問題一覧
1
Cells in which phase of the cell cycle are least likely to respond to radiation therapy?
S
2
Trimethoprim inhibits what enzyme?
Dihydrofolate reductase
3
A patient undergoes an FdG-PET scan. Will a tumor contain more or less 18fluorodeoxyglucose than normal the surrounding tissue?
More
4
Gram positive bacteria lack which structure when compared to Gram negative bacteria?
Outer membrane
5
What is the basis for the selectivity of Gleevec towards cancer cells?
Cancer cells contain the Philadelphia chromosome
6
A patient suffering from the early stages of renal failure would be least likely to be prescribed which immunosuppressant?
Cyclosporine
7
When treating a tumor with radiotherapy, what part of the tumor generally responds best to treatment? Hint: The outside of a tumor is generally more vascularized. This may not have been clear from the lecture.
Outside
8
Based on their toxicity profiles, what drug is likely to be excluded from use to treat lung cancer?
Bleomycin
9
Angiogenesis is __________________.
the process of creating new blood vessels from current blood vessels
10
Does paclitaxel increase or decrease the amount of microtubules in cells?
Increase
11
A patient has an infection caused by anaerobic Gram negative bacteria. Which antibacterial would be the worst choice to treat this infection?
Ciprofloxacin
12
Production of monoclonal antibodies involves the isolation of cells from which location?
Spleen
13
Which bacterial mechanism of resistance is shared by both sulfonamides and trimethoprim?
Altered drug target
14
Are cancers more likely to develop mutation that activate or inactivate Rb?
Inactivate
15
Which cells will CTL019 kill? Select all that apply
Cancer cells expressing CD19, Normal cells expressing CD19
16
β-Lactams inhibit the proper formation of which part of the bacterial cell wall?
Peptidoglycan
17
Muromonab is what type of antibody?
Mouse
18
Which class of cancer drugs is the least selective towards cancer cells?
Chemotherapy
19
Some cancer chemotherapeutics act as immunosupressants most directly through the inhibition of what mechanism?
Preventing T cell proliferation
20
If a patient is being treated with Osimertinib, what were they likely treated with previously?
Erlotinib
21
Which type of immune cells induce ADCC in cells treated with Cetuximab?
Natural killer cells
22
An activated T cell induces T cell proliferation through the production of what signaling molecule?
IL2
23
Which drug should not be given orally for a systemic infection?
Vancomycin
24
Do x-rays have shorter or longer wavelengths than visible light?
Shorter
25
Methotrexate targets cells in which phase(s) of the cell cycle?
S
26
Enzalutamide blocks the signaling caused by which hormone?
Testosterone
27
Genetic changes are required for which of the following to occur? Select all that apply.
Initiation/Transformation of a cell , Formation of a malignant tumor from a pre-neoplastic lesion, Formation of clinical cancer from a malignant tumor , Metastasis of a clinical cancer
28
A dose of Bactrim contains trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole in a 1:5 ratio. Once in the blood, this is a 1:20 ratio. Which drug has the greater bioavailability?
Sulfamethoxazole
29
Which drug is given intramuscularly?
Fulvestrant
30
In order to induce an allergic reaction, penicillin must first covalently bind to ____.
Protein
31
Corticosteroids act as immunosupressants most directly through the inhibition of what mechanism?
Preventing cytokine production
32
A tumor contains 109 cells. After a dose of chemotherapy, there are 750,000 cells remaining. When the second chemotherapy dose is given, the tumor has grown to 800,000 cells. How many cells do you expect to remain after the next dose of chemotherapy?
600
33
In which type of patient would sulfamethoxazole not be appropriate for treating a bacterial infection?
Cancer chemotherapy
34
Cytosine arabinoside directly prevents the formation of ______.
DNA
35
Is chemotherapy generally more effective when tumors are small or large?
Small
36
Which statement best describes the Warburg effect?
The switching of cancer cells from oxidative phosphorylation to aerobic glycolysis
37
Does drug resistance increase or decrease the therapeutic index of cancer drugs?
Decrease
38
A breast cancer patient with a tumor with which characterization would be most likely to respond to Tamoxifen?
ER+ PR- HER2-
39
What type of immune cell begins the sequence of events that leads to organ transplant rejection?
Antigen presenting cells
40
Sulfonamides can alter concentrations of other drugs in the body. In general, taking sulfonamides would be expected to ______ the plasma concentrations of these other drugs.
increase
41
Which class of antibacterials is bactericidal?
Fluoroquinolones
42
A patient undergoes outpatient surgery and is given a standard course of antibiotics but ends up back in the hospital a couple of days later with a severe Clostridium difficile infection. This is an example of which toxicity/complication?
Superinfection
43
Infliximab binds what protein?
TNF-α
44
What is the most direct target of 5-FU?
Thymidylate synthetase
45
Which of the following statements is true regarding apoptosis.
Cancer cells must avoid it.
46
What is the shared target of cyclophosphamide and cisplatin?
DNA
47
Which drug significantly increases the risk of DVTs?
Raloxifene
48
Sulfanilomide inhibits what enzyme?
Dihydropteroate synthase
49
Which statement best summarizes the treatment ramifications of the Goldie-Coldman hypothesis?
Cancers must be treated with more than one drug
50
Which β –lactam drug is active against cell wall synthesis in β-lactamase expressing bacteria?
Dicloxacillin
51
The Epstein-Barr virus, most famous for causing mononucleosis, also plays a prevalent role in the formation of what type of cancer?
Burkitt’s lymphoma
52
What is the target of pembrolizumab?
PD-1 on T-cells
53
Which statement best describes how cancer cells overcome the Hayflick limit?
They upregulate telomerase
54
An inhibitor of what enzyme would be expected to increase the sensitivity of cancer cells to vincristine?
MDR
55
Which drug may be used as a noncompetitive inhibitor of β-lactamase?
Clavulanate
56
If a cell expresses a mutant form of EGFR, would this be considered a tumor specific antigen or a tumor associated antigen?
Tumor specific antigen
57
Pieces of Iodine-125 are sometimes placed in the prostate to treat prostate cancer. This type of treatment is called.
Brachytherapy
58
What viral protein is capable of inhibiting p53?
E6
59
What effect would a G12V mutation in Ras have on ERK?
It would lead to increased activation of ERK.
60
What chemical causes the most cigarette-related DNA mutations?
Benzo[a]pyrene
61
Which class of drugs could potentially increase estrogen signaling?
SERMs
62
What is the process called when two EGFR proteins bind to each other?
Dimerization
63
What is the endogenous ligand for HER2?
It has no known ligand.
64
Metabolites of nicotine commonly result in DNA point mutations. Which type of DNA instability is this an example of?
Genetic instability
65
What type of immune cells produce antibodies?
B cells
66
Is inflammation harmful or beneficial to cancer?
Beneficial
67
If a human cell underwent endoreduplication followed by failed cytokinesis, how many chromosomes would you expect that cell to now contain?
184
68
In what location does Cetuximab bind EGFR?
Extracellularly
69
Most DNA damage caused during x-ray radiation therapy is ______.
Indirect
70
Which birth scenario will require pharmacological intervention?
Rh(D) negative mother carrying a Rh(D) positive baby after birthing a Rh(D) positive baby