A laboratory incubator must be capable of maintaining a constant temperature. What is the optimal temperature for growing most pathogens?

An image is viewed though the microscope in which of the following ways?

How often is the stage micrometer used to calibrate the microscope?

The accidental ingestion of the organism toxoplasmosis is an example of a safety hazard in which Biosaftey Level?

The sink in a veterinary hospital laboratory is best used for what purpose?

What H+ concentration is present in a urine sample with a pH of 6?

What could be adjusted to make a urinary case more easily visualized?

What is final concentration of 60mg/dL solution that is diluted 1:5?

What is the best definition of pH?

What is equivalent temperature of 37° C in degrees Fahrenheit?

What is the equivalent temperature of 73° F in’s degrees Celsius?

What must be done to a result to give the correct value for a sample that had been diluted 1:10?

What type of variable error is represented by sample hemolysis?

What controls are defined as specific protocols within a veterinary hospital that mandate the correct use of hazardous chemicals?

What type of microscope is an essential piece of laboratory equipment for a hospital laboratory?

What type of objective lens is acceptable for most veterinary hospitals?

What type of variable error involves lack of maintenance on a laboratory instrument?

What is the total magnification of an object ring viewed with light compounding microscope that has an ocular lens with 10x magnification and the 100x objective?

An inadequate iron supply for hemoglobin synthesis necessary for extra division may result in which type of disorder?

Animals with which abnormality almost always have microcytosis that is confirmed by decreased mean cell volume (MCV)?

At a minimum, how many nucleated cells are counted to determine the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio on a bone marrow smear?

At which stage during the granulopoiesis process do the granule characteristics of mature neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil begin to appear?

Chédiak-Higashi syndrome is common in which breed of cat?

From what type of cell do erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets originate?

Granule characteristics of the mature neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil begin to appear during which stage of granulopoiesis?

How much fluid should a 10-mL blood sample yield in a well-hydrated animal?

Ideally, ample blood should be collected to yield enough serum, plasma, or whole blood to run all the planned assay how many times?

In which species can the platelets be larger than the erythrocytes?

In which type of animal would you expect to see the most osteoblasts?

The common lymphoid progenitor (CLP) product of the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) eventually gives rise to specific progenitors that develop into various populations of what type of cell?

The red blood cells in which species are biconcave discs with a distinctive center of pallor?

What condition is indicated by the presence of both macrophages and neutrophils in a bone marrow aspirate sample?

What is the MCHC for a dog with a hemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a packed cell volume of 45%?

What is the MCHC for a dog with a hemoglobin concentration of 18 g/dL and a red blood cell count of 6 x 10%/mL?

What is the MCV for a dog with a packed cell volume (PVC) of 36% and a red blood cell (RBC) count of 5.0 million/mL, the mean corpuscular volume would be which of the following?

At a minimum, how many nucleated cells are counted to determine the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio on a bone marrow smear?

How much fluid should a 10-mL sample yield from an animal with a PCV of 60%?

What condition is indicated by the presence of both macrophages and neutrophils in a bone marrow aspirate sample?

Which of the following is likely to occur when collecting a blood sample from a very excited patient that is struggling during restraint for blood collection?

Which coagulation factors are dependent on vitamin K?

Which of the following best describes the measure of the percentage of total blood volume that is composed of platelets?

Which manual coagulation test is rarely used because it is not as sensitive and requires blood collection in a syringe, a stopwatch, and three 10 × 75 mm tubes rinsed in saline?

Which is the best choice for collection of a blood sample for coagulation test?

Which red blood cell abnormality is commonly seen in patients with disseminated intravascular coagulation?

Which term describes an increase in the amount of platelets circulating in the peripheral blood?

Which is generally, the first coagulation test run if vitamin K deficiency is suspected?

Which term is the name for newly released platelets that contain high levels of RNA?

Which Vacutainer tube should be collected first when multiple sample types are needed from the same patient?

Which type of von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern characterized by low levels of vWF that is not structurally normal?

Which type of coagulation analyzer can use either whole blood or citrated samples and the results are usually provided graphically, including the clotting time, strength of the time, and length of time to break down the clot?

What is the correct indirect platelet estimate for a patient with a white blood cell count of 22,000 and a platelet count of 25 platelets per 100 white blood cells?*

Which of the following is created when tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) and plasmin combine to break down soluble fibrin?

Which of the following is true for primary coagulation disorders?

Which of the following is exposed on the surface of the platelet membrane once it is activated and acts as a binding site for the complexes of the coagulation cascade?

Which of the indices assesses the variation in the size of the platelets?

Which organ is the primary site for the production of coagulation factors?

Which of the following terms is the measure of the percentage of the total blood volume that is composed of platelets?

Which of the following is true about disseminated intravascular coagulation?

Which manual blood coagulation test requires the use of a Vacutainer tube that contains an additive such as diatomaceous earth or kaolin?

A small amount of which substance is generated in the first phase of coagulation that recruits and activates platelets and inhibits fibrinolysis?

Which coagulation factor test uses immunoassays to evaluate function?

Which term refers to pinpoint hemorrhages?

What must be present in order for a clot to break down?

Which of the following is required to stabilize the platelet plug over a ruptured blood vessel?

Which of the following is the term for the measure of the percentage of platelets that are larger than normal platelets?

Which best describes the procedure for performing a platelet estimate?

Which of the following is true regarding acquired coagulation disorders?

Which term refers membrane-bound cytoplasmic fragments released from platelets that increase the surface area to aid in coagulation?

Which is a clinical sign of a bleeding disorder that is often confused with bruising?

Which of the following terms is the alteration in platelet function?

The aggregation and adhesion of platelets to an exposed blood vessel refers to which of the following?

Which test is used to evaluate tertiary hemostasis?

What it is the result of the activation of Factor X that will continue to recruit and activate more platelets and initiate the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin?

Which is a coagulation test that evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

Which condition is characterized by microvascular thrombi that consume platelets and the coagulation factors and lead to systemic hemorrhage?

Which is another name for hemophilia B?

Which term refers to macrophages that are derived from multiple tissue types?

What is the correct term to describe invading microbes reacting with their specific naïve lymphocytes?

Which reaction grade is recorded for a cross-match result with evidence of many large agglutinates?

Which is the most common circulating immunoglobulin?

Which term refers to the ability to differentiate between antigen receptors for foreign antigens and the animal's own cells?

Which body organ produces mature T lymphocytes?

What type of test is performed to confirm a diagnosis of equine infectious anemia?

Which is another name for the cytokines that elicit other cellular reactions?

What type of sample should be submitted to use DNA testing to determine gender in a bird?

Which immunoglobulin is responsible for the opsonization of microbes for phagocytosis by macrophages?

Which of the following tests is positive if the antisera and immunoglobulins on the erythrocytes react, resulting in visible agglutination?

Which DNA test method uses a fluorescent probe that attaches to the DNA segments?

Which term refers to the binding of complement proteins to the antigen that promotes phagocytosis?

Which immunoglobulin is a pentameric molecule that is rather large and unable to enter tissue spaces?

Which of the following tests uses wells on an agar gel plate and antigens to create a visible band of precipitation for a serum sample?

Which canine blood group can create the greatest antigen response and can lead to the most severe adverse reactions?

Which immunoglobulin functions in the fetal and neonatal immunity by passive transfer from placenta and colostrum?

Which type of immunity results when preformed antibodies are administered to a patient?

Which component of the immune system involves physical and chemical barriers to prevent tissue injury or infection?

Which immunoassay is the best to use when testing bovine serum for brucellosis antibodies?

What does the acronym DEA stand for in regard to blood grouping?

This DNA test method decreases the risk of contamination and is easier to run than the traditional method.

What is another name for the rapid immunomigration test?

What is the correct term to describe when lymphocytes die when they encounter self-antigens?