CCNA

100問 • 2年前

問題一覧

1. Refer to the exhibit. What will router R1 do with a packet that has a destination IPv6 address of 2001:db8:cafe:5::1?

forward the packet out Serial0/0/0

2. Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100

3. Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

4. Which option shows a correctly configured IPv4 default static route?

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route command can be entered on R1 to forward traffic to the LAN connected to R2?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/1 fe80::2

6. What is a method to launch a VLAN hopping attack?

introducing a rogue switch and enabling trunking

7. A cybersecurity analyst is using the macof tool to evaluate configurations of switches deployed in the backbone network of an organization. Which type of LAN attack is the analyst targeting during this evaluation?

MAC address table overflow

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.

9. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1 complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued the show standby brief command on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?

the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1

11. Which statement is correct about how a Layer 2 switch determines how to forward frames?

Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.

12. Which statement describes a result after multiple Cisco LAN switches are interconnected?

The broadcast domain expands to all switches.

14.Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

15. An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?

Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has connected two switches together using EtherChannel technology. If STP is running, what will be the end result?

STP will block one of the redundant links.

18. What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

Configure SSH.

19. Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?

WPA2 with AES

20. After attaching four PCs to the switch ports, configuring the SSID and setting authentication properties for a small office network, a technician successfully tests the connectivity of all PCs that are connected to the switch and WLAN. A firewall is then configured on the device prior to connecting it to the Internet. What type of network device includes all of the described features?

wireless router

21. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 10.1.1.10

23. Refer to the exhibit. In addition to static routes directing traffic to networks 10.10.0.0/16 and 10.20.0.0/16, Router HQ is also configured with the following command: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/1 What is the purpose of this command?

Packets with a destination network that is not 10.10.0.0/16 or is not 10.20.0.0/16 or is not a directly connected network will be forwarded to the Internet.

24. What protocol or technology disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops?

STP

25. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

because VLAN 99 has not yet been created

26. Which two VTP modes allow for the creation, modification, and deletion of VLANs on the local switch? (Choose two.)

server, transparent

27. Which three steps should be taken before moving a Cisco switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)

Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain., Select the correct VTP mode and version., Reboot the switch.

28. A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

Link types are determined automatically.

29. Refer to the exhibit. All the displayed switches are Cisco 2960 switches with the same default priority and operating at the same bandwidth. Which three ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.)

fa0/13, fa0/10, fa0/21

30. How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

31. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

They improve network security., They use fewer router resources.

32. Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

33. What is the effect of entering the spanning-tree portfast configuration command on a switch?

It enables portfast on a specific switch interface.

34. What is the IPv6 prefix that is used for link-local addresses?

FE80::/10

35. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers., They are not associated with a particular VLAN.

36. Successful inter-VLAN routing has been operating on a network with multiple VLANs across multiple switches for some time. When an inter-switch trunk link fails and Spanning Tree Protocol brings up a backup trunk link, it is reported that hosts on two VLANs can access some, but not all the network resources that could be accessed previously. Hosts on all other VLANS do not have this problem. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The protected edge port function on the backup trunk interfaces has been disabled.

37. Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?

interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5

38. What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a multicast destination MAC address?

The switch will forward the frame out all ports except the incoming port.

39. A junior technician was adding a route to a LAN router. A traceroute to a device on the new network revealed a wrong path and unreachable status. What should be done or checked?

Check the configuration of the exit interface on the new static route.

40. Select the three PAgP channel establishment modes. (Choose three.)

auto, desirable, on

42. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the configuration shown on R1?

R1 is configured as a DHCPv4 relay agent.

44. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

45. What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.)

The SSID is broadcast., A well-known administrator password is set.

46. What is the common term given to SNMP log messages that are generated by network devices and sent to the SNMP server?

traps

47. A network administrator is adding a new WLAN on a Cisco 3500 series WLC. Which tab should the administrator use to create a new VLAN interface to be used for the new WLAN?

CONTROLLER

48. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator change the default DHCP IPv4 addresses on an AP?

to reduce outsiders intercepting data or accessing the wireless network by using a well-known address range

49. Which two functions are performed by a WLC when using split media access control (MAC)? (Choose two.)

frame translation to other protocols, association and re-association of roaming clients

50. On what switch ports should BPDU guard be enabled to enhance STP stability?

all PortFast-enabled ports

51. Which network attack is mitigated by enabling BPDU guard?

rogue switches on a network

52. Why is DHCP snooping required when using the Dynamic ARP Inspection feature?

It uses the MAC-address-to-IP-address binding database to validate an ARP packet.

53. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?

Change the administrative distance to 120.

54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric to forward a data packet with the IPv6 destination address 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2?

2682112

55. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

IP address, vty lines, default gateway

56. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

ipv6 nd other-config-flag

57. Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 (config-if)# no switchport (config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252, (config)# ip routing

58. A technician is troubleshooting a slow WLAN and decides to use the split-the-traffic approach. Which two parameters would have to be configured to do this? (Choose two.)

Configure the 5 GHz band for streaming multimedia and time sensitive traffic., Configure the 2.4 GHz band for basic internet traffic that is not time sensitive.

59. A company has just switched to a new ISP. The ISP has completed and checked the connection from its site to the company. However, employees at the company are not able to access the internet. What should be done or checked?

Ensure that the old default route has been removed from the company edge routers.

60. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the source MAC address and the incoming port

61. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?

PAgP

62. Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

floating static route

63. What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address appearing in the MAC address table?

The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.

64. The exhibit shows two PCs called PC A and PC B, two routes called R1 and R2, and two switches. PC A has the address 172.16.1.1/24 and is connected to a switch and into an interface on R1 that has the IP address 172.16.1.254. PC B has the address 172.16.2.1/24 and is connected to a switch that is connected to another interface on R1 with the IP address 172.16.2.254. The serial interface on R1 has the address 172.16.3.1 and is connected to the serial interface on R2 that has the address 172.16.3.2/24. R2 is connected to the internet cloud. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

65. What protocol or technology allows data to transmit over redundant switch links?

EtherChannel

66. Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

host C, host D, host F

67. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.

68. What is the effect of entering the shutdown configuration command on a switch?

It disables an unused port.

69. What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

so that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts

70. During the AAA process, when will authorization be implemented?

Immediately after successful authentication against an AAA data source

71. A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?

sticky secure MAC addresses

72. Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies? (Choose three.)

802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n

73. To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

The root bridge BID., The role of the ports in all VLANs.

74. Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?

Trunk2

75. Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA messages?

SLAAC

76. Which two protocols are used to provide server-based AAA authentication? (Choose two.)

TACACS+, RADIUS

77. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator disable the broadcast feature for the SSID?

to eliminate outsiders scanning for available SSIDs in the area

78. Which mitigation technique would prevent rogue servers from providing false IP configuration parameters to clients?

turning on DHCP snooping

79. A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?

restrict

80. What protocol or technology defines a group of routers, one of them defined as active and another one as standby?

HSRP

81. Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?

RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.

82. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable - trunk, dynamic desirable - dynamic desirable, dynamic desirable - dynamic auto

83. A technician is configuring a router for a small company with multiple WLANs and doesn’t need the complexity of a dynamic routing protocol. What should be done or checked?

Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet.

84. A company is deploying a wireless network in the distribution facility in a Boston suburb. The warehouse is quite large and it requires multiple access points to be used. Because some of the company devices still operate at 2.4GHz, the network administrator decides to deploy the 802.11g standard. Which channel assignments on the multiple access points will make sure that the wireless channels are not overlapping?

channels 1, 6, and 11

85. A network administrator of a small advertising company is configuring WLAN security by using the WPA2 PSK method. Which credential do office users need in order to connect their laptops to the WLAN?

a key that matches the key on the AP

86. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

alternate, designated, root, root

87. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route would an IT technician enter to create a backup route to the 172.16.1.0 network that is only used if the primary RIP learned route fails?

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 121

88. What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?

Enable port security.

89. A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?

The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.

90. Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

broadcast DHCPREQUEST

91. Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

MAC address of the virtual router

92. After a host has generated an IPv6 address by using the DHCPv6 or SLAAC process, how does the host verify that the address is unique and therefore usable?

The host sends an ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation message to the DHCP or SLAAC-learned address and if no neighbor advertisement is returned, the address is considered unique.

94. Which protocol adds security to remote connections?

SSH

95. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?

The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN.

96. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

It identifies the VLAN number.

98. What network attack seeks to create a DoS for clients by preventing them from being able to obtain a DHCP lease?

DHCP starvation

99. Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?

The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.

100. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has added a new subnet to the network and needs hosts on that subnet to receive IPv4 addresses from the DHCPv4 server. What two commands will allow hosts on the new subnet to receive addresses from the DHCP4 server? (Choose two.)

R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.2.0.250, R1(config)# interface G0/0

101. What protocol or technology uses source IP to destination IP as a load-balancing mechanism?

EtherChannel

102. What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?

DTP

103. What protocol or technology requires switches to be in server mode or client mode?

VTP

104. What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

to enhance user bandwidth, to isolate traffic between segments

105. What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?

the ipv6 unicast-routing command

106. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick model to configure a switch and a router for inter-VLAN routing. What configuration should be made on the switch port that connects to the router?

Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.

107. What are three techniques for mitigating VLAN attacks? (Choose three.)

Enable trunking manually, Disable DTP., Set the native VLAN to an unused VLAN.

100

109. In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?

when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host

CCNA2

Axel Alexe · 15問 · 2年前

CCNA2

15問 • 2年前

Axel Alexe

問題一覧

1. Refer to the exhibit. What will router R1 do with a packet that has a destination IPv6 address of 2001:db8:cafe:5::1?

forward the packet out Serial0/0/0

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100

Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

4. Which option shows a correctly configured IPv4 default static route?

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route command can be entered on R1 to forward traffic to the LAN connected to R2?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/1 fe80::2

6. What is a method to launch a VLAN hopping attack?

introducing a rogue switch and enabling trunking

MAC address table overflow

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.

the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1

11. Which statement is correct about how a Layer 2 switch determines how to forward frames?

Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.

12. Which statement describes a result after multiple Cisco LAN switches are interconnected?

The broadcast domain expands to all switches.

14.Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has connected two switches together using EtherChannel technology. If STP is running, what will be the end result?

STP will block one of the redundant links.

18. What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

Configure SSH.

19. Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?

WPA2 with AES

wireless router

21. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 10.1.1.10

Packets with a destination network that is not 10.10.0.0/16 or is not 10.20.0.0/16 or is not a directly connected network will be forwarded to the Internet.

24. What protocol or technology disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops?

STP

25. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

because VLAN 99 has not yet been created

26. Which two VTP modes allow for the creation, modification, and deletion of VLANs on the local switch? (Choose two.)

server, transparent

27. Which three steps should be taken before moving a Cisco switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)

Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain., Select the correct VTP mode and version., Reboot the switch.

28. A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

Link types are determined automatically.

fa0/13, fa0/10, fa0/21

30. How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

31. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

They improve network security., They use fewer router resources.

32. Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

33. What is the effect of entering the spanning-tree portfast configuration command on a switch?

It enables portfast on a specific switch interface.

34. What is the IPv6 prefix that is used for link-local addresses?

FE80::/10

35. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers., They are not associated with a particular VLAN.

The protected edge port function on the backup trunk interfaces has been disabled.

37. Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?

interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5

38. What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a multicast destination MAC address?

The switch will forward the frame out all ports except the incoming port.

39. A junior technician was adding a route to a LAN router. A traceroute to a device on the new network revealed a wrong path and unreachable status. What should be done or checked?

Check the configuration of the exit interface on the new static route.

40. Select the three PAgP channel establishment modes. (Choose three.)

auto, desirable, on

42. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the configuration shown on R1?

R1 is configured as a DHCPv4 relay agent.

44. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

45. What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.)

The SSID is broadcast., A well-known administrator password is set.

46. What is the common term given to SNMP log messages that are generated by network devices and sent to the SNMP server?

traps

47. A network administrator is adding a new WLAN on a Cisco 3500 series WLC. Which tab should the administrator use to create a new VLAN interface to be used for the new WLAN?

CONTROLLER

48. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator change the default DHCP IPv4 addresses on an AP?

to reduce outsiders intercepting data or accessing the wireless network by using a well-known address range

49. Which two functions are performed by a WLC when using split media access control (MAC)? (Choose two.)

frame translation to other protocols, association and re-association of roaming clients

50. On what switch ports should BPDU guard be enabled to enhance STP stability?

all PortFast-enabled ports

51. Which network attack is mitigated by enabling BPDU guard?

rogue switches on a network

52. Why is DHCP snooping required when using the Dynamic ARP Inspection feature?

It uses the MAC-address-to-IP-address binding database to validate an ARP packet.

Change the administrative distance to 120.

54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric to forward a data packet with the IPv6 destination address 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2?

2682112

55. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

IP address, vty lines, default gateway

56. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

ipv6 nd other-config-flag

57. Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 (config-if)# no switchport (config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252, (config)# ip routing

58. A technician is troubleshooting a slow WLAN and decides to use the split-the-traffic approach. Which two parameters would have to be configured to do this? (Choose two.)

Configure the 5 GHz band for streaming multimedia and time sensitive traffic., Configure the 2.4 GHz band for basic internet traffic that is not time sensitive.

Ensure that the old default route has been removed from the company edge routers.

60. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the source MAC address and the incoming port

61. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?

PAgP

62. Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

floating static route

63. What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address appearing in the MAC address table?

The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

65. What protocol or technology allows data to transmit over redundant switch links?

EtherChannel

66. Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

host C, host D, host F

Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.

68. What is the effect of entering the shutdown configuration command on a switch?

It disables an unused port.

69. What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

so that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts

70. During the AAA process, when will authorization be implemented?

Immediately after successful authentication against an AAA data source

sticky secure MAC addresses

72. Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies? (Choose three.)

802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n

The root bridge BID., The role of the ports in all VLANs.

74. Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?

Trunk2

75. Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA messages?

SLAAC

76. Which two protocols are used to provide server-based AAA authentication? (Choose two.)

TACACS+, RADIUS

77. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator disable the broadcast feature for the SSID?

to eliminate outsiders scanning for available SSIDs in the area

78. Which mitigation technique would prevent rogue servers from providing false IP configuration parameters to clients?

turning on DHCP snooping

restrict

80. What protocol or technology defines a group of routers, one of them defined as active and another one as standby?

HSRP

RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.

82. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable - trunk, dynamic desirable - dynamic desirable, dynamic desirable - dynamic auto

83. A technician is configuring a router for a small company with multiple WLANs and doesn’t need the complexity of a dynamic routing protocol. What should be done or checked?

Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet.

channels 1, 6, and 11

a key that matches the key on the AP

86. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

alternate, designated, root, root

87. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route would an IT technician enter to create a backup route to the 172.16.1.0 network that is only used if the primary RIP learned route fails?

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 121

88. What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?

Enable port security.

The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.

90. Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

broadcast DHCPREQUEST

91. Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

MAC address of the virtual router

92. After a host has generated an IPv6 address by using the DHCPv6 or SLAAC process, how does the host verify that the address is unique and therefore usable?

The host sends an ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation message to the DHCP or SLAAC-learned address and if no neighbor advertisement is returned, the address is considered unique.

94. Which protocol adds security to remote connections?

SSH

The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN.

It identifies the VLAN number.

98. What network attack seeks to create a DoS for clients by preventing them from being able to obtain a DHCP lease?

DHCP starvation

99. Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?

The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.

R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.2.0.250, R1(config)# interface G0/0

101. What protocol or technology uses source IP to destination IP as a load-balancing mechanism?

EtherChannel

102. What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?

DTP

103. What protocol or technology requires switches to be in server mode or client mode?

VTP

104. What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

to enhance user bandwidth, to isolate traffic between segments

105. What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?

the ipv6 unicast-routing command

Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.

107. What are three techniques for mitigating VLAN attacks? (Choose three.)

Enable trunking manually, Disable DTP., Set the native VLAN to an unused VLAN.

100

109. In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?

when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host