問題一覧
1
__________ is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of individual attacks and the situation requires the JTAC/FAC (A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and visually acquire the target for each attack.
Type 1 Control
2
What is the minimum illumination HOB correction?
50 meters
3
____________________ is an offensive task that is designed to develop the situation or regain contact.
Movement to Contact
4
_____________________ is the related tasks and systems that provide collective and coordinated use of Army indirect fires, air and missile defense, and joint fires through the targeting process
Fires Warfighting Function
5
The method of engagement consists of
type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and mark
6
Tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with a particular operation.
Neutralize
7
The second step of the targeting process, ___________, directs how and which target acquisition assets find the specified targets to the requisite level of accuracy.
Detect
8
What is this
Hercules
9
____________ is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to minimize their vision.
Obscuring Smoke
10
What is this
Pantsyr-S1
11
Methods of Engagement: If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they use in the call for fire?
Followed By
12
True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the observer’s location.
False
13
What is this
Jaguar
14
Attitude is sent to the nearest _______ and less than 3200 mils.
100 mils
15
What is this
BM-11
16
A _______________ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack.
Program of Targets
17
What brevity term is sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
Visual
18
When engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under fire, the observer announces __________________ (followed by the target location).
Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
19
What is the initial height of burst for 105mm Illumination?
750
20
What is this
Hind
21
What is this
BTR-80
22
If there is a significant difference in vertical shift (greater than or equal to _________ meters in altitude between the observer's position or known point and the target), the observer includes the vertical shift in his target location (expressed to the nearest _______ meters).
35, 5
23
In the event the Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to
Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud
24
True / False: The three HOB spottings are air, graze, and mixed.
False
25
Illumination range and deviation correction of less than ________ meters should not be made.
200
26
___________ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets
Collateral Damage
27
True / False: A spotting of “LINE” is a round that impacts on line with the adjusting point as seen by the observer (on the observer-target line).
True
28
____________ normally produces the specific effect on a target with the minimum expenditure of ammunition. It also reduces our vulnerability to adversary target acquisition.
Massing Fires
29
Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic7 compass on a tripod or other stable platform, the observer can measure direction to an accuracy of ____________. Take care when using a compass around electronic devices such as radios and computers, or large concentrations of metal such as vehicles. Observers should move about ____________ away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings.
10 mils and 50 meters
30
A _____________ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time.
Scheduled Target
31
Which fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75 inch rockets, AGM 65, GBU, and GP bombs?
F-16
32
What munition is available to utilize with the 120mm mortar that minimizes collateral damage and reduces the number of rounds required to defeat targets?
APMI
33
________________ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces. Both can be executed as either hasty or deliberate attacks and are typically supported with integrated joint fires (ATP 304.1). US Army attack helicopters can also perform close air support (CAS) in support of another component. The United States Marine Corps (USMC) employs its attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform. Attack helicopters can employ precision guided munitions and provide terminal guidance for other weapon platforms.
Army Attack Aviation
34
Using flash to bang, the observer counts the number of seconds between the time the round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang) and multiply by _________ meters/second. The answer is the approximate number of meters between the observer and the round.
350
35
A _______________ is an area from which radar is prohibited from reporting acquisitions. Normally placed around friendly weapon systems to prevent them from being acquired by friendly radars.
Censor Zone
36
_________________is the geographical area where high-value targets can be acquired and engaged by friendly forces
Target Area of Interest
37
True / False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction missions.
Falss
38
What spotting would an observer make if the round was a dud (nonfunctioning fuze), resulting in no visual or audible identification.
Lost
39
Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE when they split a ______ meter bracket. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is _____ meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a _____ meter bracket is split.
100, 38, 200
40
n artillery and mortar calls for fire, the observers will always convert direction to __________ direction in the CFF request.
Grid
41
True / False: During impact registration range refinement, if the registration point is nearer the last round(s) fired, no range refinement is necessary to move the impact toward the registration point.
True
42
What is this
Hercules
43
. In the initial call for fire the observer should announce ______________ to indicate the observer cannot see the target (because of vegetation, terrain, weather, intensity of the conflict, or smoke).
Cannot Observe
44
True / False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two overs and two shorts) along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 50 meters apart.
True
45
The illumination shell is a base ejection projectile containing a flare attached to a parachute. What is NOT a use of Illumination?
Mark Friendly Locations for CAS attacks
46
During an ILLUM mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. You are observing 155mm M485A2 illumination and the rate of decent is 5 meters per second. What HOB correction do you send?
Up 50
47
_____________________ is a support relationship requiring a force to support another supporting unit
Reinforcing
48
Use the ____________________ pattern when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination.
Two Gun Illumination
49
____________________ occurs when a unit passes through another unit’s positions while moving toward the enemy
Forward Passage of Lines
50
______________ can support or conduct close combat attack, CAS, strike coordination and reconnaissance, AI, and other joint fires missions. Specific tasks for the ______________ may include target acquisition and marking, terminal guidance of ordinance, providing accurate coordinates for precision-guided munitions.
Unmanned Aircraft
51
________________ is fires that directly support land, maritime, amphibious, and special operations forces to engage enemy forces, combat formations, and facilities in pursuit of tactical and operational objectives (Joint Publication [JP] 3-09.3). It requires close coordination and integration with maneuver forces. Effective fire support requires an observer that understands the tasks to accomplish and how these tasks support the overall operation. The observer must be able to accurately locate targets, understand which targets to attack, and effectively communicate what he sees to the rest of the fire support community.
Fire Support
52
Permissive fire support coordination measures ____________ the attack of targets by reducing the coordination necessary for the clearance of fires.
Facilitate
53
Brevity: The laser designator system is inoperative
Dead Eye
54
_____________________ is the act of designing an operating force, support staff, or sustainment package of specific size and composition to meet a unique task or mission
Task Organizing
55
A _____________________ is a subordinate operational component of a tactical air control system designed to provide air liaison to land forces and for the control of aircraft.
Tactical Air Control Party
56
A ____________________ is a criterion used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or operational environment that is tied to measuring the attainment of an end state, achievement of an objective, or creation of an effect.
Measure of Effectiveness
57
What is the max range of the M252 81mm mortar?
5800
58
If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket, (instead of the last round) the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD ____ or DROP _____.
20
59
What is
BTR-80
60
True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and deception.
False
61
What is this
Mirage
62
Actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly mission.
Decieve
63
True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.
True
64
_____________ is an offensive task designed to catch or cut of a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it
Pursuit
65
What is this
Osprey
66
In a polar plot mission a _____________ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is located above or below the observer's location.
Vertical Shift
67
_________ is the first step in the targeting process. It begins with the military decision-making process (MDMP). It does not end when the plan is completed; the decide function continues throughout the operation.
Decide
68
__________________ is a defensive task that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force
Mobile Defense
69
What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor)?
Contact
70
What is this
ZSU 23/4 Shilka
71
What is this
D-30
72
______________ is an offensive task that usually follows the conduct of a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth
Exploitation
73
________________ is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.
Final Protective Fire
74
Tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy’s formation or tempo, interrupt the enemy’s timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in a piecemeal fashion.
Disrupt
75
True / False: When communicating direct to a CAS platform and a JTAC or FAC(A) is not available the observer must state “I am not a JTAC” or “I am a JFO”.
True
76
Which adjustment technique mathematically ensures FFE rounds will be within 50 meters of the target.
Successive Bracketing
77
What is this
T-80
78
During a quick smoke mission with shell smoke (HC) use HE in adjustment until a ____ meter bracket is split. The observer then requests shell smoke. Fire one smoke round, and make any necessary corrections. Then request FFE.
200
79
What is
Challenger 2
80
A ______________ is a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit or formation so that their fire will be coordinated.
Fire Plan
81
If “danger close” has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what else must be passed to the attacking aircraft?
Ground commanders initials
82
What is this
SA-3
83
The _____________ and its elements integrate the fires warfighting function into operations. It has resources to plan for future operations from the main command post and to support current operations from the tactical command post (when deployed). Additionally it has the limited capability to provide coverage to the command group and the deputy command group when deployed. The _____________ is the centerpiece of the targeting process, focused on integrating both lethal and nonlethal effects. The __________ thus collaboratively plans, coordinates and synchronizes fire support, to include Joint Fires.
Fires Cell
84
In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation spottings of the rounds establishing the two over and two short (this may include two, three, or four deviation spottings). Then ____________ the total of the deviation spottings by the number of rounds (two, three, or four) to get an average deviation. Express the result to the nearest mil. The average deviation multiplied by the observer-target factor equals the correction, which the observer expresses to the nearest _____________.
Divide, 10 Meters
85
What is this
BMP 1
86
What is
2S1
87
What is this
ZU 23/2
88
What is this
LAV-25
89
A _______________ is a target the enemy commander requires for the successful completion of the mission.
High Value Target
90
How would an observer maintain positive control of SOF Gunship or Army Attack Aviation during engagement?
State At My Command
91
Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that could be
True North, Grid North, Magnetic North
92
A ______________________ is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.
High Payoff Target
93
What is this
Fox
94
______________________ is a defensive task that involves organized movement away from the enemy.
Retrograde
95
A ___________________ is an area assigned to an artillery unit where individual artillery systems can maneuver to increase their survivability
Position Area for Artillery
96
Upon achieving the objective of registration the observer has recorded the following usable deviation spottings. What should the observer send to the FDC for deviation refinement? Round. Spotting. OT Factor 6. 7 right. 2 7. 15 Right. 1 8. 5 left. 1 9. 3 right. 1
Left 10
97
___________________ is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. It includes developing integrated fire plans (target lists, no fire lists, fire support execution matrix, scheme of fires, and overlays) and determining joint fires observer control options that support the commander's scheme of maneuver.
Fire Support Planning
98
If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD _____ or DROP _____ from the last data fired.
10
99
True / False: The type of adjustment that may be employed is area fire or precision fire.
True
100
True / False: MARK is included in the method of engagement to indicate that the observer is going to call for rounds for either of the following reasons -to orient themselves in zone of observation -to indicate targets to ground troops, aircraft, or other observers -to mark the Illumination optimal height of burst
False