問題一覧
1
What is the definition of deadly force.
Force that is likely to cause, or that a person knows or should know would create a substantial risk of death or serious bodily harm or injury.
2
What are the steps (in order) in the escalation of force(Use of Force) #1
Professional Presence
3
What are the steps (in order) in the escalation of force(Use of Force) #2
Verbal Commands
4
What are the steps (in order) in the escalation of force(Use of Force) #3
Control Techniques
5
What are the steps (in order) in the escalation of force(Use of Force) #4
Aggressive Responsive Techniques
6
What are the steps (in order) in the escalation of force(Use of Force) #5
Intermediate Weapons
7
What are the steps (in order) in the escalation of force(Use of Force) #6
Deadly Force
8
Deadly Force may only be used when responsible including but not limited to, the following circumstances:
Self Defense and defense of other DoD personel , Defence of others, Protecting assets vital to national security, Protecting inherently dangerous property, Protecting national critical infrastructure , Performing an arrest or apprehension or preventing escape, Defense against animals
9
What are the most common operations conducted at an ECP
Identification and inspection
10
Defense in depth at an ECP is accomplished by employing assessment, warning, and threat zones
True
11
Within this zone active and passive security measures are employed to identify detect classify and asses possible threats
assessment zone
12
This zone is a physically separated area closer to the critical assets where unknown and unauthorized personel are inspected and identified. In this zone, ID and access lists are checked and the purpose of visits is confirmed.
warning zone
13
An area past the PCP Standoff zone to the protected asset or area no unauthorized personel are allowed past this area
threat zone
14
NSF assigned to an ECP must be trained to _________
Detect Surveillance , Control Vehicle and Pedestrian Traffic
15
Vehicle inspection teams must consist of a minimum of how many individuals?
three
16
If am individual refuse to permit an inspection of their vehicle which of the following is an authorized course of action?
refusal to enter instillation
17
What inspection includes the verification of occupant identity and in the case of commercial vehicles and delivery of documents?
Administrative
18
What inspection must verify drive identity, cargo, and destination in order to observe the entire vehicle exterior portions in plain sight, including under the vehicle.
Intermediate
19
What inspection is done to observe all exterior and interior vehicle which are normally accessible without the use of special tools or destruction of the vehicle infrastructure and involve all vehicle cargo and passenger area?
Complex
20
Define Proprietary Jurisdiction
The Federal Government has the authority to investigate and prosecute non-territory based Federal offenses committed on the property.
21
Define Concurrent Jurisdiction
The Federal and State Governments each have the right to prosecute and investigate violations Federal and State law.
22
Define Exclusive Jurisdiction
The Federal Government has the right to investigate and prosecute violations of federal laws.
23
Which of the following is not a part of the Deadly Force Triangle?
Action
24
Which of the following is an example of Capability?
The ability to place an IED on a vital asset.
25
Which of the following is an example of Intent.
A personal watercraft that ignores warnings and aggressively maneuvers towards an HVA.
26
Which of the following is an example of Opportunity?
A watercraft determined hostile based on sighting of weapons has entered the threat zone of an anchored ship.
27
Use of deadly force and carrying firearms are by personel of the Department of the Navy in connection with Law Enforcement, security duties is authorized solely by the installation commanding officer.
True
28
Which of the following is not a circumstance of deadly force.
Protection of a runaway
29
A verbal warning should be given prior to the use of deadly force if the situation permits and if doing so does not unreasonably increase the danger to DoD personel or others.
True
30
With respect to Non-Lethal Weapons and target areas of the human body, which of the following are examples of red target areas with the highest level of resultant trauma and include injuries ranging from serious to long lasting rather than temporary and may include unconsciousness, serious bodily injury, shock or death?
Head Area, Solar Plexus, Back of Neck, Spine, Kidneys
31
With respect to Non-Lethal Weapons and target areas of the human body, which of the following are examples of yellow target areas with impact results moderate level of trauma to the body but long lasting due to extended healing time required?
Collarbone, shoulder blades, elbows and upper abdominal region, knees
32
With respect to Non-Lethal Weapons and target areas of the human body, which of the following are examples of green target areas with impact results of minimal level of trauma?
Shin, calf, lower abdomen, back of hand.
33
Tactical movement provides cover, concealment, and readiness for any eventuality
True
34
What is the maximum effective range of the M-18 pistol
50 meters
35
What is the maximum range of the M-18 pistol?
1800 meters
36
Which of the following is NOT a major component group of the M-18
Lock, Stock, and Barrel Assembly
37
NSF Personel will not consume alcoholic beverages within ______ hours and must be free of the effects of prior to the commencement of their assigned shift.
12 hours
38
How many universal weapons safety rules are there?
4
39
________ are failure of the weapons system to fire properly or perform as designed, and may result in a stoppage.
Malfunction
40
What does the term "load" mean?
Take weapon from condition 4 to condition 3
41
What does the term "make ready" mean?
Take weapon from condition 3 to condition 1
42
What does the term"load and make ready"mean?
Take weapon from condition 4 to condition 1
43
What does the term "unload" mean.
Take weapon from condition 1 or 3 to condition 4
44
What is condition 1 of the M-18?
Safety on, magazine inserted, round in chamber, slide forward.
45
What is condition 3 of the M-18?
Safety on, magazine inserted, chamber empty, slide forward.
46
What is condition 4 of a M-18
Safety on, magazine removed, chamber empty, slide forward.
47
What is the maximum effective range of the Mossberg 500 Shotgun(Buckshot)?
50 Yards
48
What is the maximum range of the Mossberg 500 Shotgun(Buckshot)?
661
49
What is the total round capacity of the Mossberg 500 Shotgun.
6 rounds
50
Which amendment covers a person's right against unlawful search and seizure?
4th amendment
51
What is the form number for the Telephonic Threat Complaint?
5580/8
52
Which of the following are authorized weapons transports of the M4A1
Strong side, muzzle up
53
What is tactical/combat loading procedure of the Mossberg 500 Shotgun?
Load round into ejection port
54
What is condition 1 of a Mossberg 500 shotgun?
Ammunition in magazine tube, round in chamber, action closed, weapon on SAFE.
55
What is condition 3 of the Mossberg 500 Shotgun?
Ammunition in magazine tube, chamber empty, action closed, weapon on SAFE.
56
What is condition 3 of the Mossberg 500 Shotgun?
Ammunition in magazine tube, chamber empty, action closed, weapon on SAFE.
57
What is condition 4 of the Mossberg 500 Shotgun?
Magazine tube empty, chamber empty, action closed, weapon on SAFE.
58
What is the rate of fire on the M4A1 Rifle(semi automatic)?
45 rounds per minute
59
What is the maximum effective range of the M4A1?
500 meters
60
How many Terrorist Surveillance Techniques are there?
7
61
What is the maximum range of the M4A1?
3600 meters
62
How often must NLW sustainment training be conducted.
Annually
63
Which of the following is not a major component of group of the M4A1?
rear sight assembly
64
NSF personnel taking prescription drugs or an over the counter drug, which may adversely affect the performance of his/her duties, are required to advise supervisory staff and the overall fit for duty determination will be made by________?
Installation Security Officer
65
___________ are unintentional interruption in the cycle of operations and are discovered when the weapon does not fire.
Stoppage
66
How does the Security Department conduct surveillance detection measures.
Employing RAMS
67
The Authorization to Carry Firearms Card is _________? (OPANVINST 3591.1G, Chapter 3, Section 3, Paragraph I)
OPNAV 5512/2
68
What instruction identifies personnel subject to the UCMJ?
Manual for Courts Martial, Appendix 2, Article 2
69
What is condition one of an M16A3/M4A1? (NTRP 3-07.2.2, Chapter 7, Figure 7-11.)
Safety on, magazine inserted, round in chamber, bolt forward, ejection port cover closed
70
What is condition three of an M16A3/M4A1?
Safety on, magazine inserted, chamber empty, bolt forward, ejection port cover closed
71
What is considered one of the most lethal threats posed to an ECP?
VBIED
72
The serpentine exit should leave the vehicle directly into the cover sentry's most advantageous field of fire.
True
73
A vehicle at the ECP lacking the proper documentation for access is automatically deemed as suspicious.
False
74
What does the"L" stand for in a SAALT?
Location
75
On a commercial vehicle, what area is the primary location for hiding explosives.
Fuel tank
76
If an IED is discovered at an ECP, what is the first action the watch stander will take.
Communicate the presence of the suspected IED
77
On an ECP, what is the primary means of communication.
Hand held radio
78
How many General Offers are there?
11