The color of urine containing porphyrins will be: A. Yellow-brown B. Green C. Orange D. Port wine

Which of the following specific gravities would be most likely to correlate with a pale yellow urine? A. 1.005 B. 1.010 C. 1.020 D. 1.030

A urine specific gravity measured by refractometer is 1.029, and the temperature of the urine is 14°C. The specific gravity should be reported as: A. 1.023 B. 1.027 C. 1.029 D. 1.032

The principle of refractive index is to compare: A. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions D. Light scattering by particles in solution

A correlation exists between a specific gravity by refractometer of 1.050 and a: A. 2+ glucose B. 2+ protein C. First morning specimen D. Radiographic dye infusion

A cloudy urine specimen turns black upon standing and has a specific gravity of 1.012. The major concern about this specimen would be: A. Color B. Turbidity C. Specific gravity D. All of the above

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.035 would be considered: A. Isosthenuric B. Hyposthenuric C. Hypersthenuric D. Not urine

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.001 would be considered: A. Hyposthenuric B. Not urine C. Hypersthenuric D. Isosthenuric

A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could indicate: A. Ketones B. Normalcy C. Phenylketonuria D. An old specimen

The microscopic of a clear red urine is reported as many WBCs and epithelial cells. What does this suggest? A. Urinary tract infection B. Dilute random specimen C. Hematuria D. Possible mix-up of specimen and sediment

Which of the following would contribute the most to a urine osmolality? A. One osmole of glucose B. One osmole of urea C. One osmole of sodium chloride D. All contribute equally

Which of the following colligative properties is not stated correctly? A. The boiling pointing is raised by solute B. The freezing point is raised by solute C. The vapor pressure is lowered by solute D. The osmotic pressure is raised by solute

An osmole contains: A. One gram molecular weight of solute dissolved in one liter of solvent B. One gram molecular weight of solute dissolved in one kilogram of solvent C. Two gram molecular weights of solute dissolved in one liter of solvent D. Two gram molecular weights

The unit of osmolality measured in the clinical laboratory is the: A. Osmole B. Milliosmole C. Molecular weight D. Ionic charge

In the reagent strip specific gravity reaction the polyelectrolyte: A. Combines with hydrogen ions in response to ion concentration B. Releases hydrogen ions in response to ion concentration C. Releases hydrogen ions in response to pH D. Combines with sodium ions in response to pH

Which of the following will react in the reagent strip specific gravity test? A. Glucose B. Radiographic dye C. Protein D. Chloride

Leaving excess urine on the reagent strip after removing it from the specimen will: A. Cause run-over between reagent pads B. Alter the color of the specimen C. Cause reagents to leach from the pads D. Not affect the chemical reactions

Failure to mix a specimen before inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the: A. Glucose reading B. Blood reading C. Leukocyte reading O D. Both B and C

Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not warmed to room temperature will adversely affect: A. Enzymatic reactions B. Dye-binding reactions C. The sodium nitroprusside reaction D. Diazo reactions

The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the: A. Bilirubin B. pH C. Leukocyte esterase D. Glucose

Quality control of reagent strips is performed: A. Using positive and negative controls B. When results are questionable C. At least once every 24 hours D. All of the above

All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent strips except: A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle B. Storing in an opaque bottle C. Storing at room temperature D. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip

The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is the: A. Protein error of indicators B. Greiss reaction C. Dissociation of a polyelectrolyte D. Double indicator reaction

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0: A. Indicates metabolic acidosis B. Should be recollected C. May contain calcium oxalate crystals D. Is seen after drinking cranberry juice

In the laboratory, a primary consideration associated with pH is: A. Identifying urinary crystals B. Monitoring vegetarian diets C. Determining specimen acceptability D. Both A and C

Indicate the source of the following proteinurias by placing a 1 for prerenal, 2 for renal, or 3 for postrenal in front of the condition. Acute phase reactants

Indicate the source of the following proteinurias by placing a 1 for prerenal, 2 for renal, or 3 for postrenal in front of the condition. Microalbuminuria

Indicate the source of the following proteinurias by placing a 1 for prerenal, 2 for renal, or 3 for postrenal in front of the condition. Pre-eclampsia

Indicate the source of the following proteinurias by placing a 1 for prerenal, 2 for renal, or 3 for postrenal in front of the condition. Vaginal inflammation

Indicate the source of the following proteinurias by placing a 1 for prerenal, 2 for renal, or 3 for postrenal in front of the condition. Multiple myeloma

Indicate the source of the following proteinurias by placing a 1 for prerenal, 2 for renal, or 3 for postrenal in front of the condition. Orthostatic proteinuria

Indicate the source of the following proteinurias by placing a 1 for prerenal, 2 for renal, or 3 for postrenal in front of the condition. Prostatitis

The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction is that: A. Protein keeps the pH of the urine constant B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator C. The indicator accepts hydrogen ions from albumin D. Albumin changes the pH of the urine

All of the following will cause false-positive protein reagent strip values except: A. Microalbuminuria B. Highly buffered alkaline urines C. Delay in removing the reagent strip from the specimen D. Contamination by quaternary ammonium compounds

A patient with a 2+ protein reading in the afternoon is asked to submit a first morning specimen. The second specimen has a negative protein reading. This patient is: A. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria B. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria C. Positive for Bence Jones protein D. Negative for clinical proteinuria

Testing for microalbuminuria is valuable for early detection of kidney disease and monitoring patients with: A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Cardiovascular disease risk D. All of the above

The primary chemical on the reagent strip in the MicralTest for microalbumin binds to: A. Protein B. Antihuman albumin antibody C. Conjugated enzyme D. Galactoside

All of the following are true for the ImmunoDip test for microalbumin except: A. Unbound antibody migrates farther than bound antibody B. Blue latex particles are coated with antihuman albumin antibody C. Bound antibody migrates further than unbound antibody D. It utilizes an immunochromographic principle

The principle of the protein-high pad on the Multistix Pro reagent strip is the: A. Diazo reaction B. Enzymatic dye-binding reaction C. Protein error of indicators D. Microalbumin-Micral-Test

Which of the following is not tested on the Multistix Pro reagent strip? A. Urobilinogen B. Specific gravity C. Creatinine D. Protein-high.

The principle of the protein-low reagent pad on the Multistix Pro is the: A. Binding of albumin to sulphonphthalein dye B. Immunologic binding of albumin to antibody C. Reverse protein error of indicators reaction D. Enzymatic reaction between albumin and dye

The principle of the creatinine reagent pad on microalbumin reagent strips is the: A. Double indicator reaction B. Diazo reaction C. Pseudoperoxidase reaction D. Reduction of a chromogen

The purpose of performing an albumin:creatinine ratio is to: A. Estimate the glomerular filtration rate B. Correct for hydration in random specimens C. Avoid interference for alkaline urines D. Correct for abnormally colored urines

A patient with a normal blood glucose and a positive urine glucose should be further checked for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Renal disease C. Gestational diabetes D. Pancreatitis

The principle of the reagent strip tests for glucose is the: A. Peroxidase activity of glucose B. Glucose oxidase reaction C. Double sequential enzyme reaction D. Dye-binding of glucose and chromogen

All of the following may produce false-negative glucose reactions except: A. Detergent contamination B. Ascorbic acid C. Unpreserved specimens D. Low urine temperature

The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to: A. Check for high ascorbic acid levels B. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose C. Check for newborn galactosuria D. Confirm a negative glucose reading

The three intermediate products of fat metabolism include all of the following except: A. Acetoacetic acid B. Ketoacetic acid C. β -hydroxybutyric acid

The most significant reagent strip test that is associated with a positive ketone result is: A. Glucose B. Protein C. pH D. Specific gravity

The primary reagent in the reagent strip test for ketones is: A. Glycine B. Lactose C. Sodium hydroxide D. Sodium nitroprusside

Ketonuria may be caused by all of the following except: A. Bacterial infections B. Diabetic acidosis C. Starvation D. Vomiting

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abdominal pain is frequently performed to check for: A. Glucosuria B. Proteinuria C. Hematuria D. Hemoglobinuria

Place the appropriate number or numbers in front of each of the following statements. Use both numbers for an answer if needed. 1. Hemoglobinuria 2. Myoglobinuria Associated with transfusion reactions

Place the appropriate number or numbers in front of each of the following statements. Use both numbers for an answer if needed. 1. Hemoglobinuria 2. Myoglobinuria Clear red urine and red plasma

Place the appropriate number or numbers in front of each of the following statements. Use both numbers for an answer if needed. 1. Hemoglobinuria 2. Myoglobinuria Produces hemosiderin granules in urinary

Place the appropriate number or numbers in front of each of the following statements. Use both numbers for an answer if needed. 1. Hemoglobinuria 2. Myoglobinuria Clear red urine and pale yellow plasma

Place the appropriate number or numbers in front of each of the following statements. Use both numbers for an answer if needed. 1. Hemoglobinuria 2. Myoglobinuria Associated with rhabdomyolysis

Place the appropriate number or numbers in front of each of the following statements. Use both numbers for an answer if needed. 1. Hemoglobinuria 2. Myoglobinuria Associated with acute renal failure

The principle of the reagent strip test for blood is based on the: A. Binding of heme and a chromogenic dye B. Peroxidase activity of heme C. Reaction of peroxide and chromogen D. Diazo activity of heme

A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates: A. Hematuria B. Hemoglobinuria C. Myoglobinuria D. All of the above

List the following products of hemoglobin degradation in the correct order by placing numbers 1 to 4 in the blank. A. ____Conjugated bilirubin B. ____Urobilinogen and stercobilinogen C. ____Urobilin D. ____Unconjugated bilirubin

The principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is the: A. Diazo reaction B. Ehrlich reaction C. Greiss reaction D. Peroxidase reaction

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of: A. Cirrhosis of the liver B. Hemolytic disease C. Hepatitis D. Biliary obstruction

The primary cause of a false-negative bilirubin reaction is: A. Highly pigmented urine B. Specimen contamination C. Specimen exposure to light D. Excess conjugated bilirubin

The purpose of the special mat supplied with the Ictotest tablets is that: A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat. B. It contains the dye needed to produce color. C. It removes interfering substances. D. Bilirubin is absorbed into the mat.

The reagent in the Multistix reaction for urobilinogen is: A. A diazonium salt B. Tetramethylbenzidine C. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde D. Hoesch reagent

The primary problem with urobilinogen tests using Ehrlich reagent is: A. Positive reactions with porphobilinogen B. Lack of specificity C. Positive reactions with Ehrlich’s reactive substances D. All of the above

The reagent strip test for nitrite uses the: A. Greiss reaction B. Ehrlich reaction C. Peroxidase reaction D. Pseudoperoxidase reaction

All of the following can cause a negative nitrite reading except: A. Gram-positive bacteria B. Gram-negative bacteria C. Random urine specimens D. Heavy bacterial infections

A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a: A. Dilute random specimen B. Specimen with lysed leukocytes C. Vaginal yeast infection D. Specimen older than 2 hours

All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte esterase reaction except: A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Lymphocytes D. Basophils

Screening tests for urinary infection combine the leukocyte esterase test with the test for: A. pH B. Nitrite C. Protein D. Blood

The principle of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip test uses a: A. Peroxidase reaction B. Double indicator reaction C. Diazo reaction D. Dye-binding technique

The principle of the reagent strip test for specific gravity uses the dissociation constant of a(n): A. Diazonium salt B. Indicator dye C. Polyelectrolyte D. Enzyme substrate

A specific gravity of 1.005 would produce the reagent strip color: A. Blue B. Green C. Yellow D. Red

Reagent strip–specific gravity readings are affected by: A. Glucose B. Radiographic dye C. Alkaline urine D. All of the above

Macroscopic screening of urine specimens is used to: A. Provide results as soon as possible B. Predict the type of urinary casts present C. Increase cost-effectiveness of urinalysis D. Decrease the need for polarized microscopy

Variations in the microscopic analysis of urine include all of the following except: A. Preparation of the urine sediment B. Amount of sediment analyzed C. Method of reporting D. Identification of formed elements

All of the following can cause false-negative microscopic results except: A. Braking the centrifuge B. Failing to mix the specimen C. Dilute alkaline urine D. Using midstream clean-catch specimens

The two factors that determine relative centrifugal force are: A. Radius of rotor head and rpm B. Radius of rotor head and time of centrifugation C. Diameter of rotor head and rpm D. RPM and time of centrifugation

When using the glass slide and cover-slip method, which of the following might be missed if the cover slip is overflowed? A. Casts B. RBCs C. WBCs D. Bacteria

Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of: A. 4× B. 10× C. 40× D. 100×

Which of the following should be used to reduce light intensity in bright-field microscopy? A. Centering screws B. Aperture diaphragm C. Rheostat D. Condenser aperture diaphragm

Which of the following are reported as number per lpf? A. RBCs B. WBCs C. Crystals D. Casts

The Sternheimer-Malbin stain is added to urine sediments to do all of the following except: A. Increase visibility of sediment constituents B. Change the constituents’ refractive index C. Decrease precipitation of crystals D. Delineate constituent structures

Nuclear detail can be enhanced by: A. Prussian blue B. Toluidine blue C. Acetic acid D. Both B and C

Which of the following lipids is/are stained by Sudan III? A. Cholesterol B. Neutral fats C. Triglycerides D. Both B and C

Which of the following lipids is/are capable of polarizing light? A. Cholesterol B. Neutral fats C. Triglycerides D. Both A and B

The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify: A. Neutrophils B. Renal tubular cells C. Eosinophils D. Monocytes

Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is: A. Hyposthenuric B. Hypersthenuric C. Highly acidic D. Highly alkaline

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except: A. Observation of budding in yeast cells B. Increased refractility of oil droplets C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid 1

A finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of: A. Glomerular bleeding B. Renal calculi C. Traumatic injury D. Coagulation disorders

Leukocytes that stain pale blue with Sternheimer- Malbin stain and exhibit brownian movement are: A. Indicative of pyelonephritis B. Basophils C. Mononuclear leukocytes D. Glitter cells

Mononuclear leukocytes are sometimes mistaken for: A. Yeast cells B. Squamous epithelial cells C. Pollen grains D. Renal tubular cells

When pyuria is detected in a urine sediment, the slide should be carefully checked for the presence of: A. RBCs B. Bacteria C. Hyaline casts D. Mucus

Transitional epithelial cells are sloughed from the: A. Collecting duct B. Vagina C. Bladder D. Proximal convoluted tubule

The largest cells in the urine sediment are: A. Squamous epithelial cells B. Urothelial epithelial cells C. Cuboidal epithelial cells D. Columnar epithelial cells

A clinically significant squamous epithelial cell is the: A. Cuboidal cell B. Clue cell C. Caudate cell D. Columnar cell

Forms of transitional epithelial cells include all of the following except: A. Spherical B. Caudate C. Convoluted D. Polyhedral

Increased transitional cells are indicative of: A. Catheterization B. Malignancy C. Pyelonephritis D. Both A and B