The growth factor that is produced in the kidney/liver and INDUCES GROWTH AND DIFFERENTIATION OF COMMITTED MEGAKARYOCYTE PROGENITORS is: A. IL-3 B. IL-6 C. IL-11 D. TPO

Which of the following is (are) true of ENDOREDUPLICATION? A. Duplicates DNA without cell division B. Results in cells with ploidy values of 4n, 8n, 16n and 32n C. Is unique to the megakaryocytic type of blood cell D. All of the above

The megakaryocyte progenitor that undergoes endomitosis is: A. MK-I B. BFU-Meg C. CFU-Meg D. LD-CFU-Meg

The cellular ultrastructural component unique to the platelet is the: A. Cytoplasmic membrane B. Glycocalyx C. Mitochondrion D. Microtubule

Which of the following is not a characteristic of platelets? A. The presence of a nucleus B. Size of 2 to 4 µm C. Cytoplasm is light blue with fine red-purple granules D. A discoid shape as an inactive cell

Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding storage granules related to hemostasis in the mature platelet. A. Alpha granules contain platelet factor 4, betathromboglobulin, and platelet-derived growth factor. B. Alpha granules contain platelet fibrinogen and von Willebrand factor. C. Dense bodies contain serotonin n ADP. D. Lysosomes contain actomyosin, myosin, and flamin

Platelet aggregation will occur with the end production of: A. Cyclooxygenase B. Arachidonic acid C. Prostacyclin D. Thromboxane A2

Reticulated platelets can be enumerated in peripheral blood to detect: A. Impaired production in disease states B. Abnormal organelles associated with diseases such as leukemia C. Increased platelet production in response to need D. Inadequate rates of membrane cholesterol exchange with the plasma

At all times, approximately ____ of the total number of platelets are in the systemic circulation. A. One-fourth B. One-third C. One-half D. Two-thirds

The reference range of platelets in the systemic circulation is: A. 50 to 120 x 109/L B. 100 to 200 x 109/L C. 150 to 350 x 109/L D. 150 to 400 x 109/L

Agents that are capable of aggregating platelets include: A. Collagen B. Thrombin C. Serotonin D. All of the above

In measuring platelet aggregation, platelet-rich plasma can be treated with ___ to aggregate platelets. A. Saline B. Collagen C. Epinephrine D. Both B and C

What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when platelets fail to aggregate properly? A. Factor VIII B. Fibrinogen C. Thrombin D. Factor X

Aspirin ingestion has the following hemostatic effect in a normal person. A. Prolongs the bleeding time B. Prolongs the clotting time C. Inhibits factor VIII D. Has no effect

The bleeding time test measures: A. Ability of platelets to stick together B. Platelet adhesion and aggregation of locally injured vascular subendothelium C. Quantity and quality of platelets D. Antibodies against platelets

The clot retraction test is: A. Visible reaction to the activation of platelet actomyosin (thrombosthenin) B. Reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors C. Measurement of the ability of platelets to stick to glass D. Measurement of the cloudiness of blood

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is characterized by: A. Giant platelets B. Smallest platelets seen C. Large platelets D. Absence of platelets

May-Hegglin anomaly is characterized by: A. Giant platelets B. Smallest platelets seen C. Large platelets D. Absence of platelets

Bernard-Soulier syndrome is characterized by: A. Giant platelets B. Smallest platelets seen C. Large platelets D. Absence of platelets

Hereditary platelet dysfunction can be caused by: A. Aspirin B. von Willebrand’s disease C. Uremia D. Factor V deficiency

Which of the following parameters can be abnormal in classic von Willebrand’s disease type I? A. Bleeding time B. PT C. Platelet count D. All of the above

The most common for of von Willebrand’s disease is: A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. All have about the same incidence

When comparing von Willebrand’s disease and Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia will demonstrate: A. Absent ADP B. Normal clot retraction C. Abnormal ristocetin aggregation D. Abnormal release of ADP

Acquired platelet dysfunction can be caused by: A. Aspirin B. Von Willebrand’s disease C. Uremia D. Factor V deficiency

Thrombin: A. III B. XII C. VIII D. IIa

Tissue thromboplastin: A. III B. XII C. VIII D. IIa

Anti-hemophilic factor: A. III B. XII C. VIII D. IIa

Hageman factor: A. III B. XII C. VIII D. IIa

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is triggered by the entry of ___ into the circulation. A. Membrane lipoproteins (phospholipoproteins) B. Tissue thromboplastin C. Calcium D. Factor VII

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation begins with the activation of ____ in the early stage. A. Factor II B. Factor I C. Factor XII D. Factor V

The final common pathway of the intrinsic-extrinsic pathway is: A. Factor X activation B. Factor II activation C. Factor I activation D. Factor XII activation

Fibrinogen is converted to thrombin monomers by: A. Prothrombin B. Thrombin C. Calcium ions D. Factor XIIIa

The fibrinogen group of coagulation factors: A. Known to increase during pregnancy B. Known to increase in conditions of inflammation C. Known to increase subsequent to the use of oral contraceptives D. All of the above

A pregnant woman has routine coagulation testing performed. PT and APTT are normal. Her fibrinogen level is elevated at 450 (reference range 150 to 350) due to acute phase reactants during pregnancy. The other factor that may be elevated due to this is: A. FVII B. FVIII C. FXI D. FXIII

Vitamin K dependent coagulation factor: A. II B. V C. VIII D. XIII

Unique characteristic associated with associated with a deficiency of Factor XII is: A. Frequent nose bleeds B. No history of bleeding C. Common factor deficiency D. Decreased risk of forming blood clots

Factor XII deficiency is associated with: A. Bleeding episodes B. Epistaxis C. Decreased risk of thrombosis D. Increased risk of thrombosis

What happens if a coagulation specimen collection tube is underfilled? A. The specimen clots and is useless B. The specimen is hemolyzed and is useless C. Clot-based test results are falsely prolonged D. Chromogenic test results are falsely decreased

Most coagulation testing must be performed on PPP, which is plasma with a platelet count less than: A. 1000/µL B. 10,000/µL C. 100,000/µL D. 1,000,000/µL

The function of thromboplastin in the prothrombin test is to provide _____ to the assay. A. Kaolin B. Fibrinogen C. Phospholipoprotein D. Thrombin

An abnormally prolonged APTT may indicate: A. Severe depletion of fibrinogen B. Presence of circulating anticoagulant C. Factor VIII deficiency D. All of the above

Neither the APTT nor the PT detects a deficiency of: A. Platelet factor 3 B. Factor VII C. Factor VIII D. Factor IX

Which laboratory test is affected by heparin therapy? A. Thrombin time B. Fibrinogen assay C. Protein C assay D. Protein S assay

The test reagent in APTT contains which of the following substance(s)? 1. Citrated plasma 2. Calcium ions 3. Tissue thromboplastin 4. Phospholipids A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct B. 1 and 3 are correct C. 2 and 4 are correct D. Only 4 is correct

The test reagent in PT contains which of the following substance(s)? 1. Calcium ions 2. Kaolin 3. Tissue thromboplastin 4. Celite A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct B. 1 and 3 are correct C. 2 and 4 are correct D. Only 4 is correct

If a child ingested rat poison, which of the following tests should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation mechanism? A. aPTT B. PT C. Fibrinogen assay D. Thrombin time

A patient on therapeutic warfarin will most likely have a(n): A. Normal PT/INR, increased APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count C. Normal PT/INR, normal APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count D. Increased PT/INR, normal APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count

If heparin therapy is initiated in a patient, a decreased anticoagulant response can be caused by decreased levels of: A. Platelet factor 3 B. Platelet factor 4 C. Anti-thrombin D. Factor XIII

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) results from: A. Antibodies to heparin B. Antibodies to platelets C. Antibodies to PF4 D. Antibodies to heparin-PF4 complex

A modification of which procedure can be used to measure fibrinogen? A. PT B. APTT C. Thrombin time D. Fibrin degradation products

In the Clauss fibrinogen method, the time to clot formation in plasma is measured after the addition of: A. Calcium B. Thrombin C. Phospholipids D. Kaolin

Which test result would be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia? A. Thrombin time B. APTT C. PT D. Immunologic fibrinogen level

A standard blue-top tube filled appropriately (with 4.5 mL blood) was submitted to the laboratory for preoperative PT and APTT testing. The results of both tests were elevated. § The patient’s PT and APTT from the previous day were within normal limits, and he is not on heparin therapy. Which is the most appropriate first step to investigate the abnormal results? A. Report the result as obtained B. Perform a mixing study C. Check the sample for a clot D. Report the APTT only

A fresh blood sample was sent to the laboratory at 8:00 a.m. for a PT test. At 4:00 p.m., the doctor requested an APTT test to be done on the same sample. What should the technologist do? A. Rerun APTT on the 8:00 a.m. sample and report the result B. Request a new sample for APTT C. Run APTT in duplicate and report the average D. Mix the patient plasma with normal plasma and run the APTT

A plasma sample submitted to the lab for PT testing has been stored for 25 hours at 4°C. The PT result is shortened. What is the most probable cause? A. Factor VII deficiency B. Activation of factor VII due to exposure to cold temperature C. Lupus inhibitor D. Factor X inhibitor

An abnormal APTT caused by a pathological circulating anticoagulant is: A. Corrected with factor VIII–deficient plasma B. Corrected with factor IX–deficient plasma C. Corrected with normal plasma D. Not corrected with normal plasma

Which of the following abnormalities is consistent with the presence of lupus anticoagulant? A. Decreased APTT/bleeding complications B. Prolonged APTT/thrombosis C. Prolonged APTT/thrombocytosis D. Thrombocytosis/thrombosis

What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S? A. V and X B. Va and VIIIa C. VIII and IX D. VIII and X

A THROMBOSIS MARKER that has shown high sensitivity for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is: A. Thrombin-antithrombin (TAT) B. Prothrombin fragment 1.2 (PF1.2) C. Fibrinopeptide A (FPA) D. D-dimer (D-D)

The APTT results are not elevated in a patient receiving heparin. Which of the following factors may be associated with the lack of response to heparin therapy in this patient? A. Protein C deficiency B. Antithrombin deficiency C. Protein S deficiency D. Factor VIII deficiency

Which of the following is the appropriate principle or description of the antithrombin assay? A. In the presence of heparin, thrombin is neutralized B. Measures the time required to generate thrombin and fibrin polymers via the intrinsic pathway C. Measures inhibitors of specific factors D. An in vivo measurement of platelet adhesion and aggregation on locally injured vascular subendothelium

. The FIRST step in the determination of functional antithrombin III (AT III) is to: A. Neutralize plasma antithrombin B. Neutralize thrombin with test plasma C. Incubate plasma with anti-AT III D. Precipitate AT III with plasma

Which of the following is considered to be an advantage of the mechanical end-point detection methodology? A. It is not affected by lipemia in the test sample B. It has the ability to provide a graph of clot formation C. It can incorporate multiple wavelengths into a single testing sequence D. It can measure proteins that do not have fibrin formation as the end-point

The fibrometer relies on the principle of: A. Clot elasticity B. Fibrin adhesion C. Conduction or impedance of an electrical current by fibrin D. Changes in optical density

In the photo-optical method, the change in light transmission versus the ____ is used to determine the activity of coagulant factors or stages. A. Amount of patient’s plasma B. Amount of test reagent C. Time D. Temperature

Which clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased PCV test result? A. Splenectomy B. Rouleaux formation C. Polycythemia D. Hemolytic anemia crisis

Which of the following blood specimen conditions would NOT cause a falsely elevated concentration with a manually performed cyanamethemoglobin determination? A. Lipemia B. Extremely elevated WBC count C. Hemoglobin S D. Hemoglobin F

If an MCHC result of 40 g/dL is discovered in a patient’s instrumentation printout, what is the possible cause? A. Increased RDW B. Hypochromic RBC C. Agglutinated RBCs D. Increased number of RBC fragments

What hematology test is useful in monitoring the production of erythrocytes? A. Total iron binding capacity B. Ferritin level C. Reticulocyte count D. Hemoglobin

On a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, stress or shift reticulocytes are: A. Smaller than normal reticulocytes B. About the same size as normal reticulocytes C. Larger than normal reticulocytes D. Noticeable because of a decreased blue tint

Reticulocytes can be detected using ___ stain. A. New methylene blue B. Thiazole orange C. Propidium iodide D. Both A and B

The normal range of reticulocytes in adults is: A. 0 to 0.5% B. 0.5 to 1% C. 0.5 to 2.5% D. 1.5 to 2.5%

The refence value for reticulocyte count in a newborn infant is: A. Up to 13 mm per hour B. 2.5 to 6.5% C. 150 to 450 x 109 /L D. 36 to 45%

What clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased reticulocyte count test result? A. Splenectomy B. Rouleaux formation C. Polycythemia D. Hemolytic anemia crisis

What clinical condition will produce a decreased reticulocyte count? A. Polycythemia vera B. Acute leukemias C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Viral infection

If a male patient has a reticulocyte count of 5.0% and a packed cell volume of 0.45 L/L, what is his corrected reticulocyte count? A. 2.5% B. 4.5% C. 5.0% D. 10%

If a patient has a reticulocyte count of 7% and an Hct of 20%, what is the corrected reticulocyte count? A. 1.4% B. 3.1% C. 3.5% D. 14%

If a male patient has a reticulocyte count of 6.0% and a packed cell volume of 45%, what is his RPI? A. 1.5 B. 3.0 C. 4.5 D. 6.0

Given the following values, calculate the RPI: § Observed reticulocyte count = 6% § HCT = 30% A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

The ESR is a nonspecific indicator of disease with increased sedimentation of erythrocytes in: A. Infections B. Inflammations C. Tissue necrosis D. All of the above

The reference value for the Westergren ESR method for adult male less than 50 years of age is: A. 0 to 10 mm/hour B. 2.5 to 6.0% C. 150 to 450 x 109/L D. 36 to 35%

The reference value for the Westergren ESR method (adult male over 50 years) is: A. Up to 15 mm/hour B. 2.5 to 6% C. 150 to 450 x 109 /L D. 36 to 45%

Which clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased Westergren ESR method test result? A. Splenectomy B. Rouleaux formation C. Polycythemia D. Hemolytic anemia crisis

Which clinical or specimen condition will produce an decreased Westergren ESR method test result? A. Polycythemia vera B. Acute leukemias C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Viral infection

What clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased total leukocyte count? A. Active allergies B. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions C. Inflammation D. Lipemic blood specimen

What clinical condition will produce an increased value of neutrophils? A. Invasive parasites B. Bacterial infections C. Viral infections D. Tuberculosis

What clinical condition will produce an increased value of eosinophils? A. Invasive parasites B. Bacterial infections C. Viral infections D. Tuberculosis

What clinical condition will produce an increased value of lymphocytes? A. Invasive parasites B. Bacterial infections C. Viral infections D. Tuberculosis

A normal blood smear should have no more than approximately ____ (maximum) number of platelets per OIF in an area where the erythrocytes are just touching each other. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25

If small blood clot exists in an anticoagulated blood specimen, which blood cell parameter will be affected the most? A. Leukocyte count B. Erythrocyte count C. Platelet count D. Microhematocrit

If platelet clumping was observed by direct observation of a stained peripheral blood smear and/or indicated by the output of an automated instrument, what corrective action can be taken? A. Retrieve the patient specimen and prepare a new blood smear B. Retrieve the patient specimen and warm it up to 37 o C for 15 minutes and reanalyze C. Recollect a new EDTA-anticoagulated specimen and promptly examine the platelets D. Recollect a new citrate anticoagulated specimen and reexamine the platelets.

The recommended cleaner for removing oil from objectives is: A. 70% alcohol or lens cleaner B. Xylene C. Water D. Benzene

Which of the following is not a benefit of laboratory instrumentation to the hematology laboratory? A. Produces faster results from specimens B. Reduced cost on rarely performed procedures C. Less variation in technique from technologist to technologist D. Increased accuracy because data are collected on more cells counted or analyzed

Sometimes used in conjunction with DC: A. Electronic impedance B. Optical scatter C. Radiofrequency D. None of these

The abbreviation LASER stands for: A. Light associated stimulated emission of radiation B. Largely amplified by stimulated emission of radiation C. Light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation D. Liquid amplified by stimulated emission of radiation

Major systems in a flow cytometer include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Fluidics B. Optics C. Computerized electronics D. Gating

The restriction of data analysis to one cell population is accomplished by: A. Amplification B. Gating C. Compensatory monitoring D. Data limitation

Which of the following can be an application of flow cytometry? A. Screening erythrocytes for malaria B. Counting reticulocytes C. Quantitation of T and B cells D. All of the above

The major application of flow cytometry is: A. Determining cell size and granularity B. Sorting of cells and cellular identification using monoclonal antibodies C. Treating cancer cells and identifying specific virus types D. Counting leukocytes and platelets

Three-part blood cell differential: erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. A. Erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets B. Monocytes, granulocytes, and lymphocytes C. Mononuclear cells, granulocytes, and lymphocytes D. Segmented neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils