fist cert 3
問題一覧
1
In order for an observer to achieve as few as possible shadows during an
illumination mission they should request ___________________ in the call for fire.
Illumination range and lateral spread
2
Illumination range and deviation correction of less than ________ meters should
not be made.
200
3
What is the minimum illumination HOB correction?
50 meters
4
During an ILLUM mission if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT
factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?
down 100
5
During an ILLUM mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. You are
observing 155mm M485A2 illumination and the rate of decent is 5 meters per second.
What HOB correction do you send?
up 50
6
True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and
deception.
False
7
__________ is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation
points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities.
Screening smoke
8
____________ is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to
minimize their vision.
Obscuring smoke
9
Use the quick smoke mission to obscure areas from ____ meters up to ____ meters
wide.
150 to 600
10
True / False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, maneuver
target line, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.
True
11
During a quick smoke mission with shell smoke (HC) use HE in adjustment until a
____ meter bracket is split. The observer then requests shell smoke. Fire one smoke
round, and make any necessary corrections. Then request FFE.
200
12
Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position, but is normally
within _____ to ______ meters of friendly positions.
200 to 400
13
True / False: During multiple missions the observer should use the assigned target
number followed by corrections.
True
14
A linear irregularly shaped target requires the observer to send target description,
length, width, and ________ in the third transmission of the call for fire.
attitude
15
Attitude is sent to the nearest _______ and less than 3200 mils.
100 mils
16
What is the max range of the M777 155mm standard HE?
22500
17
What is the max range of the M224 60mm mortar?
3489
18
What is the max range of the M252 81mm mortar?
5800
19
What is the max range of the M120 120mm mortar?
7020
20
What is the max range of M982 Excalibur?
37500
21
A _____ operation is a coordinated attack using a combination of FW and Army RW
assets normally supported by artillery or NSFS. Electronic warfare (EW), air defense
artillery, and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance assets also may support.
To maximize the effectiveness of a ______, fires are integrated, mutually supportive,
and synergistic, not simply deconflicted.
JAAT Joint Air Attack Team
22
Size, activity, location, time, remarks (SALT-R) is the standard format for passing
BDA information. Minimum requirements include _______________________.
Successful, unsuccessful, or unknown
23
JTACs and FAC(A)s can use ________ to develop and correlate targeting data, mark
targets, and provide terminal guidance operations.
JFOs
24
What is line 8 of the JFO target brief?
location of closest friendlies
25
True / False: When communicating direct to a CAS platform and a JTAC or FAC(A) is
not available the observer must state “I am not a JTAC” or “I am a JFO”.
True
26
True / False: After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire from the ground
forces, the aircrews are not required to identify the location of the friendly element and
the target prior to conducting an engagement.
False
27
True / False: Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces (SOF) gunship
use the same call for fire format
True
28
How would an observer maintain positive control of SOF Gunship or Army Attack
Aviation during engagement?
State “at my command”
29
True / False: Clearance to fire is the transmission of the Aviation/SOF gunship call for
fire unless “at my command” or “danger close” has been stated.
True
30
If “danger close” has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what
else must be passed to the attacking aircraft?
Ground commanders initials
31
What fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
AC-130W
32
Which fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75 inch rockets, AGM 65,
GBU, and GP bombs?
F-16
33
True / False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75 inch rockets, and AGM-176
Hellfire.
False
34
What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire?
MQ-9
35
What brevity term is sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
visual
36
What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or
via sensor)?
contact
37
What brevity term is sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?
tally
38
Brevity: Acquisition of laser designation or the platform is laser spot tracker (LST)
capable.
spot
39
Brevity: The laser designator system is inoperative
dead eye
40
Brevity: Mark / marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer.
sparkle
41
Brevity: Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.
snake
42
Brevity: Once the aircrew sees the IR energy and is able to discern between the
friendly and target end of the pointer, a ____________________ call may be made
Contact sparkle
43
Brevity: Specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked
with an onboard sensor.
captured
44
Brevity: FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch.
rifle
45
Brevity: No ordnance remaining.
Winchester
46
___________ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects
that are not lawful military targets.
collateral damage
47
True / False: Regardless of friendly force posture, commanders, JTACs, and aircrew
will refer to the Standing posture column and use this distance to determine when
danger close procedures apply.
True
48
The mission of the Field Artillery is to __________________ the enemy with
integrated fires to enable maneuver commanders to dominate in unified land
operations
Destroy, defeat, or disrupt
49
Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by ___________ in space and time
on single or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, and area fire capabilities.
massing fires
50
Actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent
extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take
specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly
mission.
decieve
fist cert 2
fist cert 2
Coalton Roper · 50問 · 3年前fist cert 2
fist cert 2
50問 • 3年前Coalton Roper
JFO MQF Test
JFO MQF Test
Coalton Roper · 23問 · 3年前JFO MQF Test
JFO MQF Test
23問 • 3年前Coalton Roper
3CR ROC V
3CR ROC V
Coalton Roper · 40問 · 3年前3CR ROC V
3CR ROC V
40問 • 3年前Coalton Roper
fist 4 level 2 and 3
fist 4 level 2 and 3
Coalton Roper · 50問 · 3年前fist 4 level 2 and 3
fist 4 level 2 and 3
50問 • 3年前Coalton Roper
問題一覧
1
In order for an observer to achieve as few as possible shadows during an
illumination mission they should request ___________________ in the call for fire.
Illumination range and lateral spread
2
Illumination range and deviation correction of less than ________ meters should
not be made.
200
3
What is the minimum illumination HOB correction?
50 meters
4
During an ILLUM mission if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT
factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?
down 100
5
During an ILLUM mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. You are
observing 155mm M485A2 illumination and the rate of decent is 5 meters per second.
What HOB correction do you send?
up 50
6
True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and
deception.
False
7
__________ is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation
points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities.
Screening smoke
8
____________ is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to
minimize their vision.
Obscuring smoke
9
Use the quick smoke mission to obscure areas from ____ meters up to ____ meters
wide.
150 to 600
10
True / False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, maneuver
target line, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.
True
11
During a quick smoke mission with shell smoke (HC) use HE in adjustment until a
____ meter bracket is split. The observer then requests shell smoke. Fire one smoke
round, and make any necessary corrections. Then request FFE.
200
12
Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position, but is normally
within _____ to ______ meters of friendly positions.
200 to 400
13
True / False: During multiple missions the observer should use the assigned target
number followed by corrections.
True
14
A linear irregularly shaped target requires the observer to send target description,
length, width, and ________ in the third transmission of the call for fire.
attitude
15
Attitude is sent to the nearest _______ and less than 3200 mils.
100 mils
16
What is the max range of the M777 155mm standard HE?
22500
17
What is the max range of the M224 60mm mortar?
3489
18
What is the max range of the M252 81mm mortar?
5800
19
What is the max range of the M120 120mm mortar?
7020
20
What is the max range of M982 Excalibur?
37500
21
A _____ operation is a coordinated attack using a combination of FW and Army RW
assets normally supported by artillery or NSFS. Electronic warfare (EW), air defense
artillery, and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance assets also may support.
To maximize the effectiveness of a ______, fires are integrated, mutually supportive,
and synergistic, not simply deconflicted.
JAAT Joint Air Attack Team
22
Size, activity, location, time, remarks (SALT-R) is the standard format for passing
BDA information. Minimum requirements include _______________________.
Successful, unsuccessful, or unknown
23
JTACs and FAC(A)s can use ________ to develop and correlate targeting data, mark
targets, and provide terminal guidance operations.
JFOs
24
What is line 8 of the JFO target brief?
location of closest friendlies
25
True / False: When communicating direct to a CAS platform and a JTAC or FAC(A) is
not available the observer must state “I am not a JTAC” or “I am a JFO”.
True
26
True / False: After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire from the ground
forces, the aircrews are not required to identify the location of the friendly element and
the target prior to conducting an engagement.
False
27
True / False: Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces (SOF) gunship
use the same call for fire format
True
28
How would an observer maintain positive control of SOF Gunship or Army Attack
Aviation during engagement?
State “at my command”
29
True / False: Clearance to fire is the transmission of the Aviation/SOF gunship call for
fire unless “at my command” or “danger close” has been stated.
True
30
If “danger close” has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what
else must be passed to the attacking aircraft?
Ground commanders initials
31
What fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
AC-130W
32
Which fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75 inch rockets, AGM 65,
GBU, and GP bombs?
F-16
33
True / False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75 inch rockets, and AGM-176
Hellfire.
False
34
What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire?
MQ-9
35
What brevity term is sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
visual
36
What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or
via sensor)?
contact
37
What brevity term is sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?
tally
38
Brevity: Acquisition of laser designation or the platform is laser spot tracker (LST)
capable.
spot
39
Brevity: The laser designator system is inoperative
dead eye
40
Brevity: Mark / marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer.
sparkle
41
Brevity: Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.
snake
42
Brevity: Once the aircrew sees the IR energy and is able to discern between the
friendly and target end of the pointer, a ____________________ call may be made
Contact sparkle
43
Brevity: Specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked
with an onboard sensor.
captured
44
Brevity: FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch.
rifle
45
Brevity: No ordnance remaining.
Winchester
46
___________ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects
that are not lawful military targets.
collateral damage
47
True / False: Regardless of friendly force posture, commanders, JTACs, and aircrew
will refer to the Standing posture column and use this distance to determine when
danger close procedures apply.
True
48
The mission of the Field Artillery is to __________________ the enemy with
integrated fires to enable maneuver commanders to dominate in unified land
operations
Destroy, defeat, or disrupt
49
Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by ___________ in space and time
on single or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, and area fire capabilities.
massing fires
50
Actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent
extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take
specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly
mission.
decieve