問題一覧
1
What type of sample should be submitted to use DNA testing to determine gender in a bird?
Blood
2
Which is a clinical sign of a bleeding disorder that is often confused with bruising?
Ecchymotic hemorrhage
3
What does the acronym DEA stand for in regard to blood grouping?
Dog erythrocyte antigen
4
Which immunoassay is the best to use when testing bovine serum for brucellosis antibodies?
Latex agglutination
5
How much fluid should a 10-mL blood sample yield in a well-hydrated animal?
5ml
6
At a minimum, how many nucleated cells are counted to determine the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio on a bone marrow smear?
500
7
Which of the following best describes the measure of the percentage of total blood volume that is composed of platelets?
Plateletcrit
8
Which immunoglobulin functions in the fetal and neonatal immunity by passive transfer from placenta and colostrum?
IgG
9
Which coagulation factors are dependent on vitamin K?
II, VII, IX, X
10
The accidental ingestion of the organism toxoplasmosis is an example of a safety hazard in which Biosaftey Level?
Level II
11
Which of the indices assesses the variation in the size of the platelets?
Platelet distribution width
12
Which of the following is required to stabilize the platelet plug over a ruptured blood vessel?
von Willebrand factor
13
What is final concentration of 60mg/dL solution that is diluted 1:5?
12mg/dL
14
Animals with which abnormality almost always have microcytosis that is confirmed by decreased mean cell volume (MCV)?
Hypochmasia
15
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for the opsonization of microbes for phagocytosis by macrophages?
IgG
16
Which is a coagulation test that evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
Prothrombin time test
17
Which of the following terms is the alteration in platelet function?
Thrombopathia
18
Which best describes the procedure for performing a platelet estimate?
Count 10 microscopic fields on a differential blood cell film and calculate the average.
19
Which of the following is exposed on the surface of the platelet membrane once it is activated and acts as a binding site for the complexes of the coagulation cascade?
Phosphatidylserine
20
Chédiak-Higashi syndrome is common in which breed of cat?
Persian
21
Which organ is the primary site for the production of coagulation factors?
Liver
22
Which of the following is created when tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) and plasmin combine to break down soluble fibrin?
Fibrin degradation products
23
Which term is the name for newly released platelets that contain high levels of RNA?
Reticulated platelets
24
Which term refers to macrophages that are derived from multiple tissue types?
Mononuclear phagocytic systemq
25
This DNA test method decreases the risk of contamination and is easier to run than the traditional method.
Real-time polymerase chain reaction
26
Which test is used to evaluate tertiary hemostasis?
D-dimer test
27
What is the total magnification of an object ring viewed with light compounding microscope that has an ocular lens with 10x magnification and the 100x objective?
1000
28
Which of the following is likely to occur when collecting a blood sample from a very excited patient that is struggling during restraint for blood collection?
The platelet count may be elevated in the blood sample.
29
Which of the following is true for primary coagulation disorders?
Rare and usually a result of an inherited defect
30
What is the correct term to describe invading microbes reacting with their specific naïve lymphocytes?
Immunogenic
31
What condition is indicated by the presence of both macrophages and neutrophils in a bone marrow aspirate sample?
Chronic progranulomatous
32
What type of objective lens is acceptable for most veterinary hospitals?
Achromatic
33
At a minimum, how many nucleated cells are counted to determine the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio on a bone marrow smear?
500
34
What H+ concentration is present in a urine sample with a pH of 6?
10-6
35
What must be done to a result to give the correct value for a sample that had been diluted 1:10?
Divide the result by 10
36
Which of the following is true about disseminated intravascular coagulation?
It is a consumptive coagulopathy that is the result of other disease conditions.
37
A laboratory incubator must be capable of maintaining a constant temperature. What is the optimal temperature for growing most pathogens?
37° C
38
The common lymphoid progenitor (CLP) product of the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) eventually gives rise to specific progenitors that develop into various populations of what type of cell?
Lymphocytes
39
Which immunoglobulin is a pentameric molecule that is rather large and unable to enter tissue spaces?
IgM
40
Which coagulation factor test uses immunoassays to evaluate function?
Von Willebrand factor
41
In which species can the platelets be larger than the erythrocytes?
Feline
42
Which is generally, the first coagulation test run if vitamin K deficiency is suspected?
Prothrombin time
43
Which red blood cell abnormality is commonly seen in patients with disseminated intravascular coagulation?
Schistocytes
44
Which Vacutainer tube should be collected first when multiple sample types are needed from the same patient?
Blue top
45
Which is the best choice for collection of a blood sample for coagulation test?
Vacutainer
46
What type of variable error is represented by sample hemolysis?
Preanalytic variable
47
Which term refers to the ability to differentiate between antigen receptors for foreign antigens and the animal's own cells?
Immunologic tolerance
48
What is the correct term to describe when lymphocytes die when they encounter self-antigens?
Apoptosis
49
Which is the most common circulating immunoglobulin?
IgG
50
At which stage during the granulopoiesis process do the granule characteristics of mature neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil begin to appear?
myelocyte
51
Which canine blood group can create the greatest antigen response and can lead to the most severe adverse reactions?
DEA 1
52
The sink in a veterinary hospital laboratory is best used for what purpose?
To rinse, drain, or strain specimens and discard fluids
53
Which manual coagulation test is rarely used because it is not as sensitive and requires blood collection in a syringe, a stopwatch, and three 10 × 75 mm tubes rinsed in saline?
Whole blood clotting time
54
Which term refers membrane-bound cytoplasmic fragments released from platelets that increase the surface area to aid in coagulation?
Microparticles
55
What is the MCHC for a dog with a hemoglobin concentration of 18 g/dL and a red blood cell count of 6 x 10%/mL?
30pg
56
What it is the result of the activation of Factor X that will continue to recruit and activate more platelets and initiate the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin?
Thrombin
57
Which of the following terms is the measure of the percentage of the total blood volume that is composed of platelets?
Thrombocrit
58
Which DNA test method uses a fluorescent probe that attaches to the DNA segments?
Real-time polymerase chain reaction
59
How much fluid should a 10-mL sample yield from an animal with a PCV of 60%?
4ml
60
What is another name for the rapid immunomigration test?
Lateral flow assay
61
An inadequate iron supply for hemoglobin synthesis necessary for extra division may result in which type of disorder?
Microcytic anemia
62
The red blood cells in which species are biconcave discs with a distinctive center of pallor?
Canine
63
What controls are defined as specific protocols within a veterinary hospital that mandate the correct use of hazardous chemicals?
Administrative controls
64
Which of the following is the term for the measure of the percentage of platelets that are larger than normal platelets?
Platelet – large cell ratio
65
What is the correct indirect platelet estimate for a patient with a white blood cell count of 22,000 and a platelet count of 25 platelets per 100 white blood cells?*
5500 platelets/mL
66
What must be present in order for a clot to break down?
Tissue plasminogen activator
67
Which manual blood coagulation test requires the use of a Vacutainer tube that contains an additive such as diatomaceous earth or kaolin?
Activated clotting time
68
What type of microscope is an essential piece of laboratory equipment for a hospital laboratory?
Compound light
69
Which type of immunity results when preformed antibodies are administered to a patient?
Passive immunity
70
Which reaction grade is recorded for a cross-match result with evidence of many large agglutinates?
3
71
What is the MCV for a dog with a packed cell volume (PVC) of 36% and a red blood cell (RBC) count of 5.0 million/mL, the mean corpuscular volume would be which of the following?
72 fL
72
Which body organ produces mature T lymphocytes?
Thymus
73
Which of the following tests uses wells on an agar gel plate and antigens to create a visible band of precipitation for a serum sample?
Immunodiffusion
74
An image is viewed though the microscope in which of the following ways?
upside down and reversed
75
In which type of animal would you expect to see the most osteoblasts?
Juvenile
76
Which of the following is true regarding acquired coagulation disorders?
Can result from the destruction or decreased production of platelets.
77
What type of variable error involves lack of maintenance on a laboratory instrument?
Analytic variable
78
What type of test is performed to confirm a diagnosis of equine infectious anemia?
cELISA
79
Which is another name for hemophilia B?
Christmas disease
80
Which term refers to the binding of complement proteins to the antigen that promotes phagocytosis?
Opsonization
81
Which is another name for the cytokines that elicit other cellular reactions?
Interferons
82
From what type of cell do erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets originate?
Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells
83
What condition is indicated by the presence of both macrophages and neutrophils in a bone marrow aspirate sample?
Chronic progranulomatous
84
Ideally, ample blood should be collected to yield enough serum, plasma, or whole blood to run all the planned assay how many times?
3
85
Which of the following tests is positive if the antisera and immunoglobulins on the erythrocytes react, resulting in visible agglutination?
Coombs' test
86
Which term describes an increase in the amount of platelets circulating in the peripheral blood?
Thrombocytosis
87
What is equivalent temperature of 37° C in degrees Fahrenheit?
98.6° F
88
Which type of von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern characterized by low levels of vWF that is not structurally normal?
Type 2
89
What could be adjusted to make a urinary case more easily visualized?
Phase contrast
90
What is the equivalent temperature of 73° F in’s degrees Celsius?
23°
91
Which condition is characterized by microvascular thrombi that consume platelets and the coagulation factors and lead to systemic hemorrhage?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
92
A small amount of which substance is generated in the first phase of coagulation that recruits and activates platelets and inhibits fibrinolysis?
Thrombin
93
What is the best definition of pH?
A negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion
94
Granule characteristics of the mature neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil begin to appear during which stage of granulopoiesis?
Myelocyte
95
Which term refers to pinpoint hemorrhages?
Petechia
96
Which type of coagulation analyzer can use either whole blood or citrated samples and the results are usually provided graphically, including the clotting time, strength of the time, and length of time to break down the clot?
Thromboelastograph
97
Which component of the immune system involves physical and chemical barriers to prevent tissue injury or infection?
Innate
98
How often is the stage micrometer used to calibrate the microscope?
Once when the equipment is set up
99
What is the MCHC for a dog with a hemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a packed cell volume of 45%?
33.3 g/dL
100
The aggregation and adhesion of platelets to an exposed blood vessel refers to which of the following?
Mechanical hemostasis