SUMMATIVE EXAM #4

100問 • 1年前

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Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured? A. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width B. Erythrocyte count and leukocyte count C. Leukocyte count and hematocrit D. Platelet count and platelet volume

A. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width

If the RBC distribution on histogram demonstrates a homogenous pattern and small SD, the peripheral blood smear would probably exhibit: A. Extreme anisocytosis B. Very little anisocytosis C. A single population of spherocytes D. A single population of macrocytes

B. Very little anisocytosis

The RDW and MCV are both quantitative descriptors of erythrocyte size. If both are increased, the most probable erythrocytic abnormality would be: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Acquired aplastic anemia C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Hemoglobinopathy

C. Megaloblastic anemia

In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be to the ____ of the normal distribution curve. A. Right B. Left C. Middle D. Variable

A. Right

RL flag except: A. Platelet clumps B. RBC fragments C. Giant platelets D. Cold agglutinins

D. Cold agglutinins

Mean platelet volume (MPV): A. Analogous to MCHC B. Direct measure of platelet count C. Measurement of the average volume of platelets D. Comparison of the patient’s value to the normal value

C. Measurement of the average volume of platelets

The MPV is often decreased in: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. After splenectomy

B. Megaloblastic anemia

Normal PDW: A. Less than 5% B. Less than 10% C. Less than 15% D. Less than 20%

D. Less than 20%

Which cell surface membrane marker is used for enumeration of HPC enumeration? HEMATOPOIETIC PROGENITOR CELLS A. CD 4 B. CD 8 C. CD 34 D. CD 45

C. CD 34

The normal sequence of blood cell development is: A. Yolk sac—red bone marrow—liver and spleen B. Yolk sac—thymus—liver and spleen—red bone marrow C. Yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow D. Liver and spleen—yolk sac—red bone marrow

C. Yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow

The abbreviation MAPCs stands for: A. Multiple adult progenitor cells B. Multipotent adult progenitor cells C. Many abnormal progenitor cells D. Multiply active potential cells

B. Multipotent adult progenitor cells

The best source of active bone marrow from a 20- year-old would be: A. Iliac crest B. Femur C. Distal radius D. Tibia

A. Iliac crest

Primary target cells of G-CSF, EXCEPT: A. Fibroblasts B. Leukemic myeloblasts C. Neutrophil precursors D. T and B cells

D. T and B cells

Bone marrow cellularity refers to the ratio of: A. Red cell precursors to white cell precursors B. Hematopoietic tissue to adipose tissue C. Granulocytic cells to erythrocytic cells D. Extravascular tissue to intravascular tissue

B. Hematopoietic tissue to adipose tissue

The maturational sequence(s) of the erythrocyte is (are): A. Rubriblast—prorubricyte—metarubricyte— rubricyte—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte B. Rubriblast—prorubricyte—rubricyte— metarubricyte—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte C. Pronormoblast—basophilic normoblast—polychromatophilic normoblast—orthochromic normoblast—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte D. Both B and C

D. Both B and C

The cell maturation sequence of the segmented neutrophil is: A. Promyelocyte—myeloblast—myelocyte— metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil (PMN) B. Myeloblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte— metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil (PMN) C. Monoblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte— metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil (PMN) D. Promyelocyte—myelocyte—metamyelocyte— band or stab—segmented neutrophil (PMN)

B. Myeloblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte— metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil (PMN)

The maturational sequence of the thrombocyte (platelet) is: A. Megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte— megakaryocyte—metamegakaryocyte— thrombocyte B. Promegakaryocyte—megakaryocyte— metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte C. Megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte— megakaryocyte—thrombocyte D. Megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte— metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte

C. Megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte— megakaryocyte—thrombocyte

As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in most cases: A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains the same D. Variable

B. Decreases

As a blood cell matures, the ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm (N:C) in most case: A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains the same D. Variable

B. Decreases

The chromatin pattern, in most cells, as the cell matures: A. Becomes more clumped B. Becomes less clumped C. Remains the same D. Variable

A. Becomes more clumped

IN GENERAL, cytoplasmic color in younger cells: A. Pink B. Red C. Dark blue D. Light blue

C. Dark blue

In the blast stage of DEVELOPMENT OF LEUKOCYTES, the cytoplasm of the cell is: A. Dark blue and lacks vacuoles B. Light blue and lacks granules C. Light blue and has specific granules D. Gray with many dark-blue granules

B. Light blue and lacks granules

Hemoglobin appears for the first time in the ____ maturational stage of erythrocytes. A. Second B. Third C. Fourth D. Fifth

B. Third

Which is the first stage of erythrocytic maturation in which the cytoplasm is pink due to the formation of hemoglobin? A. Reticulocyte B. Pronormoblast C. Basophilic normoblast D. Polychromatic normoblast

D. Polychromatic normoblast

With a normal diet, an erythrocyte remains in the reticulocyte stage in the circulating blood for: A. 1 day B. 2.5 days C. 3 days D. 120 days

A. 1 day

In a Wright-stained peripheral blood film, the reticulocyte will have a blue appearance. This is referred to as: A. Megaloblastic maturation B. Bluemia C. Polychromatophilia D. Erythroblastosis

C. Polychromatophilia

The types of granulocytic leukocytes found in the proliferative compartment of the bone marrow are: A. Myeloblasts, myelocyte and metamyelocytes B. Myeloblasts, promyelocytes and metamyelocytes C. Myeloblasts, promyelocytes, myelocytes and metamyelocytes D. Myeloblasts, promyelocytes, myelocytes, metamyelocytes and band neutrophils

C. Myeloblasts, promyelocytes, myelocytes and metamyelocytes

The types of granulocytic leukocytes found in the maturation-storage compartment of the bone marrow are: A. Metamyelocytes, band form neutrophils, segmented neutrophils, mature eosinophils and mature basophils B. Only band form neutrophils, segmented neutrophils, mature eosinophils and mature basophils C. Metamyelocytes, band form neutrophils, segmented neutrophils, mature eosinophils and mature basophils D. Segmented neutrophils, immature and mature monocytes and mature lymphocytes

A. Metamyelocytes, band form neutrophils, segmented neutrophils, mature eosinophils and mature basophils

Identify the cell with these characteristics: prominent primary granules that are rich in myeloperoxidase and chloroacetate esterase and have a diameter of 14 to 20 µm. A. Myeloblast B. Promyelocyte C. Myelocyte D. Promonocyte

B. Promyelocyte

The earliest granulocytic maturational stage in which secondary or specific granules appear is: A. Myeloblast B. Monoblast C. Promyelocyte D. Myelocyte

D. Myelocyte

The most mature granulocyte precursor that can undergo mitosis is the: A. Myeloblast B. Promyelocyte C. Myelocyte D. Metamyelocyte

C. Myelocyte

Which of the following can differentiate metamyelocytes from other stages of granulocyte maturation? A. Presence of specific granules B. Indentation of nucleus C. Absence of nucleoli D. Color of cytoplasm

B. Indentation of nucleus

The stage in neutrophilic development in which the nucleus is indented in a kidney bean shape and the cytoplasm has secondary granules that are lavender in color is the: A. Band B. Myelocyte C. Promyelocyte D. Metamyelocyte

D. Metamyelocyte

Which of the following are contents of basophilic granules? A. Heparin B. Histamine C. Myeloperoxidase D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

The half-life of circulating granulocytes in the blood is estimated to be: A. 2.5 to 5 hours B. 7 to 10 hours C. 24 hours D. 2 days

B. 7 to 10 hours

A characteristic of a segmented neutrophil is: A. Large orange granules B. An elongated and curved nucleus C. Light sky-blue cytoplasm D. Greatest number of WBCs in the peripheral blood of an adult

D. Greatest number of WBCs in the peripheral blood of an adult

A characteristic of mature eosinophil is: A. Large orange granules B. Elongated and curved nucleus C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm D. Kidney bean-shaped nucleus

A. Large orange granules

A characteristic of mature monocyte: A. Large orange granules B. Elongated and curved nucleus C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm D. Kidney bean-shaped nucleus

D. Kidney bean-shaped nucleus

A characteristic of mature lymphocyte is: A. Large, orange granules B. Elongated and curved cytoplasm C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm D. Kidney bean-shaped nucleus

C. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm

An increase in metamyelocytes, myelocytes and promyelocytes can be referred to as: A. Leukocytopenia B. Shift to the right C. Shift to the left D. Pelger-Huet anomaly

C. Shift to the left

The major function of the neutrophilic granulocytes: A. Antibody production B. Destruction of parasites C. Phagocytosis D. Suppression of inflammation

C. Phagocytosis

The principal leukocyte type involved in phagocytosis: A. Monocyte B. Neutrophil C. Eosinophil D. Basophil

B. Neutrophil

The major function of eosinophil is: A. Suppression of inflammatory reactions B. Destruction of protozoa C. Participation in anaphylaxis D. Phagocytosis

A. Suppression of inflammatory reactions

Which of the following is/are characteristic/s of erythropoietin? A. Glycoprotein B. Secreted by the liver C. Secreted by the kidneys D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Stimulation of erythropoietin is caused by: A. Tissue hypoxia B. Hypervolemia C. Inflammation D. Infection

A. Tissue hypoxia

Biochemical abnormalities characteristic of polycythemia vera include: A. Increased serum B12 binding capacity B. Hypohistaminemia C. Hypouricemia D. Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity

A. Increased serum B12 binding capacity

Increased erythropoietin production in secondary polycythemia can be caused by: A. Chronic lung disease B. Smoking C. Renal neoplasms D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Relative polycythemia exists when: A. Increased erythropoietin is produced B. Total blood volume is expanded C. Plasma volume is increased D. Plasma volume is decreased

D. Plasma volume is decreased

The primary pathophysiologic mechanism of anemia associated with chronic kidney disease is: A. Inadequate production of erythropoietin B. Excessive hemolysis C. Hematopoietic stem cell mutation D. Toxic destruction of stem cells

A. Inadequate production of erythropoietin

D. Toxic destruction of stem cells 650. Effect of increased amounts of 2,3-DPG to oxygen affinity of the hemoglobin molecule. A. Increases B. Decreases C. Do not alter D. Variable

B. Decreases

The most common erythrocytic enzyme deficiency involving the Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway is a deficiency of: A. ATPase B. Pyruvate kinase C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase D. Lactic dehydrogenase

B. Pyruvate kinase

The final steps in heme synthesis, including the formation of protoporphyrin take place in: A. Cell’s nucleus B. Cell’s cytoplasm C. Spleen D. Mitochondria

D. Mitochondria

In an alkaline pH (pH of 8.6) electrophoresis is performed, hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin: A. S B. F C. A D. C

D. C

The type of hemoglobin that is detectable with the Kleihauer-Betke test is: A. A B. A2 C. F D. S

C. F

f female patient is diagnosed with anemia and her follow-up assays indicated blood serum results of increased bilirubin and decreased haptoglobin and hemosiderin in her urinary sediment, what is the most probable diagnosis? A. Extravascular catabolism B. Intravascular catabolism C. Defective hemoglobin synthesis D. Thalassemia

B. Intravascular catabolism

If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape using a scale of 0 to 4+ and MANY erythrocytes deviate from normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3+ D. 4+

C. 3+

Which of the following is associated with a defect in nuclear maturation? A. Microcytes B. Sickle cells C. Megalocytes D. Acanthocytes

C. Megalocytes

Which of the following represents an imbalance between erythrocytic and plasma lipids? A. Microcytes B. Sickle cells C. Macrocytes D. Acanthocytes

D. Acanthocytes

Acanthocytes may be associated with the clinical condition of: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Abetalipoproteinemia C. Pernicious anemia D. No related disease state

B. Abetalipoproteinemia

Spherocytes: A. Short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are regularly distributed around the cell B. Fragments of erythrocytes C. The scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains after a blister cell ruptures D. Compact round shape

D. Compact round shape

Dacryocytes may be seen in: A. Hepatic disorders B. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn C. Hemoglobinopathies D. Pernicious anemia

D. Pernicious anemia

Basophilic stippling represents: A. DNA B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin C. Granules of ribosomes and RNA D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria and ribosomes

C. Granules of ribosomes and RNA

Pappenheimer bodies represent: A. DNA B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin C. Granules of ribosomes and RNA D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria and ribosomes

D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria and ribosomes

Fanconi’s anemia is associated with abnormal genes located on chromosomes: A. 9, 20 B. 5, 22 C. 9, 12 D. 8, 23

A. 9, 20

The average adult has ____g of total iron. A. 0.2 to 1.4 B. 1.5 to 3.4 C. 3.5 to 5.0 D. 5.1 to 10.0

C. 3.5 to 5.0

The cytochemical stain that can demonstrate iron, hemosiderin and ferritin is: A. New methylene blue B. Romanowsky C. Prussian blue D. Wright-Giemsa

C. Prussian blue

I What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body? A. Hemosiderin B. Ferritin C. Transferrin D. Hemoglobin

B. Ferritin

The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) of the serum is an indirect measure of which iron-related protein? A. Hemosiderin B. Ferritin C. Transferrin D. Hemoglobin

C. Transferrin

The transfer of iron from the enterocyte into the plasma is REGULATED by: A. Transferrin B. Ferroportin C. Hephaestin D. Hepcidin

D. Hepcidin

In stage 3 IDA, the erythrocyte indices are typically: A. MCV increased, MCH decreased, and MCHC decreased B. MCV decreased, MCH decreased, and MCHC decreased C. MCV decreased, MCH increased, and MCHC decreased D. MCV decreased, MCH decreased, and MCHC normal

B. MCV decreased, MCH decreased, and MCHC decreased

In megaloblastic anemia, the typical erythrocytic indices are: A. MCV increased, MCH increased, and MCHC normal B. MCV increased, MCH variable, and MCHC normal C. MCV increased, MCH decreased, and MCHC normal D. MCV normal, MCH increased, and MCHC norma

A. MCV increased, MCH increased, and MCHC normal

Which of the following can be found in a patient with classic megaloblastic anemia? A. Ovalocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils B. Hypochromic macrocytes and variant lymphocytes C. Howell-Jolly bodies and Pappenheimer bodies D. Lymphocytosis

A. Ovalocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils

n cold-type AIHA: A. IgM, usually anti-I is present B. Rh antibodies are the most frequent cause C. IgM usually occurs in newborn infants D. Autoantibodies are present

A. IgM, usually anti-I is present

Which of the following is NOT associated with hemolytic anemia? A. Decrease hemoglobin and packed cell volume B. Increased reticulocyte count C. Increased serum haptoglobin D. Decreased erythrocyte survival

C. Increased serum haptoglobin

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria exhibits sensitivity of one population of red cells to: A. Warm antibodies B. Cold antibodies C. Complement D. Either A and B

C. Complement

The defect in PNH is a/an ____ associated defect of the RBC membrane. A. Structural protein B. Hemoglobin C. Antibody D. Enzyme

A. Structural protein

What factors contribute to the sickling of erythrocytes in sickle cell disease crisis? A. Increase in blood pH and increase in oxygen B. Extremely hot weather C. Extremely reduced oxygen and increased acidity in the blood D. Sickling is spontaneous

C. Extremely reduced oxygen and increased acidity in the blood

Lymphocyte development in the thymus and bursal equivalent are: A. Antigen-independent B. Antigen-dependent C. Antibody-independent D. Antibody-dependent

A. Antigen-independent

Which of the following is characteristic of Dohle body inclusions? A. Gigantic peroxidase positive deposits B. Precipitated mucopolysaccharides C. Dark blue cytoplasmic inclusions D. Single or multiple pale-blue staining inclusions

D. Single or multiple pale-blue staining inclusions

Which of the following is characteristic of MayHegglin anomaly? A. Gigantic peroxidase-positive deposits B. Precipitated mucopolysaccharides C. Dohle body-like inclusions and giant platelets D. Single or multiple pale blue staining inclusions

C. Dohle body-like inclusions and giant platelets

Cytoplasmic inclusion in Alder-Reilly anomaly can resemble: A. Dohle bodies B. Toxic granulation C. Auer rods D. Parasites

B. Toxic granulation

azy leukocyte syndrome is associated with the: A. Neutrophilic series B. Monocytic-macrophage series C. Lymphocytic series D. Erythrocytic series

A. Neutrophilic series

Smudge cells are associated with: A. Niemann Pick disease and Burkitt’s lymphoma B. CLL C. Leukosarcoma D. Natural artifact

B. CLL

The EBV infects: A. T cells B. B cells C. Monocytes D. Macrophages

B. B cells

Multiple myeloma is a disorder of: A. T lymphocytes B. Megakaryocytes C. Plasma cells D. Lymph notes

C. Plasma cells

WM is characterized by increased levels of: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgD D. IgA

B. IgM

According to the WHO classification, except in leukemias with specific genetic anomalies, the minimal percentage of blasts necessary for a diagnosis of acute leukemia is: A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 50%

B. 20%

Acute leukemia can be described as being: A. Short duration with many mature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood B. Short duration with many immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood C. Short duration with little alteration of the leukocytes of the peripheral blood D. Long duration with many mature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

B. Short duration with many immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

Myeloid without maturation acute leukemias is classified as: A. M1 B. M4 C. M5 D. L1

A. M1

Myeloblasts, promyelocytes and myelocytes predominate in: A. M2 B. M3 C. M4 D. M6

A. M2

Many coarsely granular promyelocytes with dumbbell-shaped or bilobed nuclei predominate in: A. M2 B. M3 C. M4 D. M6

B. M3

Myeloid and monocytic acute leukemias are classified as FAB: A. M1 B. M4 C. M5 D. L1

B. M4

Monocytic acute leukemia is classified as FAB: A. M1 B. M4 C. M5 D. L1

C. M5

Immature leukocytic and erythrocytic cell types predominate in: A. M2 B. M3 C. M4 D. M6

D. M6

Chloromas are associated with: A. FAB M1 B. FAB M3 C. FAB M4 D. FAB M5

A. FAB M1

Myeloperoxidase (MPO) and Sudan Black B (SBB) staining results: A. Opposite B. Parallel C. Undetermined D. Variable

B. Parallel

Which cell type demonstrates the most intense peroxidase reaction? A. Neutrophil B. Basophil C. Lymphocyte D. Monocyte

A. Neutrophil

Cells do not exhibit myeloperoxidase (MPO) activity: A. Eosinophils B. Neutrophils C. Lymphocytes D. Monocytes

C. Lymphocytes

Detects lymphocytic cells and certain abnormal ERYTHROCYTIC CELLS by staining of cytoplasmic GLYCOGEN: A. MPO B. SBB C. PAS D. Tdt

C. PAS

100

A laboratory assay that can be used to differentiate a leukemoid reaction from chronic myelogenous leukemia is: A. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) C. Assessment of the shift to the left D. Absolute neutrophil count

A. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain

other names parasitology

Yves Laure Pimentel · 70問 · 2年前

other names parasitology