clinical pathology 1
問題一覧
1
A laboratory incubator must be capable of maintaining a constant temperature. What is the optimal temperature for growing most pathogens?
37° C
2
An image is viewed though the microscope in which of the following ways?
upside down and reversed
3
How often is the stage micrometer used to calibrate the microscope?
Once when the equipment is set up
4
The accidental ingestion of the organism toxoplasmosis is an example of a safety hazard in which Biosaftey Level?
Level II
5
The sink in a veterinary hospital laboratory is best used for what purpose?
To rinse, drain, or strain specimens and discard fluids
6
What H+ concentration is present in a urine sample with a pH of 6?
10-6
7
What could be adjusted to make a urinary case more easily visualized?
Phase contrast
8
What is final concentration of 60mg/dL solution that is diluted 1:5?
12mg/dL
9
What is the best definition of pH?
A negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion
10
What is equivalent temperature of 37° C in degrees Fahrenheit?
98.6° F
11
What is the equivalent temperature of 73° F in’s degrees Celsius?
23°
12
What must be done to a result to give the correct value for a sample that had been diluted 1:10?
Divide the result by 10
13
What type of variable error is represented by sample hemolysis?
Preanalytic variable
14
What controls are defined as specific protocols within a veterinary hospital that mandate the correct use of hazardous chemicals?
Administrative controls
15
What type of microscope is an essential piece of laboratory equipment for a hospital laboratory?
Compound light
16
What type of objective lens is acceptable for most veterinary hospitals?
Achromatic
17
What type of variable error involves lack of maintenance on a laboratory instrument?
Analytic variable
18
What is the total magnification of an object ring viewed with light compounding microscope that has an ocular lens with 10x magnification and the 100x objective?
1000
19
An inadequate iron supply for hemoglobin synthesis necessary for extra division may result in which type of disorder?
Microcytic anemia
20
Animals with which abnormality almost always have microcytosis that is confirmed by decreased mean cell volume (MCV)?
Hypochmasia
21
At a minimum, how many nucleated cells are counted to determine the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio on a bone marrow smear?
500
22
At which stage during the granulopoiesis process do the granule characteristics of mature neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil begin to appear?
myelocyte
23
Chédiak-Higashi syndrome is common in which breed of cat?
Persian
24
From what type of cell do erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets originate?
Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells
25
Granule characteristics of the mature neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil begin to appear during which stage of granulopoiesis?
Myelocyte
26
How much fluid should a 10-mL blood sample yield in a well-hydrated animal?
5ml
27
Ideally, ample blood should be collected to yield enough serum, plasma, or whole blood to run all the planned assay how many times?
3
28
In which species can the platelets be larger than the erythrocytes?
Feline
29
In which type of animal would you expect to see the most osteoblasts?
Juvenile
30
The common lymphoid progenitor (CLP) product of the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) eventually gives rise to specific progenitors that develop into various populations of what type of cell?
Lymphocytes
31
The red blood cells in which species are biconcave discs with a distinctive center of pallor?
Canine
32
What condition is indicated by the presence of both macrophages and neutrophils in a bone marrow aspirate sample?
Chronic progranulomatous
33
What is the MCHC for a dog with a hemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a packed cell volume of 45%?
33.3 g/dL
34
What is the MCHC for a dog with a hemoglobin concentration of 18 g/dL and a red blood cell count of 6 x 10%/mL?
30pg
35
What is the MCV for a dog with a packed cell volume (PVC) of 36% and a red blood cell (RBC) count of 5.0 million/mL, the mean corpuscular volume would be which of the following?
72 fL
36
At a minimum, how many nucleated cells are counted to determine the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio on a bone marrow smear?
500
37
How much fluid should a 10-mL sample yield from an animal with a PCV of 60%?
4ml
38
What condition is indicated by the presence of both macrophages and neutrophils in a bone marrow aspirate sample?
Chronic progranulomatous
39
Which of the following is likely to occur when collecting a blood sample from a very excited patient that is struggling during restraint for blood collection?
The platelet count may be elevated in the blood sample.
40
Which coagulation factors are dependent on vitamin K?
II, VII, IX, X
41
Which of the following best describes the measure of the percentage of total blood volume that is composed of platelets?
Plateletcrit
42
Which manual coagulation test is rarely used because it is not as sensitive and requires blood collection in a syringe, a stopwatch, and three 10 × 75 mm tubes rinsed in saline?
Whole blood clotting time
43
Which is the best choice for collection of a blood sample for coagulation test?
Vacutainer
44
Which red blood cell abnormality is commonly seen in patients with disseminated intravascular coagulation?
Schistocytes
45
Which term describes an increase in the amount of platelets circulating in the peripheral blood?
Thrombocytosis
46
Which is generally, the first coagulation test run if vitamin K deficiency is suspected?
Prothrombin time
47
Which term is the name for newly released platelets that contain high levels of RNA?
Reticulated platelets
48
Which Vacutainer tube should be collected first when multiple sample types are needed from the same patient?
Blue top
49
Which type of von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern characterized by low levels of vWF that is not structurally normal?
Type 2
50
Which type of coagulation analyzer can use either whole blood or citrated samples and the results are usually provided graphically, including the clotting time, strength of the time, and length of time to break down the clot?
Thromboelastograph
51
What is the correct indirect platelet estimate for a patient with a white blood cell count of 22,000 and a platelet count of 25 platelets per 100 white blood cells?*
5500 platelets/mL
52
Which of the following is created when tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) and plasmin combine to break down soluble fibrin?
Fibrin degradation products
53
Which of the following is true for primary coagulation disorders?
Rare and usually a result of an inherited defect
54
Which of the following is exposed on the surface of the platelet membrane once it is activated and acts as a binding site for the complexes of the coagulation cascade?
Phosphatidylserine
55
Which of the indices assesses the variation in the size of the platelets?
Platelet distribution width
56
Which organ is the primary site for the production of coagulation factors?
Liver
57
Which of the following terms is the measure of the percentage of the total blood volume that is composed of platelets?
Thrombocrit
58
Which of the following is true about disseminated intravascular coagulation?
It is a consumptive coagulopathy that is the result of other disease conditions.
59
Which manual blood coagulation test requires the use of a Vacutainer tube that contains an additive such as diatomaceous earth or kaolin?
Activated clotting time
60
A small amount of which substance is generated in the first phase of coagulation that recruits and activates platelets and inhibits fibrinolysis?
Thrombin
61
Which coagulation factor test uses immunoassays to evaluate function?
Von Willebrand factor
62
Which term refers to pinpoint hemorrhages?
Petechia
63
What must be present in order for a clot to break down?
Tissue plasminogen activator
64
Which of the following is required to stabilize the platelet plug over a ruptured blood vessel?
von Willebrand factor
65
Which of the following is the term for the measure of the percentage of platelets that are larger than normal platelets?
Platelet – large cell ratio
66
Which best describes the procedure for performing a platelet estimate?
Count 10 microscopic fields on a differential blood cell film and calculate the average.
67
Which of the following is true regarding acquired coagulation disorders?
Can result from the destruction or decreased production of platelets.
68
Which term refers membrane-bound cytoplasmic fragments released from platelets that increase the surface area to aid in coagulation?
Microparticles
69
Which is a clinical sign of a bleeding disorder that is often confused with bruising?
Ecchymotic hemorrhage
70
Which of the following terms is the alteration in platelet function?
Thrombopathia
71
The aggregation and adhesion of platelets to an exposed blood vessel refers to which of the following?
Mechanical hemostasis
72
Which test is used to evaluate tertiary hemostasis?
D-dimer test
73
What it is the result of the activation of Factor X that will continue to recruit and activate more platelets and initiate the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin?
Thrombin
74
Which is a coagulation test that evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
Prothrombin time test
75
Which condition is characterized by microvascular thrombi that consume platelets and the coagulation factors and lead to systemic hemorrhage?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
76
Which is another name for hemophilia B?
Christmas disease
77
Which term refers to macrophages that are derived from multiple tissue types?
Mononuclear phagocytic systemq
78
What is the correct term to describe invading microbes reacting with their specific naïve lymphocytes?
Immunogenic
79
Which reaction grade is recorded for a cross-match result with evidence of many large agglutinates?
3
80
Which is the most common circulating immunoglobulin?
IgG
81
Which term refers to the ability to differentiate between antigen receptors for foreign antigens and the animal's own cells?
Immunologic tolerance
82
Which body organ produces mature T lymphocytes?
Thymus
83
What type of test is performed to confirm a diagnosis of equine infectious anemia?
cELISA
84
Which is another name for the cytokines that elicit other cellular reactions?
Interferons
85
What type of sample should be submitted to use DNA testing to determine gender in a bird?
Blood
86
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for the opsonization of microbes for phagocytosis by macrophages?
IgG
87
Which of the following tests is positive if the antisera and immunoglobulins on the erythrocytes react, resulting in visible agglutination?
Coombs' test
88
Which DNA test method uses a fluorescent probe that attaches to the DNA segments?
Real-time polymerase chain reaction
89
Which term refers to the binding of complement proteins to the antigen that promotes phagocytosis?
Opsonization
90
Which immunoglobulin is a pentameric molecule that is rather large and unable to enter tissue spaces?
IgM
91
Which of the following tests uses wells on an agar gel plate and antigens to create a visible band of precipitation for a serum sample?
Immunodiffusion
92
Which canine blood group can create the greatest antigen response and can lead to the most severe adverse reactions?
DEA 1
93
Which immunoglobulin functions in the fetal and neonatal immunity by passive transfer from placenta and colostrum?
IgG
94
Which type of immunity results when preformed antibodies are administered to a patient?
Passive immunity
95
Which component of the immune system involves physical and chemical barriers to prevent tissue injury or infection?
Innate
96
Which immunoassay is the best to use when testing bovine serum for brucellosis antibodies?
Latex agglutination
97
What does the acronym DEA stand for in regard to blood grouping?
Dog erythrocyte antigen
98
This DNA test method decreases the risk of contamination and is easier to run than the traditional method.
Real-time polymerase chain reaction
99
What is another name for the rapid immunomigration test?
Lateral flow assay
100
What is the correct term to describe when lymphocytes die when they encounter self-antigens?
Apoptosis
問題一覧
1
A laboratory incubator must be capable of maintaining a constant temperature. What is the optimal temperature for growing most pathogens?
37° C
2
An image is viewed though the microscope in which of the following ways?
upside down and reversed
3
How often is the stage micrometer used to calibrate the microscope?
Once when the equipment is set up
4
The accidental ingestion of the organism toxoplasmosis is an example of a safety hazard in which Biosaftey Level?
Level II
5
The sink in a veterinary hospital laboratory is best used for what purpose?
To rinse, drain, or strain specimens and discard fluids
6
What H+ concentration is present in a urine sample with a pH of 6?
10-6
7
What could be adjusted to make a urinary case more easily visualized?
Phase contrast
8
What is final concentration of 60mg/dL solution that is diluted 1:5?
12mg/dL
9
What is the best definition of pH?
A negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion
10
What is equivalent temperature of 37° C in degrees Fahrenheit?
98.6° F
11
What is the equivalent temperature of 73° F in’s degrees Celsius?
23°
12
What must be done to a result to give the correct value for a sample that had been diluted 1:10?
Divide the result by 10
13
What type of variable error is represented by sample hemolysis?
Preanalytic variable
14
What controls are defined as specific protocols within a veterinary hospital that mandate the correct use of hazardous chemicals?
Administrative controls
15
What type of microscope is an essential piece of laboratory equipment for a hospital laboratory?
Compound light
16
What type of objective lens is acceptable for most veterinary hospitals?
Achromatic
17
What type of variable error involves lack of maintenance on a laboratory instrument?
Analytic variable
18
What is the total magnification of an object ring viewed with light compounding microscope that has an ocular lens with 10x magnification and the 100x objective?
1000
19
An inadequate iron supply for hemoglobin synthesis necessary for extra division may result in which type of disorder?
Microcytic anemia
20
Animals with which abnormality almost always have microcytosis that is confirmed by decreased mean cell volume (MCV)?
Hypochmasia
21
At a minimum, how many nucleated cells are counted to determine the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio on a bone marrow smear?
500
22
At which stage during the granulopoiesis process do the granule characteristics of mature neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil begin to appear?
myelocyte
23
Chédiak-Higashi syndrome is common in which breed of cat?
Persian
24
From what type of cell do erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets originate?
Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells
25
Granule characteristics of the mature neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil begin to appear during which stage of granulopoiesis?
Myelocyte
26
How much fluid should a 10-mL blood sample yield in a well-hydrated animal?
5ml
27
Ideally, ample blood should be collected to yield enough serum, plasma, or whole blood to run all the planned assay how many times?
3
28
In which species can the platelets be larger than the erythrocytes?
Feline
29
In which type of animal would you expect to see the most osteoblasts?
Juvenile
30
The common lymphoid progenitor (CLP) product of the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) eventually gives rise to specific progenitors that develop into various populations of what type of cell?
Lymphocytes
31
The red blood cells in which species are biconcave discs with a distinctive center of pallor?
Canine
32
What condition is indicated by the presence of both macrophages and neutrophils in a bone marrow aspirate sample?
Chronic progranulomatous
33
What is the MCHC for a dog with a hemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a packed cell volume of 45%?
33.3 g/dL
34
What is the MCHC for a dog with a hemoglobin concentration of 18 g/dL and a red blood cell count of 6 x 10%/mL?
30pg
35
What is the MCV for a dog with a packed cell volume (PVC) of 36% and a red blood cell (RBC) count of 5.0 million/mL, the mean corpuscular volume would be which of the following?
72 fL
36
At a minimum, how many nucleated cells are counted to determine the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio on a bone marrow smear?
500
37
How much fluid should a 10-mL sample yield from an animal with a PCV of 60%?
4ml
38
What condition is indicated by the presence of both macrophages and neutrophils in a bone marrow aspirate sample?
Chronic progranulomatous
39
Which of the following is likely to occur when collecting a blood sample from a very excited patient that is struggling during restraint for blood collection?
The platelet count may be elevated in the blood sample.
40
Which coagulation factors are dependent on vitamin K?
II, VII, IX, X
41
Which of the following best describes the measure of the percentage of total blood volume that is composed of platelets?
Plateletcrit
42
Which manual coagulation test is rarely used because it is not as sensitive and requires blood collection in a syringe, a stopwatch, and three 10 × 75 mm tubes rinsed in saline?
Whole blood clotting time
43
Which is the best choice for collection of a blood sample for coagulation test?
Vacutainer
44
Which red blood cell abnormality is commonly seen in patients with disseminated intravascular coagulation?
Schistocytes
45
Which term describes an increase in the amount of platelets circulating in the peripheral blood?
Thrombocytosis
46
Which is generally, the first coagulation test run if vitamin K deficiency is suspected?
Prothrombin time
47
Which term is the name for newly released platelets that contain high levels of RNA?
Reticulated platelets
48
Which Vacutainer tube should be collected first when multiple sample types are needed from the same patient?
Blue top
49
Which type of von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern characterized by low levels of vWF that is not structurally normal?
Type 2
50
Which type of coagulation analyzer can use either whole blood or citrated samples and the results are usually provided graphically, including the clotting time, strength of the time, and length of time to break down the clot?
Thromboelastograph
51
What is the correct indirect platelet estimate for a patient with a white blood cell count of 22,000 and a platelet count of 25 platelets per 100 white blood cells?*
5500 platelets/mL
52
Which of the following is created when tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) and plasmin combine to break down soluble fibrin?
Fibrin degradation products
53
Which of the following is true for primary coagulation disorders?
Rare and usually a result of an inherited defect
54
Which of the following is exposed on the surface of the platelet membrane once it is activated and acts as a binding site for the complexes of the coagulation cascade?
Phosphatidylserine
55
Which of the indices assesses the variation in the size of the platelets?
Platelet distribution width
56
Which organ is the primary site for the production of coagulation factors?
Liver
57
Which of the following terms is the measure of the percentage of the total blood volume that is composed of platelets?
Thrombocrit
58
Which of the following is true about disseminated intravascular coagulation?
It is a consumptive coagulopathy that is the result of other disease conditions.
59
Which manual blood coagulation test requires the use of a Vacutainer tube that contains an additive such as diatomaceous earth or kaolin?
Activated clotting time
60
A small amount of which substance is generated in the first phase of coagulation that recruits and activates platelets and inhibits fibrinolysis?
Thrombin
61
Which coagulation factor test uses immunoassays to evaluate function?
Von Willebrand factor
62
Which term refers to pinpoint hemorrhages?
Petechia
63
What must be present in order for a clot to break down?
Tissue plasminogen activator
64
Which of the following is required to stabilize the platelet plug over a ruptured blood vessel?
von Willebrand factor
65
Which of the following is the term for the measure of the percentage of platelets that are larger than normal platelets?
Platelet – large cell ratio
66
Which best describes the procedure for performing a platelet estimate?
Count 10 microscopic fields on a differential blood cell film and calculate the average.
67
Which of the following is true regarding acquired coagulation disorders?
Can result from the destruction or decreased production of platelets.
68
Which term refers membrane-bound cytoplasmic fragments released from platelets that increase the surface area to aid in coagulation?
Microparticles
69
Which is a clinical sign of a bleeding disorder that is often confused with bruising?
Ecchymotic hemorrhage
70
Which of the following terms is the alteration in platelet function?
Thrombopathia
71
The aggregation and adhesion of platelets to an exposed blood vessel refers to which of the following?
Mechanical hemostasis
72
Which test is used to evaluate tertiary hemostasis?
D-dimer test
73
What it is the result of the activation of Factor X that will continue to recruit and activate more platelets and initiate the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin?
Thrombin
74
Which is a coagulation test that evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
Prothrombin time test
75
Which condition is characterized by microvascular thrombi that consume platelets and the coagulation factors and lead to systemic hemorrhage?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
76
Which is another name for hemophilia B?
Christmas disease
77
Which term refers to macrophages that are derived from multiple tissue types?
Mononuclear phagocytic systemq
78
What is the correct term to describe invading microbes reacting with their specific naïve lymphocytes?
Immunogenic
79
Which reaction grade is recorded for a cross-match result with evidence of many large agglutinates?
3
80
Which is the most common circulating immunoglobulin?
IgG
81
Which term refers to the ability to differentiate between antigen receptors for foreign antigens and the animal's own cells?
Immunologic tolerance
82
Which body organ produces mature T lymphocytes?
Thymus
83
What type of test is performed to confirm a diagnosis of equine infectious anemia?
cELISA
84
Which is another name for the cytokines that elicit other cellular reactions?
Interferons
85
What type of sample should be submitted to use DNA testing to determine gender in a bird?
Blood
86
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for the opsonization of microbes for phagocytosis by macrophages?
IgG
87
Which of the following tests is positive if the antisera and immunoglobulins on the erythrocytes react, resulting in visible agglutination?
Coombs' test
88
Which DNA test method uses a fluorescent probe that attaches to the DNA segments?
Real-time polymerase chain reaction
89
Which term refers to the binding of complement proteins to the antigen that promotes phagocytosis?
Opsonization
90
Which immunoglobulin is a pentameric molecule that is rather large and unable to enter tissue spaces?
IgM
91
Which of the following tests uses wells on an agar gel plate and antigens to create a visible band of precipitation for a serum sample?
Immunodiffusion
92
Which canine blood group can create the greatest antigen response and can lead to the most severe adverse reactions?
DEA 1
93
Which immunoglobulin functions in the fetal and neonatal immunity by passive transfer from placenta and colostrum?
IgG
94
Which type of immunity results when preformed antibodies are administered to a patient?
Passive immunity
95
Which component of the immune system involves physical and chemical barriers to prevent tissue injury or infection?
Innate
96
Which immunoassay is the best to use when testing bovine serum for brucellosis antibodies?
Latex agglutination
97
What does the acronym DEA stand for in regard to blood grouping?
Dog erythrocyte antigen
98
This DNA test method decreases the risk of contamination and is easier to run than the traditional method.
Real-time polymerase chain reaction
99
What is another name for the rapid immunomigration test?
Lateral flow assay
100
What is the correct term to describe when lymphocytes die when they encounter self-antigens?
Apoptosis