2. (201) What one-position alpha code is used to indicate how the materiel management system accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due-in from maintenance (DIFM) control? a. Demand code. b. Transaction code. c. Force Activity Designator. d. Urgency justification code.

1. (201) The materiel management system uses which issue request code to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction? a. Transaction identification code (TRIC). b. Transaction exception (TEX) code. c. Issue exception (IEX) code. d. System designator.

25. (206) Which activity is responsible for providing repair cycle support with new status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail? a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS). b. Source of supply (SOS). c. Maintenance. d. Customer support.

70. (215) Which of the following identifies the first three positions of a materiel management unit type code (UTC)? a. JFA. b. JFB. c. UFM. d. XFH.

26. (206) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process the updated status and location for a due-in fron maintenance (DIFM) record? a. DOC. b. DFM. C. ISU. d. SPR.

30. (208) How are time compliance technical order (TCTO) items identified on the item record? a. Other assets indicator 5. b. Other assets indicator 4. c. Numeric parts preference code (NPPC) 5. d. Numeric parts preference code (NPPC) 4.

65. (214) Which current listing/listings must be obtained prior to shipping out readiness spares package (RSP) assets? a. D04 and/or D20. b. MO1 and/or M20. c. R14 and/or R15. d. R43 and/or R52.

88. (216) What does Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility asset management programmatically search for and detect in relation to gas masks? a. Rejected service life dates. b. Renewed service life dates. c. Expired service life dates. d. Extended service life dates.

7. (202) Which managenment notice is the result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, backorder quantity status? a. I004. b. I005. c. I007. d. I023.

82. (216) What is available to allow Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel to put away, redistribute, ship, and mange shipment discrepancies within Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility? b. Inventory planning. c. Shelf life forecast. a. Mobility dashboards. d. Inventory count.

81. (216) Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains chemical warfare defense equipment? a. A. b. B. c. C. d. D.

72. (215) What code reflected in the operation plan (OPLAN) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) defines the number of passengers and/or amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking? a. Transaction identification code (TRIC). b. Time-phased deployment list (TPFDL). c. Controlled item code (CIC). d. Unit type code (UTC).

31. (208) What condition tag is used to label a time compliance technical order (TCTO) item that was modified and returned from the maintenance function? a. DD Form 1574 (Yellow ag). b. DD Form 1575 (Brown tag). c. DD Form 1576 (Orange tag). d. DD Form 1577 (Gray tag).

19. (204) What mission capability (MICAP) report (DIC B9*) code identifies the reason for terminating a MICAP condition? a. Reason why. b. Report. c. Delete. d. Cause.

51. (214) Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support aircraft flight-related operations and maintenance activities for an initial aircraft squadron deployed to a bare base location? a. Housekeeping support. b. Industrial operations. c. Initial flightline. d. Follow-on flightline.

33. (209) What code is used on a turn-in request for DIFM item indicating what actions were taken by maintenance and logistics readiness squadron (LRS)/materiel management activity? a. Demand. b. Action taken. c. Issue exception. d. Mission capable (MICAP) delete.

63. (214) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer assets between mobility readincss spares packages (MRSP) and war reserve materiel (WRM) detail records? a. DOR. b. ISU. C. lEB. d. IKT.

71. (215) What system captures unit type code (UTC) assessments, identifies suitable UTCS to satisfy taskings, and helps forecast shortfalls? a. Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS). b. Logistics Module-base (LOGMOD-B) level. (ART). c. Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Unit Type Code (UTC) Reporting Tool d. Personal Computer-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM).

18. (204) What information needs to be aggressively monitored and updated on a mission capability (MICAP) requirement? a. Status. b. Follow-up. c. Cause code. d. Delete code.

76. (216) What Air Force (AF) Form will requesting individuals provide prior to being issued a weapon? a. AF Form 522. b. AF Form 931. c. AF Form 1297. d. AF Form 2005.

59. (214) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to issue mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets to users? a. ISU. b. MSI. C. IEB. d. 1UB.

69. (215) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is structured and executed under three principles transparency, predictability, and a. reports. b. response. c. automatically. d. equitability.

61. (214) The decision to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability rests with the host and the a. losing accountable officer. b. losing major command (MAJCOM). C. gaining major command (MAJCOM). d. gaining accountable officer.

14. (204) When spares support is required, the Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA) is the primary interface for the a. EME. b. LRS. c. SOS. d. MAJCOM.

83. (216) Shelf life assets are tracked in ES-S Mobility by a. National stock number. b. Serial number. c. Contract/lot number. d. Part number.

28. (206) What is the purpose of performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation between the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) and the maintenance activities? a. Ensures maintenance activities physically have all the DIFM items. b. Ensure a replacement request is submitted to LRS. c. To load a multiple DIFM flag indicator to the item record d. To inventory all expendable items in stock.

66. (214) What wartime capability system is used to conduct wartime assessments? a. Readiness Assessment Module (RAM). b. Logistics Module-Base (LOGMOD-B) level. c. Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM). d. Personal Computer-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM).

34. (209) Which action taken code indicates an item is condemned? a. F. b. 1. c. 9. d. A.

22. (205) What output is produced to report the applicable change of a mission capable (MICAP) condition each time transaction NOR is processed? a. MICAP status report (E40). b. MICAP report (B9*). c. MICAP report (NOR). d. MICAP report (D9*)

56. (214) In the master file, what format is readiness spares package (RSP) data authorization input records received from the major command (MAJCOM)? a. FKD. b. XSF. c. XVF. d. 1EB.

44. (212) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is not an option for processing after dispositions instructions for an unserviceable asset has been received? a. ISU. b. TRM. c. MSI. d. SHP.

4. (201) What letter is entered in position 8 on the AF Form 2005 for a part number request? a. X. b. R. c. B. d. P.

54. (214) Who will authorize allocation of readiness spares packages (RSP) to specific units/bases? a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS). b. Source of supply (SOS). c. Major command (MAJCOM). d. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

52. (214) Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support flight operations and maintenance needs for a second and subsequent squadrons deployed to an austere base? a. Housekeeping support. b. Industrial operations. c. Initial flightline. d. Follow-on flightline.

49. (214) Who will continuously monitor requirements supporting Air Force war plans and ensure the validity of all war reserve materiel (WRM) requirements? a. Bases. b. Source of supply. c. MAJCOMS. d. AFMC.

45. (213) Who maintains ownership of supply point assets until they are used? a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS). b. Source of supply (SOS). c. Maintenance. d. Equipment element.

47. (213) Which listing is used to verify balances during a supply point reconciliation? a. D04. b. Q13. c. R14. d. S07.

75. (216) What number must be annotated on all documentation for small arms? a. Container. b. Model. c. Serial. d. Load.

36. (209) Where are serviceable condition returns forwarded aftera "notice to stock" document is received? a. Source of supply (SOS). b. Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Service (DLADS). c. Return to customer. d. Appropriate storage facility.

46. (213) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete supply point details? a. MSI b. ISU. c. FSP. d. DFM.

74. (216) What section stores small arms for mobility use? a. Storage element. b. Supply point element. c. Security forces element. d. Individual protective equipment element.

20. (205) What is processed in the materiel management system to satisty a mission capability (MICAP) condition and allow MICAP reporting to be initiated? a. Status. b. Cancellation. c. Due-out. d. Due-in.

11. (203) What materiel management system output notifies the Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) of changes in due-out status? a. DUO. b. 1SH. c. CSU. d. ISU.

86. (216) Which capability gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to check stock availability that is either on hand in mobility warehouse locations or in the possession of mobility customers? a. Mobility data query. b. Mobility work products. c. Property stock site. d. Property balance location.

38. (210) Time change assets are replaced on what type of schedule? a. Daily or weekly. b. Daily or hourly. c. Calendar or monthly. d. Calendar or hourly.

21. (205) What transaction can be processed on an existing requisition that will initiate mission capability (MICAP) reporting? a. Upgrade. b. Downgrade. c. Follow-up. d. Cancellation.

29. (207) Within how many duty days from the date of issue will a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) item that was not inducted into maintenance repair be returned to the LRS? a. 2. b. 4. c. 10. d. 30.

42. (211) Where does Supply obtain data used to process turnaround transactions? a. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348-1A, Issue release/receipt document. b. Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag. c. Air Force (AF) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request. d. I122 management notice.

15. (204) What response is sent to the materiel management computer system whena mission capable (MICAP) requisition is transmitted to the source of supply when assets are immediately available? a. FolloW-up. b. Cancellation. c. Positive Status. d. Negative Status.

24. (206) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to end the repair cycle process? a. DOC. b. DOR. c. ISU. d. TIN.

10. (203) Which base-wide organization uses the Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) to interface with materiel management system? a. Base supply. b. Maintenance. c. Civil engineering. d. Vehicle maintenance.

53. (214) Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary? a. 30. b. 60. c. 90. d. 120.

79. (216) Who performs warehouse validations prior to inventorying mobility assets? a. Individual protective cquipment personncl. b. Inventory personnel. c. Maintenance. d. Commander.

41. (21l) Which update is prepared and processed by repair cycle support (RCS) to update demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record? a. Calibration. b. Turnaround. C. Repair cycle. d. Cannibalization

77. (216) Who must ensure that additional controls are exercised over all weapons movements, marshaling, and deployments at the deployed location? a. Resource advisor. b. Maintenance supervisor. c. Security forces. d. Accountable officer (AO) or commander.

39. (210) Who appoints the time change manager? a. First sergeant or equivalent. b. Director of operations or equivalent. c. Materiel management flight chief or equivalent. d. Materiel management supervisor or equivalent.

5. (201) What is the next step in the ordering process after gathering and documenting data on the AF Form 2005? a. Enter data into materiel management system. b. Review management notices for availability. c. Increase the cost of priority requirements. d. Reduce the number of supply transactions.

80. (216) Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains cold weather equipment? a. A. b. B. c. C. d. D.

23. (205) Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability (MICAP) termination? a. 30. b. 45. c. 60. d. 90.

40. (211) Failure to process turnaround (TRN) data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by a. Headquarters Air Force Materiel Command (HQ AFMC). b. Cataloging and Standardization Office (CASO). c. Government Services Administration (GSA). d. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

37. (209) What is produced after processing an unserviceable turn-in for an asset that cannot be repaired at base level? a. Shipment document. b. Notice to stock documnent. c. DOR. d. ISU.

16. (204) Who confirms an end-item is not mission capable and verifies all local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a MICAP request? a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) base level. b. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA). c. Source of supply (SOS). d. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

55. (214) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the serial number/control record for readiness spares package (RSP) authorizations? a. ISU. b. MSI. c. lEB. d. 1UB.

67. (214) What system is used to access the War Consumable Distribution Objective (WCDO)? a. Department of Defense (DOD) Readiness Reporting System (DRRS). b. Joint Contingency and Sustainment Processing System (JCSPS). c. Joint Acquisition CBRN Knowledge System (JACKS). d. Logistics Feasibility Analysis Capability (LOGFAC).

68. (214) Which listing provides a management product for special spares authorizations, assets, and products? a. Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23). b. Daily Document Register (D04). c. Special Spares Report (R34). d. Consolidate Custody Receipt Listing (R23).

32. (208) What is entered in the "remarks" block of the DD Form 1574 (yellow tag)? a. Time compliance technical order (TCTO) number. b. Time compliance technical order (TCTO) flag. c. Quality control flag. d. Quality control number.

3. (201) Organizations may identify their issue requests to base supply using either a a. stock number or commercial and government entity (CAGE) number b. part number or transportation control number (TCN) number. C. part number or document number. d. stock number or part number.

9. (202) What transaction exception code is used to reprocess an issue request when the customer requests a backorder? a. 1. b. 2. c. M. d. P.

60. (214) What asset status flag reflects mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are deployed? a. D. b. F. c. M. d. T.

35. (209) What will the materiel managenent information technology system scan for in its internal records after an item was repaired and turned in as serviceable? a. Due-outs. b. Due-ins. c. Follow ups. d. Cancellation.

50. (214) Who is responsible for physical materiel handling, receiving, storing, and processing of war reserve materiel (WRM) shipment requests? a. Bases. b. Source of supply. c. Major commands (MAJCOMS). d. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

17. (204) Who will the aircraft parts store (APS) or customer support liaison contact to verify a mission capable (MICAP) condition exists? a. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity. b. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Quality Control Activity. c. Maintenance production superintendent. d. Source of supply.

62. (214) What transaction identification code (TRIC) do you use to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability? a. FKD. b. FME. c. IEB. d. 1WD.

64. (214) What action code is used when trans ferring multiple quantities from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) or war reserve materiel (WRM) detail record? a. A. b. B c. M. d. S.

12. (203) When the materiel management system detects an Integrated Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) transaction errTOr, the image is a. deleted from IMDS CDB. b. returned to IMDS CDB. c. forwarded to supply interface file system (SIFS). d. returned to SIFS.

84. (216) What is used to determine bulk stock requirements and are the basis for placing mobility stock orders based on mission support requirements'? a. Mobility shopping list. b. Mobility audit trail. c. Mobility stock details. d. Mobility item activity.

8. (202) An I007 management notice is produced when a a. part number request can be converted to a single stock number under program control. b. part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control. c. stock number request can be converted to multiple part numbers. d. stock number request cannot be converted to a part number.

87. (216) What information is entered when returning mobility items through Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility? a. National stock number (NSN). b. Issue document number. c. Warehouse badge number identification code. d. Electronic data interchange personal identifier (EDIPI).

57. (214) What program performs the readiness spares package (RSP) reconciliation? a. Q05. b. SO5. c. R07. d. S07.

85. (216) Which function in Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to view and update customer information and manage assets currently in possesSion by customers? a. Issue items. b. View site details. c. Shelf life activities. d. Authorized quantities details.

78. (216) At a minimum, how often are mobility assets inventoried? a. Weekly. b. Monthly. c. Quarterly. d. Annually.

48. (213) What transaction identifier code (TRIC) is processed when the on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity after a supply point reconciliation? a. DOC. b. DOR. c. ISU. d. SPR.

13. (204) What Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) entity is responsible for mission capable (MICAP) management? a. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA). b. Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity. c. Source of Supply. d. Base level.

73. (215) What was established as the sole readiness reporting system for the Department of Defense? a. Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS). b. Mobility Readiness Reporting System (MRRS). c. Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Reporting Tool (ART). d. Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS).

58. (214) What process involves shelf life controls and other inspection functions for readiness spares package (RSP) assets? a. Total asset visibility (TAV). b. Supply interface file system (SIFS). c. Care of supplies in storage (COSIS). d. Difficulty report (DIREP).

6. (202) What may be produced after processing an order request that notifies further actions are required? a. Inquiry. b. History. c. Management notice. d. Stock control levels.

43. (212) Which management notice is produced reflecting stock awaiting disposition instructions after an unserviceable turn-in process? a. 1004. b. 1007. c. 1012. d. 1023.

27. (206) Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation? a. D19. b. D20. c. D23. d. Q04.