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NHJNKET71

NHJNKET71
100問 • 2年前
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    問題一覧

  • 1

    When using net present worth calculations to compare two projects, which of the following could invalidate the calculation?

    evaluating over different time periods

  • 2

    What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?

    different equivalent uniform annual cash flows

  • 3

    Which of the following is true regarding the minimum attractive rate of return used in judging proposed investments?

    It is frequently a policy decision made by an organization's management.

  • 4

    Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

    Effective rate of return in options (A), (B), and (C) is the difference between 12.55% and 12%.

  • 5

    Which of the following situations has a conventional cash flow so that an internal rate of return can be safely calculated and used?

    You invest in a safe dividend stock and receive dividends each year.

  • 6

    The economic order quantity (EOQ) is defined as the order quantity that minimizes the inventory cost per unit time. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the basic EOQ model with no shortages?

    There is an upper bound on the quantity ordered.

  • 7

    Which of the following events will cause the optimal lot size, given by the classic EOQ model with no shortages, to increase?

    a decrease in inventory carrying cost and a decrease in demand

  • 8

    What is a borrower of a particular loan almost always required to do during repayment?

    repay the loan over an agreed-upon amount of time

  • 9

    What is "work in process" classified as?

    An asset

  • 10

    What is the indirect product cost (IC) spending variance?

    the difference between actual IPC and IPC volume-adjusted budget

  • 11

    Firm A uses full absorption costing while firm B uses variable product costing. How will the financial statements of these companies differ?

    Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold, higher inventory value, and higher retained earnings.

  • 12

    How is the material purchase price variance defined?

    (quantity purchased) (actual price) - (quantity purchased)(standard price)

  • 13

    Which of the following does NOT affect owner's equity?

    license to start operation

  • 14

    Higrow Company is planning to grow 30% during the next fiscal year. What has to increase if Higrow is to achieve their goal?

    Any combination of choices

  • 15

    Companies A and B are identical except for their inventory accounting systems. Company A uses the last-in, first-out convention while company B uses the first-in, first-out convention. How will their financial statements differ in an inflationary environment?

    Company B's profits and inventory book value will be higher than for company A.

  • 16

    What is the acid test ratio?

    the ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities

  • 17

    Which statement is true for a fluid?

    It cannot sustain a shear force at rest.

  • 18

    Which of the following is NOT a basic component of motion of a fluid element?

    Twist

  • 19

    Which of the following must be satisfied by the flow of any fluid, real or ideal? I. Newton's second law of motion II. the continuity equation III. the requirement of a uniform velocity distribution IV. Newton's law of viscosity V. the principle of conservation of energy

    I, II, and V

  • 20

    Surface tension has which of the following properties? I. It has units of force per unit length. II. It exists whenever there is a density discontinuity. III. It is strongly affected by pressure.

    I and II

  • 21

    A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main cause of this phenomenon?

    Surface Tension

  • 22

    Which of the following describes shear stress in a moving Newtonian fluid?

    (D) both A and B

  • 23

    If the shear stress in a fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the following describes the fluid?

    It is a Newtonian fluid.

  • 24

    How are lines of constant pressure in a fluid related to the force field?

    They are perpendicular to the force field.

  • 25

    Which of the following statements about a streamline is most accurate?

    It is fixed in space in steady flow.

  • 26

    Which of the following describes a streamline? I. It is a mathematical concept. II. It cannot be crossed by the flow. III. It is a line of constant entropy.

    I, II

  • 27

    Under what conditions is mass conserved in fluid flow?

    It is always conserved

  • 28

    What is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at a surface?

    the velocity of the surface

  • 29

    Which of the statements is true concerning the following continuity equation?

    It is derived from the principle of conservation of mass.

  • 30

    What is the origin of the energy conservation equation used in flow systems?

    First Law of Thermodynamics

  • 31

    Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli's law for fluid flow?

    the principle of conservation of energy

  • 32

    Under which of the following conditions is Bernoulli's equation valid?

    all of the above

  • 33

    Which combination of the following conditions is necessary and sufficient to reduce the first law of thermodynamics for a control volume to Bernoulli's equa-tion? I. steady flow II. incompressible fluid III. no frictional losses of energy IV. no heat transfer or change in internal energy

    I, II, III and IV

  • 34

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    The Reynolds number is the ratio of the viscous force to the inertial force.

  • 35

    Which of the following flow meters measure(s) the average fluid velocity rather than a point or local velocity in a pipe? I. venturi meter Il. pitot tube III. impact tube IV. orifice meter V. hot-wire anemometer

    I and IV

  • 36

    Which of the following are intensive properties? I. temperature II. pressure III. composition IV. mass

    I, II, and III

  • 37

    How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound?

    2

  • 38

    Which of the following thermodynamic relations is INCORRECT?

    H = U + PV

  • 39

    Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where en-thalpy is zero?

    Internal energy is negative

  • 40

    On what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted?

    h-s

  • 41

    How is the quality, 2, of a liquid-vapor mixture defined?

    the fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor

  • 42

    The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?

    conservation of energy

  • 43

    The general energy equation for an open system involves the following five terms. I. accumulation of energy II. net energy transfer by work (standard sign convention) III. net energy transfer by heat (standard sign convention) IV. transfer of energy in by mass flow V. transfer of energy out by mass flow

    I = -II + III + IV - V

  • 44

    What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?

    zero

  • 45

    The expansion of a gas through a plug at a high pressure results in a temperature rise, while at lower pressures a temperature drop occurs. The Joule Thompson coefficient, jr, is defined as the ratio of the change in temperature to the change in pressure. The temperature at which yr changes from positive to negative is called the inversion temperature. When sr is negative, which of the following statements is true?

    Gases may be liquified by pressurization.

  • 46

    How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?

    both: heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible

  • 47

    During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?

    It is always zero.

  • 48

    Which of the following is true for any process?

    ASsurroundings + ASsystem ≥ 0

  • 49

    Which of the following thermodynamic cycles is the most efficient?

    Carnot

  • 50

    The ideal reversible Carnot cycle involves several basic processes. What type of processes are they?

    two isothermal and two isentropic

  • 51

    Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an open Rankine cycle?

    increased boiler life

  • 52

    Which of the following statements regarding Rankine cycles is FALSE?

    In practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine materials to corrosion is not a key limitation on the operating efficiency.

  • 53

    Which of the following sets of reversible processes describes an ideal Otto cycle? I. adiabatic compression, constant volume heat addition, adiabatic expan-sion, constant volume heat rejection II. isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition, isothermal expansion, isobaric heat rejection

    I only

  • 54

    The mole is a basic unit of measurement in chemistry. Which of the following is NOT equal to or the same as 1 mol of the substance indicated?

    16 g of oxygen (02) molecules

  • 55

    Which one of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?

    0°C and one atmosphere pressure

  • 56

    Which of the following statements is FALSE for an ideal gas?

    The molecules behave as solid spheres of finite radius.

  • 57

    The following statements are made with regard to the boiling point of a liquid. Which statement is FALSE?

    At high elevations, water boils at a lower temperature because of a reduction in the surface tension of the water.

  • 58

    The critical point for a mixture occurs for which of the following cases?

    The vapor and liquid exist in a single form.

  • 59

    How is "molality" defined?

    the number of moles of solute in 1000 g of solvent

  • 60

    Which of the following postulates does Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom in-volve?

    In any of its energy states, the electron moves in a circular orbit about the nucleus.

  • 61

    Which of the following elements and compounds is reactive in its pure form?

    Na

  • 62

    Two major types of chemical bonds are observed in chemical bonding: ionic and covalent. Which of the following has a bond that is the least ionic in character?

    H2

  • 63

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    It is not possible for bonds between a pair of atoms to be different (e.g., different bond lengths or bond energies) in different compounds.

  • 64

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    The change in enthalpy is negative when energy is absorbed in the formation of a compound from its elements.

  • 65

    Which of the following chemical equations is incorrect?

    ZnS + 02 - SOz + ZnO

  • 66

    Which of the following is the result of the reaction given? 5S02 + 2KMnO4 + 2H20

    2MnS04 + K2S04 + 2H2S01

  • 67

    NazCO; reacts with HCI, but not by the stoichiometry implied in the following unbalanced chemical equation. Na2CO3 + HCI --- NaCI + H20 + CO2 What is the smallest possible whole-number coefficient for Na2CO3 in the balanced equation?

    1

  • 68

    Which of the following is the result of the reaction given? 5S02 + 2KMnO4 + 2H20 --

    2MnS04 + K2S04 + 2H2SO4

  • 69

    A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs?

    It loses electrons

  • 70

    In order to assign oxidation states in polyatomic molecules, which of the following rules is followed?

    The oxidation of all elements in any allotropic form is zero.

  • 71

    What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in NO3-?

    +5

  • 72

    What is the oxidation number of Cr in the dichromate ion (Cr207)-2?

    6

  • 73

    Which are the oxidizing and reducing agents in the following reaction? 2CCI + K2CrO4 -+ 2Cl2CO + CrO2CI2 + 2KCI

    There are no oxidizing or reducing agents in this reaction.

  • 74

    Reactions generally proceed faster at higher temperatures because of which of the following?

    (D) Both options (A) and (B).

  • 75

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    The differential rate law is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a reaction depends on volume.

  • 76

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    When the temperature is raised, the rate of any reaction is always increased.

  • 77

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    In considering chemical equilibrium, the pathway from the initial state to the final state is important.

  • 78

    The voltage of a galvanic cell does NOT depend on which of the following parameters?

    volume of the solutions

  • 79

    Which one of the following statements regarding organic substances is false?

    Organic matter is generally stable at very high temperatures.

  • 80

    Which one of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic?

    The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are found to have no effect on limestone.

  • 81

    Which of the following organic chemicals is most soluble in water?

    CH3ОН

  • 82

    Which statement about area moments of inertia is FALSE?

    The areas closest to the axis of interest contribute most to the moment of inertia.

  • 83

    Which of the following affects most of the electrical and thermal properties of materials?

    the electrons, particularly the outermost ones

  • 84

    What are van der Waals forces?

    weak secondary bonds between atoms

  • 85

    Cesium (Cs) and sodium (Na) both have the same valence (+1), yet with chlorine (CI), cesium has a coordination number of 8 in CsCI, while sodium has a coordination number of only 6 in NaCI. What is the main reason for this difference?

    Cs is too large to be coordinated by only 6 chloride ions.

  • 86

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    Oxides, carbides, and nitrides are considered to be within the class of materials known as glasses.

  • 87

    Which of the following materials is NOT a viscoelastic material?

    metal

  • 88

    In molecules of the same composition, what are variations of atomic arrange ments known as?

    Isomers

  • 89

    Which of the following accurately describes differences between crystalline polymers and simple crystals? I. Crystalline polymers, unlike simple crystals, are made of folded chains of atoms. II. Crystal size can be increased by raising the crystallization temperature only in polymers. III. While a simple crystal may be totally crystallized, a polymer can reach only partial crystallization.

    I and III

  • 90

    Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have which of the following?

    an atactic configuration of side groups

  • 91

    What is the atomic packing factor (APF) for a simple cubic crystal?

    0.52

  • 92

    How many atoms are in the unit cell of a body-centered cubic structure?

    2

  • 93

    How many atoms are there per unit cell for a face-centered cubic structure?

    4

  • 94

    What is the first coordination number of a body-centered cubic structure?

    8

  • 95

    What is the first coordination number of a face-centered cubic structure?

    12

  • 96

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    Both lead and cadmium have a hexagonal close-packed crystal structure.

  • 97

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a rhombohedral unit cell are: (1/2 1/2 1/2).

  • 98

    How are the close-packed planes in a face-centered cubic metal designated?

    (111)

  • 99

    Which crystal structure possesses the highest number of close-packed planes and close-packed directions?

    face-centered cubic

  • 100

    What are the most common slip planes for face-centered cubic and body-centered cubic structures, respectively?

    face-centered: (1 1 1); body-centered: (1 1 0)

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    問題一覧

  • 1

    When using net present worth calculations to compare two projects, which of the following could invalidate the calculation?

    evaluating over different time periods

  • 2

    What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?

    different equivalent uniform annual cash flows

  • 3

    Which of the following is true regarding the minimum attractive rate of return used in judging proposed investments?

    It is frequently a policy decision made by an organization's management.

  • 4

    Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

    Effective rate of return in options (A), (B), and (C) is the difference between 12.55% and 12%.

  • 5

    Which of the following situations has a conventional cash flow so that an internal rate of return can be safely calculated and used?

    You invest in a safe dividend stock and receive dividends each year.

  • 6

    The economic order quantity (EOQ) is defined as the order quantity that minimizes the inventory cost per unit time. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the basic EOQ model with no shortages?

    There is an upper bound on the quantity ordered.

  • 7

    Which of the following events will cause the optimal lot size, given by the classic EOQ model with no shortages, to increase?

    a decrease in inventory carrying cost and a decrease in demand

  • 8

    What is a borrower of a particular loan almost always required to do during repayment?

    repay the loan over an agreed-upon amount of time

  • 9

    What is "work in process" classified as?

    An asset

  • 10

    What is the indirect product cost (IC) spending variance?

    the difference between actual IPC and IPC volume-adjusted budget

  • 11

    Firm A uses full absorption costing while firm B uses variable product costing. How will the financial statements of these companies differ?

    Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold, higher inventory value, and higher retained earnings.

  • 12

    How is the material purchase price variance defined?

    (quantity purchased) (actual price) - (quantity purchased)(standard price)

  • 13

    Which of the following does NOT affect owner's equity?

    license to start operation

  • 14

    Higrow Company is planning to grow 30% during the next fiscal year. What has to increase if Higrow is to achieve their goal?

    Any combination of choices

  • 15

    Companies A and B are identical except for their inventory accounting systems. Company A uses the last-in, first-out convention while company B uses the first-in, first-out convention. How will their financial statements differ in an inflationary environment?

    Company B's profits and inventory book value will be higher than for company A.

  • 16

    What is the acid test ratio?

    the ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities

  • 17

    Which statement is true for a fluid?

    It cannot sustain a shear force at rest.

  • 18

    Which of the following is NOT a basic component of motion of a fluid element?

    Twist

  • 19

    Which of the following must be satisfied by the flow of any fluid, real or ideal? I. Newton's second law of motion II. the continuity equation III. the requirement of a uniform velocity distribution IV. Newton's law of viscosity V. the principle of conservation of energy

    I, II, and V

  • 20

    Surface tension has which of the following properties? I. It has units of force per unit length. II. It exists whenever there is a density discontinuity. III. It is strongly affected by pressure.

    I and II

  • 21

    A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main cause of this phenomenon?

    Surface Tension

  • 22

    Which of the following describes shear stress in a moving Newtonian fluid?

    (D) both A and B

  • 23

    If the shear stress in a fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the following describes the fluid?

    It is a Newtonian fluid.

  • 24

    How are lines of constant pressure in a fluid related to the force field?

    They are perpendicular to the force field.

  • 25

    Which of the following statements about a streamline is most accurate?

    It is fixed in space in steady flow.

  • 26

    Which of the following describes a streamline? I. It is a mathematical concept. II. It cannot be crossed by the flow. III. It is a line of constant entropy.

    I, II

  • 27

    Under what conditions is mass conserved in fluid flow?

    It is always conserved

  • 28

    What is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at a surface?

    the velocity of the surface

  • 29

    Which of the statements is true concerning the following continuity equation?

    It is derived from the principle of conservation of mass.

  • 30

    What is the origin of the energy conservation equation used in flow systems?

    First Law of Thermodynamics

  • 31

    Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli's law for fluid flow?

    the principle of conservation of energy

  • 32

    Under which of the following conditions is Bernoulli's equation valid?

    all of the above

  • 33

    Which combination of the following conditions is necessary and sufficient to reduce the first law of thermodynamics for a control volume to Bernoulli's equa-tion? I. steady flow II. incompressible fluid III. no frictional losses of energy IV. no heat transfer or change in internal energy

    I, II, III and IV

  • 34

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    The Reynolds number is the ratio of the viscous force to the inertial force.

  • 35

    Which of the following flow meters measure(s) the average fluid velocity rather than a point or local velocity in a pipe? I. venturi meter Il. pitot tube III. impact tube IV. orifice meter V. hot-wire anemometer

    I and IV

  • 36

    Which of the following are intensive properties? I. temperature II. pressure III. composition IV. mass

    I, II, and III

  • 37

    How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound?

    2

  • 38

    Which of the following thermodynamic relations is INCORRECT?

    H = U + PV

  • 39

    Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where en-thalpy is zero?

    Internal energy is negative

  • 40

    On what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted?

    h-s

  • 41

    How is the quality, 2, of a liquid-vapor mixture defined?

    the fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor

  • 42

    The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?

    conservation of energy

  • 43

    The general energy equation for an open system involves the following five terms. I. accumulation of energy II. net energy transfer by work (standard sign convention) III. net energy transfer by heat (standard sign convention) IV. transfer of energy in by mass flow V. transfer of energy out by mass flow

    I = -II + III + IV - V

  • 44

    What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?

    zero

  • 45

    The expansion of a gas through a plug at a high pressure results in a temperature rise, while at lower pressures a temperature drop occurs. The Joule Thompson coefficient, jr, is defined as the ratio of the change in temperature to the change in pressure. The temperature at which yr changes from positive to negative is called the inversion temperature. When sr is negative, which of the following statements is true?

    Gases may be liquified by pressurization.

  • 46

    How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?

    both: heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible

  • 47

    During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?

    It is always zero.

  • 48

    Which of the following is true for any process?

    ASsurroundings + ASsystem ≥ 0

  • 49

    Which of the following thermodynamic cycles is the most efficient?

    Carnot

  • 50

    The ideal reversible Carnot cycle involves several basic processes. What type of processes are they?

    two isothermal and two isentropic

  • 51

    Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an open Rankine cycle?

    increased boiler life

  • 52

    Which of the following statements regarding Rankine cycles is FALSE?

    In practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine materials to corrosion is not a key limitation on the operating efficiency.

  • 53

    Which of the following sets of reversible processes describes an ideal Otto cycle? I. adiabatic compression, constant volume heat addition, adiabatic expan-sion, constant volume heat rejection II. isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition, isothermal expansion, isobaric heat rejection

    I only

  • 54

    The mole is a basic unit of measurement in chemistry. Which of the following is NOT equal to or the same as 1 mol of the substance indicated?

    16 g of oxygen (02) molecules

  • 55

    Which one of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?

    0°C and one atmosphere pressure

  • 56

    Which of the following statements is FALSE for an ideal gas?

    The molecules behave as solid spheres of finite radius.

  • 57

    The following statements are made with regard to the boiling point of a liquid. Which statement is FALSE?

    At high elevations, water boils at a lower temperature because of a reduction in the surface tension of the water.

  • 58

    The critical point for a mixture occurs for which of the following cases?

    The vapor and liquid exist in a single form.

  • 59

    How is "molality" defined?

    the number of moles of solute in 1000 g of solvent

  • 60

    Which of the following postulates does Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom in-volve?

    In any of its energy states, the electron moves in a circular orbit about the nucleus.

  • 61

    Which of the following elements and compounds is reactive in its pure form?

    Na

  • 62

    Two major types of chemical bonds are observed in chemical bonding: ionic and covalent. Which of the following has a bond that is the least ionic in character?

    H2

  • 63

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    It is not possible for bonds between a pair of atoms to be different (e.g., different bond lengths or bond energies) in different compounds.

  • 64

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    The change in enthalpy is negative when energy is absorbed in the formation of a compound from its elements.

  • 65

    Which of the following chemical equations is incorrect?

    ZnS + 02 - SOz + ZnO

  • 66

    Which of the following is the result of the reaction given? 5S02 + 2KMnO4 + 2H20

    2MnS04 + K2S04 + 2H2S01

  • 67

    NazCO; reacts with HCI, but not by the stoichiometry implied in the following unbalanced chemical equation. Na2CO3 + HCI --- NaCI + H20 + CO2 What is the smallest possible whole-number coefficient for Na2CO3 in the balanced equation?

    1

  • 68

    Which of the following is the result of the reaction given? 5S02 + 2KMnO4 + 2H20 --

    2MnS04 + K2S04 + 2H2SO4

  • 69

    A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs?

    It loses electrons

  • 70

    In order to assign oxidation states in polyatomic molecules, which of the following rules is followed?

    The oxidation of all elements in any allotropic form is zero.

  • 71

    What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in NO3-?

    +5

  • 72

    What is the oxidation number of Cr in the dichromate ion (Cr207)-2?

    6

  • 73

    Which are the oxidizing and reducing agents in the following reaction? 2CCI + K2CrO4 -+ 2Cl2CO + CrO2CI2 + 2KCI

    There are no oxidizing or reducing agents in this reaction.

  • 74

    Reactions generally proceed faster at higher temperatures because of which of the following?

    (D) Both options (A) and (B).

  • 75

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    The differential rate law is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a reaction depends on volume.

  • 76

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    When the temperature is raised, the rate of any reaction is always increased.

  • 77

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    In considering chemical equilibrium, the pathway from the initial state to the final state is important.

  • 78

    The voltage of a galvanic cell does NOT depend on which of the following parameters?

    volume of the solutions

  • 79

    Which one of the following statements regarding organic substances is false?

    Organic matter is generally stable at very high temperatures.

  • 80

    Which one of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic?

    The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are found to have no effect on limestone.

  • 81

    Which of the following organic chemicals is most soluble in water?

    CH3ОН

  • 82

    Which statement about area moments of inertia is FALSE?

    The areas closest to the axis of interest contribute most to the moment of inertia.

  • 83

    Which of the following affects most of the electrical and thermal properties of materials?

    the electrons, particularly the outermost ones

  • 84

    What are van der Waals forces?

    weak secondary bonds between atoms

  • 85

    Cesium (Cs) and sodium (Na) both have the same valence (+1), yet with chlorine (CI), cesium has a coordination number of 8 in CsCI, while sodium has a coordination number of only 6 in NaCI. What is the main reason for this difference?

    Cs is too large to be coordinated by only 6 chloride ions.

  • 86

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    Oxides, carbides, and nitrides are considered to be within the class of materials known as glasses.

  • 87

    Which of the following materials is NOT a viscoelastic material?

    metal

  • 88

    In molecules of the same composition, what are variations of atomic arrange ments known as?

    Isomers

  • 89

    Which of the following accurately describes differences between crystalline polymers and simple crystals? I. Crystalline polymers, unlike simple crystals, are made of folded chains of atoms. II. Crystal size can be increased by raising the crystallization temperature only in polymers. III. While a simple crystal may be totally crystallized, a polymer can reach only partial crystallization.

    I and III

  • 90

    Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have which of the following?

    an atactic configuration of side groups

  • 91

    What is the atomic packing factor (APF) for a simple cubic crystal?

    0.52

  • 92

    How many atoms are in the unit cell of a body-centered cubic structure?

    2

  • 93

    How many atoms are there per unit cell for a face-centered cubic structure?

    4

  • 94

    What is the first coordination number of a body-centered cubic structure?

    8

  • 95

    What is the first coordination number of a face-centered cubic structure?

    12

  • 96

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    Both lead and cadmium have a hexagonal close-packed crystal structure.

  • 97

    Which of the following statements is FALSE?

    The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a rhombohedral unit cell are: (1/2 1/2 1/2).

  • 98

    How are the close-packed planes in a face-centered cubic metal designated?

    (111)

  • 99

    Which crystal structure possesses the highest number of close-packed planes and close-packed directions?

    face-centered cubic

  • 100

    What are the most common slip planes for face-centered cubic and body-centered cubic structures, respectively?

    face-centered: (1 1 1); body-centered: (1 1 0)