問題一覧
1
What sensors monitor the Intermediate Gear Box and Tail Gear Box?
A chip detector, a temperature sensor and a low level sensor
2
When is it possible to test the Intermediate Gearbox (IGB) and Tail Rotor Gearbox (TGB) oil levels?
With the aircraft on the ground and NR less than 2%
3
How many Fixed Frictions are there on the Flight Control Lines?
4 (Four)
4
What permits rotation of the rotating swashplate around the stationary swashplate?
Duplex ball bearing
5
What permits rotation of the rotating controls around the Tail Rotor Actuator Pitch Control Rod?
Duplex ball bearing located in the Tail Rotor Spider
6
Which of the following is part of the Collective channel of flight controls?
An adjustable friction, a fixed friction and a collective balance spring
7
What material is the Cyclic Torque Tube made of?
Carbon Fiber epoxy
8
Where are the Cyclic Adjustable Stops located?
There are no Cyclic Adjustable Stops
9
How many Rigging Pins are used to rig the Flight Controls at the Mixing Unit?
1 pin for collective, 1 pin for pitch and 1 pin for roll
10
What is required when a Flight Control Rod is replaced?
It must be adjusted to the same length as the replaced rod
11
Where is the Adjustable Stop on the Collective located?
On the Mixing Unit
12
Why is the Servoactuator Anti-Jam Device check carried out?
To verify freedom of movement of the Outer Sleeve and to check for dormant failures
13
What is required when an Engine is replaced?
A Performance Check must be carried out
14
What material are the Engine Access Doors made of?
Titanium
15
What material are the engine fire walls made of?
Titanium
16
What are the Engine Firewalls made of?
Titanium
17
What is the Engine Oil Drain Period?
No Oil Drain Period is scheduled
18
On which Collective Control Grip are the ENG GOV Switches located?
Pilot only
19
What will happen if the Engine Control Lever is moved to the OFF position, with the ENG MODE switch to FLIGHT position (either in Automatic or Manual mode)?
The Engine flames out
20
It is essential to wait a minimum of six minutes before doing maintenance on which system?
Ignition System
21
In what range can the Engine Control Lever (ECL) be moved using the ENG TRIM selector on the collective grip?
From MIN to MAX in MANUAL
22
what is the main function of the cycle FTR swich
large chances in the aircraft pitch and roll attitude
23
When flying with the ENG GOV at MANUAL, what is the required position of the ENG MODE switch?
The ENG MODE switch must stay in the IDLE or FLIGHT position
24
How will the engine respond when setting the Engine Control Lever (ECL) to OFF with the ENG MODE switch at FLIGHT?
The engine flames out
25
Which CAS message is displayed at the same time as an automatic reversion of the engine to manual mode?
EEC FAIL
26
How will the caution ECL FAIL affect the operation of the Engine Control Levers (ECL)?
The ECL should not be used for manual control of the engine
27
What position can the engine controls be in if the caution ECL POS is displayed?
The ENG GOV to AUTO, the ECL to OFF
28
What is the function of the DCU?
DCU records engine fatigue and exceedance data; contains engine trim data
29
What supplies power to the EEC 1 during flight?
Engine 1 Permanent Magnet Alternator
30
How is the selection made via the LD SHARE switch on the MISC panel indicated to the pilot?
Two green triangles are displayed either around the TQ or the ITT legends on the MFD
31
What units receive the output of the LVDTs (Linear Variable Differential Transformers) installed on the Collective torque tube?
EECs (Engine Electronic Control)
32
Which item(s) are subject to scheduled Engine maintenance checks?
The Fuel Nozzles for cleaning
33
When the TQ LIM Button is pressed, what message is displayed in the CAS window?
TQ LIMITER ON Advisory message
34
How is an Engine Wet Motoring run achieved?
By moving the ENG MODE switch to IDLE either in AUTO or MANUAL
35
What position are the ECLs when the Engine Control Cable adjustment is carried out?
FLIGHT
36
In MANUAL mode, using the ENG TRIM switches, what range can the Engine Control Levers (ECL) be moved?
MIN to MAX
37
With the aircraft on the ground, what is the normal position of the Engine Control Levers (ECL)?
FLIGHT
38
Which of the following indications can never be displayed on the Power Index (PI) indicator?
735°C with limiting parameter ITT
39
What is the first action in case of an ENG CHIP caution?
Achieve a safe OEI flight and move the ENG MODE to IDLE
40
When replenishing the Engine with oil, what precaution must be observed?
Brand and type mixing is not allowed
41
At what Ng are the green captions IGN (Ignition) and START on the MFD removed during engine start?
IGN at 49 % Ng, START at 49 % Ng
42
Which of the following actions is necessary for a manual engine start?
Turn the ENG MODE switch to IDLE
43
How can you tell that the starter has disengaged after starting?
The relevant loadmeter does not show amber dashes
44
As Engine 1 is running at FLT, which of the following checks must be performed prior to starting the Engine 2 on batteries (cross starting)?
GEN 1 loadmeter must be in the green range
45
What component is in charge of terminating the starting sequence during an Engine start in MANUAL mode?
GCU
46
What is the maximum time allowed for the engine light up?
10 seconds
47
When starting an engine using the helicopter batteries, where is the battery power directed to?
The Main Battery is used to start the engine while the Aux Battery is only used to feed the essential bus-bars
48
Regarding Airworthiness Limitations which of the following is true?
They are EASA/FAA approved and can only be changed after additional approval from the Authority
49
What is the meaning of the element "39" in the Maintenance Manual Data Module Code "39 A 28 11 00 00A 520A A
Applicable aircraft model code
50
What is the meaning of the element "B" in the Data Module Code "39 B 34"?
System difference code (eg: an item supplied by an alternate vendor)
51
Parts with a retirement life must be retired from service when?
Their indicated life is reached
52
A pilot has reported a "g exceedance" in the aircraft logbook. Which section of the IETP lists the procedure necessary to assess the helicopter airworthiness?
AMPI, Chapter 05 – Scheduled/Unscheduled Maintenance, Section 05-50 – Unscheduled Maintenance Checks
53
Where are the Out-of-Phase Maintenance checks listed?
In the Unscheduled Maintenance Check Tasks section of the IETP Are opportune at the occurrence of another maintenance task, or which cannot be included in an hourly/calendar schedule.
54
According to "Dimensions and Areas" chapter of the IETP, what sort of reference are BL, WL and STA?
Reference Sections numbered from front to back, bottom to top and left to right
55
What sensor is used to detect the phase of the vibrations of the Main Rotor?What sensor is used to detect the phase of the vibrations of the Main Rotor?
A dedicated magnetic pick-up
56
How is the air cooled by the air conditioning system?
The air conditioning system cool air is mixed with the ambient air in the jet pump (Venturi duct) and distributes it to cockpit and cabin
57
How does the Ventilation system operate when the VENT/CREW selector on the ECS panel is set at ON?
The forward flapper valves are opened for ram air ventilation
58
According to the RFM and QRH Normal Procedures, when must the Autopilots (AFCS) be engaged.
After System Checks, before Taxiing
59
At the power on of the helicopter (all BATTERY switches at ON), what is the status of the AFCS ?
FD is powered and Guidance Controller is in STBY mode; Both Autopilots are not powered
60
How many Trim Actuators are installed on the AW139?
four
61
What will be the result when a PFD selection is made on the Guidance Controller, with Flight Director (FD) mode(s) engaged?
Disengagement of the FD mode(s)
62
Where are the modules that control the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) located?
Modular Avionic Units (MAU)
63
What is the main function of the Cyclic FTR Switch?
Large changes in the aircraft pitch and roll attitude
64
Why is a dual AP system is installed?
To keep providing both aircraft stabilization and attitude holding, in case either AP1 or AP2 fails
65
Why will the Pilot usually uses the cyclic FTR switch?
To make large changes to the aircraft pitch and Roll attitude
66
What will happen if the CPL Push Button is pressed when the CPL integral green indicator light on the Autopilot Controller is lit?
The Flight Director is coupled to the Autopilot
67
What air speed can the Flight Director Modes be engaged?
Equal or greater than 60 knots
68
What is the CAB push-button on the PLT and CPLT Audio Control Panel used for?
To set and control the volume of the Cabin Audio Control Panel
69
What software must be loaded after replacing the NIM of an MRC?
Load the Flight Software only
70
Where is Modular Radio Cabinet No.1 located?
Left side of the Nose Compartment
71
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the GCU Protection functions?
The protection function is applicable during the starting phase
72
How is engine No.2 starting is performed when External Power is not available?
With the BUS TIE switch set to ON
73
During Engine starting, on batteries, how is Battery power distributed?
The Main Battery is used to supply the Starter Generator, while the Auxilliary Battery is used to feed the Essential Bus Bars
74
When are the Non Essential Bus Bars fed?
When External Power is connected to the Aircraft
75
With the helicopter on the ground and the external power connected (EXT SW = ON) and the two generators are operating (GEN. No.1-2 = ON), how are the electrical Bus Bars fed?
By the External Power
76
What conditions must be met in order for the ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter) to function /start transmitting the distress signals?
Pins 5 and 8 on the ELT/NAV Interface Unit connector must be jumpered
77
How is the Fuel Tank installed in the aircraft structure?
Two nylon ropes on the upper side, four clips on the bottom side