問題一覧
1
Genetic changes are required for which of the following to occur? Select all that apply.
Initiation/Transformation of a cell , Formation of a malignant tumor from a pre-neoplastic lesion, Formation of clinical cancer from a malignant tumor , Metastasis of a clinical cancer
2
What effect would a G12V mutation in Ras have on ERK?
It would lead to increased activation of ERK.
3
Are cancers more likely to develop mutation that activate or inactivate Rb?
Inactivate
4
Metabolites of nicotine commonly result in DNA point mutations. Which type of DNA instability is this an example of?
Genetic instability
5
If a human cell underwent endoreduplication followed by failed cytokinesis, how many chromosomes would you expect that cell to now contain?
184
6
Which of the following statements is true regarding apoptosis.
Cancer cells must avoid it.
7
Which statement best describes the Warburg effect?
The switching of cancer cells from oxidative phosphorylation to aerobic glycolysis
8
A patient undergoes an FdG-PET scan. Will a tumor contain more or less 18fluorodeoxyglucose than normal the surrounding tissue?
More
9
Angiogenesis is __________________.
the process of creating new blood vessels from current blood vessels
10
Is inflammation harmful or beneficial to cancer?
Beneficial
11
If a cell expresses a mutant form of EGFR, would this be considered a tumor specific antigen or a tumor associated antigen?
Tumor specific antigen
12
Which statement best describes how cancer cells overcome the Hayflick limit?
They upregulate telomerase
13
What chemical causes the most cigarette-related DNA mutations?
Benzo[a]pyrene
14
The Epstein-Barr virus, most famous for causing mononucleosis, also plays a prevalent role in the formation of what type of cancer?
Burkitt’s lymphoma
15
What viral protein is capable of inhibiting p53?
E6
16
Which class of cancer drugs is the least selective towards cancer cells?
Chemotherapy
17
Is chemotherapy generally more effective when tumors are small or large?
Small
18
A tumor contains 109 cells. After a dose of chemotherapy, there are 750,000 cells remaining. When the second chemotherapy dose is given, the tumor has grown to 800,000 cells. How many cells do you expect to remain after the next dose of chemotherapy?
600
19
Which statement best summarizes the treatment ramifications of the Goldie-Coldman hypothesis?
Cancers must be treated with more than one drug
20
Does drug resistance increase or decrease the therapeutic index of cancer drugs?
Decrease
21
An inhibitor of what enzyme would be expected to increase the sensitivity of cancer cells to vincristine?
MDR
22
Based on their toxicity profiles, what drug is likely to be excluded from use to treat lung cancer?
Bleomycin
23
What is the shared target of cyclophosphamide and cisplatin?
DNA
24
Does paclitaxel increase or decrease the amount of microtubules in cells?
Increase
25
Methotrexate targets cells in which phase(s) of the cell cycle?
S
26
What is the most direct target of 5-FU?
Thymidylate synthetase
27
Cytosine arabinoside directly prevents the formation of ______.
DNA
28
What is the basis for the selectivity of Gleevec towards cancer cells?
Cancer cells contain the Philadelphia chromosome
29
What is the target of pembrolizumab?
PD-1 on T-cells
30
Which cells will CTL019 kill? Select all that apply
Cancer cells expressing CD19, Normal cells expressing CD19
31
What is the process called when two EGFR proteins bind to each other?
Dimerization
32
In what location does Cetuximab bind EGFR?
Extracellularly
33
Which type of immune cells induce ADCC in cells treated with Cetuximab?
Natural killer cells
34
If a patient is being treated with Osimertinib, what were they likely treated with previously?
Erlotinib
35
What is the endogenous ligand for HER2?
It has no known ligand.
36
A breast cancer patient with a tumor with which characterization would be most likely to respond to Tamoxifen?
ER+ PR- HER2-
37
Which class of drugs could potentially increase estrogen signaling?
SERMs
38
Which drug significantly increases the risk of DVTs?
Raloxifene
39
Which drug is given intramuscularly?
Fulvestrant
40
Enzalutamide blocks the signaling caused by which hormone?
Testosterone
41
Do x-rays have shorter or longer wavelengths than visible light?
Shorter
42
Most DNA damage caused during x-ray radiation therapy is ______.
Indirect
43
Pieces of Iodine-125 are sometimes placed in the prostate to treat prostate cancer. This type of treatment is called.
Brachytherapy
44
When treating a tumor with radiotherapy, what part of the tumor generally responds best to treatment? Hint: The outside of a tumor is generally more vascularized. This may not have been clear from the lecture.
Outside
45
Cells in which phase of the cell cycle are least likely to respond to radiation therapy?
S
46
What type of immune cell begins the sequence of events that leads to organ transplant rejection?
Antigen presenting cells
47
An activated T cell induces T cell proliferation through the production of what signaling molecule?
IL2
48
Corticosteroids act as immunosupressants most directly through the inhibition of what mechanism?
Preventing cytokine production
49
Some cancer chemotherapeutics act as immunosupressants most directly through the inhibition of what mechanism?
Preventing T cell proliferation
50
A patient suffering from the early stages of renal failure would be least likely to be prescribed which immunosuppressant?
Cyclosporine
51
What type of immune cells produce antibodies?
B cells
52
Which birth scenario will require pharmacological intervention?
Rh(D) negative mother carrying a Rh(D) positive baby after birthing a Rh(D) positive baby
53
Production of monoclonal antibodies involves the isolation of cells from which location?
Spleen
54
Infliximab binds what protein?
TNF-α
55
Muromonab is what type of antibody?
Mouse
56
A patient undergoes outpatient surgery and is given a standard course of antibiotics but ends up back in the hospital a couple of days later with a severe Clostridium difficile infection. This is an example of which toxicity/complication?
Superinfection
57
Gram positive bacteria lack which structure when compared to Gram negative bacteria?
Outer membrane
58
Which class of antibacterials is bactericidal?
Fluoroquinolones
59
A patient has an infection caused by anaerobic Gram negative bacteria. Which antibacterial would be the worst choice to treat this infection?
Ciprofloxacin
60
β-Lactams inhibit the proper formation of which part of the bacterial cell wall?
Peptidoglycan
61
In order to induce an allergic reaction, penicillin must first covalently bind to ____.
Protein
62
Which β –lactam drug is active against cell wall synthesis in β-lactamase expressing bacteria?
Dicloxacillin
63
Which drug may be used as a noncompetitive inhibitor of β-lactamase?
Clavulanate
64
Which drug should not be given orally for a systemic infection?
Vancomycin
65
Sulfanilomide inhibits what enzyme?
Dihydropteroate synthase
66
Trimethoprim inhibits what enzyme?
Dihydrofolate reductase
67
In which type of patient would sulfamethoxazole not be appropriate for treating a bacterial infection?
Cancer chemotherapy
68
A dose of Bactrim contains trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole in a 1:5 ratio. Once in the blood, this is a 1:20 ratio. Which drug has the greater bioavailability?
Sulfamethoxazole
69
Which bacterial mechanism of resistance is shared by both sulfonamides and trimethoprim?
Altered drug target
70
Sulfonamides can alter concentrations of other drugs in the body. In general, taking sulfonamides would be expected to ______ the plasma concentrations of these other drugs.
increase