. Waived test B. Non-waived test C. Definitive test D. Presumptive test

Tests that are very simple or pose no reasonable risk of harm to the patient if the test is performed incorrectly: A. Waived test B. Nonwaived test C. Definitive test D. Reference or gold standard

Complex tests that require skill to perform and interpret and are therefore regulated: A. Waived test B. Nonwaived test C. Definitive test D. Reference or gold standard

Best available approximation of a true value, although not necessarily 100% accurate: A. Waived test B. Nonwaived test C. Definitive test D. Reference or gold standard

A nurse calls the laboratory technologist on duty asking about blood collection for the analysis of enzymes (AST, ALP, ALT, GGT, CK). Which of the following tubes would you suggest the technologist collect? A. Red top B. EDTA C. Oxalate D. Fluoride

A blood sample is left on a phlebotomy tray for 4.5 hours before it is delivered to the laboratory. Which group of tests could be performed? A. Glucose, Na, K, Cl, TCO2 B. Uric acid, BUN, creatinine C. Total and direct bilirubin D. CK, ALT, ALP, AST

Treatment by therapeutic phlebotomy: A. Aplastic anemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Hemochromatosis D. Hyperbilirubinemia

D. Hyperbilirubinemia 883. Formation of glucose-6-phosphate from noncarbohydrate sources: A. Glycolysis B. Glycogenolysis C. Glycogenesis D. Gluconeogenesis

IPOLYSIS: decomposition of fat 884. Before an OGTT is performed, individuals should ingest at least ______ per day of carbohydrates for the _____ days preceding the test. A. 75 grams CHO per day for 2 days B. 100 grams CHO per day for 2 days C. 100 grams CHO per day for 3 days D. 150 grams CHO per day for 3 days

When preparing a patient for an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which of the following conditions will lead to erroneous results? A. The patient remains ambulatory for 3 days prior to the test B. Carbohydrate intake is restricted to below 150 g/day for 3 days prior to test C. No food, coffee, tea, or smoking is allowed 8 hours before and during the test D. Administration of 75 g of glucose is given to an adult patient following a 10–12-hour fast

According to the National Cholesterol Education Program, which lipid or lipoprotein class is more important for therapeutic decision making (diet and medication decisions)? A. Chylomicrons B. LDL C. HDL D. Cholesterol

Which enzyme deficiency is most commonly associated with familial hypertriglyceridemia associated with fasting plasma chylomicrons (formerly type I hyperlipoproteinemia)? A. β Glucocerebrosidase deficiency B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase deficiency C. Apo-B deficiency D. Apo-C-III deficiency

Most useful index for assessing severity of liver disease: A. Albumin B. Total protein C. Urea D. Creatinine

Important role in maintaining colloidal oncotic pressure and preventing edema: A. Albumin B. Prealbumin C. Transferrin D. Fibrinogen

Nutritional assessment with poor protein-caloric status is associated with: A. A decreased level of prealbumin B. A low level of γ-globulins C. An elevated ceruloplasmin concentration D. An increased level of α1-fetoprotein

All of the following migrate with the alpha2 globulins, EXCEPT: A. Alpha2-macroglobulin B. Ceruloplasmin C. Haptoglobin D. Transferrin

The largest major nonimmunoglobulin protein in plasma: A. Alpha1-antitrypsin B. Alpha1-acid glycoprotein C. Alpha2-macroglobulin D. Transferrin

Diffuse but LARGE elevation of gamma-globulins: A. Chronic liver disease B. Chronic inflammatory disease C. Hypoalbuminemia D. Nephrotic syndrome

Diffuse but SMALL elevation of gamma-globulins: A. Chronic liver disease B. Chronic inflammatory disease C. Hypoalbuminemia D. Nephrotic syndrome

All of the following are true for nephrotic syndrome, EXCEPT: A. Striking proteinuria B. Decreased in serum albumin and total protein C. Increased creatinine, BUN and uric acid D. None of these

True for glomerulonephritis: A. Elevated urine protein B. Increased serum creatinine and BUN C. RBCs and casts in urine D. All of these

To assure ammonia level result, the specimen should be: A. Incubated at 37 o C prior to testing B. Spun and separated immediately, tested as routine C. Spun, separated, iced and tested immediately D. Stored at room temperature until tested

Which test is the most sensitive in detecting early monoclonal gammopathies? A. High-resolution serum protein electrophoresis B. Urinary electrophoresis for monoclonal light chains C. Capillary electrophoresis of serum and urine D. Serum-free light chain immunoassay

Which test is the most useful way to evaluate the response to treatment for multiple myeloma? A. Measure of total immunoglobulin B. Measurement of 24-hour urinary light chain concentration (Bence–Jones protein) C. Capillary electrophoresis of M-protein recurrence D. Measurement of serum-free light chai

Which of the following is a characteristic of conjugated bilirubin? A. It is water soluble B. It reacts more slowly than unconjugated bilirubin C. It is more stable than unconjugated bilirubin D. It has the same absorbance properties as unconjugated bilirubin

Gilbert’s syndrome: A. Bilirubin transport deficit B. Conjugation deficit C. Excretory deficit D. None of these

Crigler-Najjar syndrome: A. Bilirubin transport deficit B. Conjugation deficit C. Excretory deficit D. None of these

Overall capacity to transport bile: A. Serum bilirubin level B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin C. Serum bile acids D. Urine urobilinogen

Abnormality of bile duct epithelium: A. Serum bilirubin level B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes D. Serum aminotransferase levels

Capacity to conjugate bilirubin; quantity of hemoglobin turnover: A. Serum bilirubin level B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin C. Serum bile acids D. Urine urobilinogen

Hepatocellular damage and necrosis: A. Serum bilirubin level B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes D. Serum aminotransferase levels

Abnormality of bile duct epithelium: A. Serum bilirubin level B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin C. Serum ALP and other “obstructive” enzymes D. Serum aminotransferase levels

For carbon dioxide determination, ACIDIFYING the sample: A. Converts the various forms of CO2 in plasma to gaseous CO2 by dilution with an acid buffer B. Prevents conversion of the various forms of CO2 in plasma to gaseous CO2 by dilution with an acid buffer C. Converts all CO2 and carbonic acid to HCO3− D. Prevents conversion of all CO2 and carbonic acid to HCO3−

What is the anticoagulant of choice for blood gas analysis? A. EDTA B. Heparin C. Sodium fluoride D. Citrate

Which of the following tissues does not secrete steroid hormones? A. Ovaries B. Pituitary gland C. Testes D. Adrenal cortex

Which of the following is the most potent androgen? A. Androstenedione B. Dehydroepiandrosterone C. Androsterone D. Testosterone

Hormone that regulates synthesis and release of the thyroid hormones is produced in: A. Hypothalamus B. Anterior pituitary gland C. Posterior pituitary gland D. Thyroid

Which assay using 24-hour urine is considered the best single screening test for pheochromocytoma? A. Total urinary catecholamines B. VMA C. Homovanillic acid (HVA) D. Metanephrines

Urinary HVA is most often assayed to detect: A. Pheochromocytoma B. Neuroblastoma C. Adrenal medullary carcinoma D. Psychiatric disorders such as manic depression

Which of the following would not be a typical analyte in a clinical chemistry test? A. Calcium B. Protein C. Octane D. Cocaine

Which of the following would be a typical analyte in a clinical chemistry test? A. Calcium B. E. coli positivity C. Octane D. Food additives

What type of additive is in a blood collection tube with a red cap? A. Lithium or sodium heparin B. Potassium EDTA C. Thrombin D. No additive

How should a laboratory verify the reference range it uses for a particular test? A. Call another laboratory B. Use the numbers from a textbook C. Test samples from healthy people D. Look on a medical internet site

Typically, a patient test result that EXCEEDS 3 SD of the mean value for analyte is found with a frequency of: A. 1 in 5 B. 1 in 20 C. 1 in 100 D. Never

Potentiometric methods are most useful for which of the following types of analytes? A. Proteins B. Electrolytes C. Drugs of abuse D. Lipids

In a test for albumin, all the albumin reacts very rapidly with an excess of the dye bromocresol purple (BCP) to produce a colored complex. The detector is set to measure the product complex. What method is most suitable for this determination of albumin? !!!! A. Endpoint (end-up) B. Endpoint (end-down) C. Rate (rate-up) D. Rate (rate-down)

Transferrin reacts with a specific antibody to produce immune complexes. What method would be most suitable to measure the concentration of transferrin? A. Immunoturbidimetry B. Fluorescence C. Potentiometry D. None of the above

What is the best estimate of concentration of substance J in a sample whose absorbance is 0.50? A. Between 1 and 2 nmol/L B. Between 2 and 3 nmol/L C. Between 3 and 4 nmol/L D. Greater than 4 nmol/L

When a serum sample has intrinsic color that absorbs at the same wavelength used to detect the reaction product, what technique could help distinguish the color produced by the analyte from the intrinsic color of the sample? A. Blanking B. Immunoturbidimetry C. Ion-selective electrode D. PETINIA

Which of the following analyses would best be done using a photometric rate reaction? A. Measurement of lipase activity B. Determination of albumin with the dye bromocresol green C. Determination of potassium in the presence of excess sodium D. None of these could be done using a rate reaction

Pretreatment is designed to do which of the following? A. Ensure the concentration of analyte is in the measurable range B. Remove substances that could be erroneously measured as analyte C. Adjust the wavelength of light used for analysis D. Introduce a fluorophore

Which of the following would NOT be a typical methodology for a clinical chemistry test? A. Immunoturbidimetry B. Microscopy C. EMIT® D. ISE

Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a QC sample (target value of 50) reflects the best precision? A. 50, 51, 52 B. 50, 52, 56 C. 48, 50, 52 D. 44, 50, 53