161. A patient with a history of rheumatic fever is most likely to be assessed for which of the following conditions? A) Hypertension B) Valvular heart disease C) Coronary artery disease

163. A patient reports inability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) without fatigue. This symptom is indicative of what aspect of heart disease? (A) Decreased cardiac output B) Increased heart rate C) Peripheral edema D Hypertension

164. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing orthopnea due to heart disease? A) Encourage high-intensity exercise B) Maintain patient in a supine position C Position the patient upright with pillows for support D) Restrict fluid intake drastically

165. A patient with heart palpitations and dizziness should be taught to monitor which of the following at home? A) Blood glucose levels (B) Heart rate and rhythm C) Blood pressure D) Respiratory rate

166. Following an open mitral commissurotomy, which of the following patient teachings is essential for preventing infective endocarditis during dental procedures? A) Take antihypertensives regularly (B) Use of antibiotic prophylaxis C) Maintain a low-fat diet D) Practice deep breathing exercises

167. A patient with valvular heart disease is prescribed diuretics. What is the primary reason for this medication? A) To control heart rate B) To decrease blood pressure 53000 40 C) To reduce fluid accumulation D) To prevent blood clots

168. What is a common cause of acute pericarditis? (- A) Hypertension (B) Bacterial infection C) Diabetes D) Hyperlipidemia

169. Which symptom is NOT typically associated with pericarditis? A) Chest pain relieved by leaning forward B) Increased chest pain with deep breathing (C) Pain alleviation while lying supine D) Dyspnea

170. Which diagnostic test is crucial for detecting pericardial effusion in a patient suspected of having pericarditis?A) Complete blood count (B) Echocardiography C) Lipid profile D) Urinalysis

171. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient diagnosed with acute pericarditis? A) Encouraging strenuous activity to maintain cardiac function B) Keeping the patient in a supine position to reduce pain (C) Elevating the head of the bed to decrease dyspnea D) Restricting all oral fluids to decrease pericardial effusion

172. First-line therapy for acute pericarditis often includes the administration of: A) Antibiotics and diuretics B) Colchicine and aspirin C) Beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors D) Anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents

173. Which of the following is a common risk factor for developing infective endocarditis? A) High cholesterol (B) IV drug use C) Low blood pressure D) Asthma

174. What is the primary purpose of administering massive doses of antibiotics to a patient with infective endocarditis? A) To reduce cholesterol levels B) To control blood pressure(C) To destroy the pathogenic microorganisms D) To alleviate chest pain

175. Which clinical manifestation is indicative of infective endocarditis rather than acute pericarditis? A) Fever and chills B) New or changed heart murmur C) Chest pain relieved by leaning forward D) Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

176. For a patient with suspected infective endocarditis, which diagnostic test provides the most definitive information regarding heart valve involvement? A) Transthoracic echocardiogram B) Transesophageal echocardiogram C Standard chest X-ray D) Electrocardiogram

177. What nursing intervention is critical for a patient recovering from infective endocarditis in order to prevent complications related to increased activity? A) Monitoring heart rate and rhythm continuously B) Assisting the patient in high-intensity interval training (C) Assessing the effects of increased activity or ambulation on O heart function D) Encouraging the patient to remain in bed at all times

178. Which is a common cause of myocarditis in the United States? A) Staphylococcus aureusB) Coxsackie virus type B C) Candida albicans D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

179. Which set of symptoms best describes the clinical presentation of myocarditis? A) Hypertension, headache, blurred vision B) Fever, chills, sore throat, myalgia C) Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia D) Weight gain, edema, lethargy

180. What diagnostic test is NOT commonly used to evaluate myocarditis? A) Echocardiography B) MRI C) Pulmonary function tests D) Cardiac catheterization with biopsy

181. Which of the following is a primary goal in the treatment of myocarditis? A) To increase myocardial oxygen demand B) To preserve myocardial function C) To promote rapid physical activity D) To reduce hydration

182. What is a major complication associated with myocarditis? (A) Cardiomyopathy B) Glaucoma C) Renal failure D) Hepatic encephalopathy

183. Which type of cardiomyopathy is characterized by a dilated left ventricle? (A) Dilated cardiomyopathy B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C) Restrictive cardiomyopathy D) Secondary cardiomyopathy

184. Which diagnostic test is essential in diagnosing cardiomyopathy? (A) ECG B) Spirometry C) Complete blood count D) Liver function tests

185. What is the primary treatment approach for cardiomyopathy? A) Immediate surgery B) Long-term antibiotic therapy (C) Management of heart failure and underlying causes D) High-intensity exercise programs

186. Which symptom is NOT typically associated with cardiomyopathy? A) Syncope B) Angina C) Dyspnea on exertion D) Polyuria

187. What nursing intervention is crucial for patients with cardiomyopathy to prevent complications? A) Encourage rapid weight loss (B) Monitor medication response and dysrhythmias C) Promote high-intensity interval training D) Restrict fluid intake drastically

188. What is a primary function of the peripheral vascular system? A) To process nutrients and waste from tissues B) To supply oxygen-rich blood to extremities and facilitate return flow to the heart C) To regulate body temperature through sweat glands D) To transmit neural signals to and from the brain

189. Which age-related change affects the peripheral vascular system? (A) Decreased blood vessel elasticity B) Increased capillary absorption C) Decreased blood vessel length D) Increased venous capacity

190. Which factor is considered nonmodifiable in the risk of developing peripheral vascular disorders? A) Diet B) Age C) Smoking D) Exercise level

191. What patient education should be provided to reduce the risk of peripheral vascular disorders? A) Avoid all physical activity to reduce strain on the heart (B) Engage in regular physical activity and manage stress levels C) Increase caloric intake to support blood vessel function D) Limit fluid intake to reduce blood volume

192. What is the significance of assessing capillary refill in the evaluation of arterial insufficiency? A) It helps determine the nutritional status of the patient B) It indicates the efficiency of cardiac output C) It assesses the extent of venous congestion D) It measures how quickly blood returns to the extremity after pressure is applied

193. During a pulse assessment for arterial insufficiency, what does a pulse grade of +4 indicate? A) Absent pulse B) Normal pulse strength and quality C) Weak and thready pulse (D) Bounding and possibly visible pulse

194. Which symptom is NOT typically associated with arterial insufficiency? A) Pallor and coolness in the extremity B) Pitting edema C) Pain and cramping in the affected limb D) Numbness and tingling sensations

195. Why is it important to assess the temperature of an extremity when evaluating for peripheral vascular disease (PVD)? (A) Warmth can indicate a venous problem, while coolness can suggest an arterial issue B) A warmer temperature always indicates an infection C) Coolness enhances patient comfort and reduces swelling D) Higher temperatures in extremities are normal findings

196. What does a shiny appearance and loss of hair on the skin of an extremity suggest? A) Typical aging skin B) Venous insufficiency (C) Arterial insufficiency D) Lymphatic obstruction

197. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with diagnosed peripheral vascular disease to prevent complications? A) Encouraging prolonged bed rest B) Application of high heat to the affected area C) Regular monitoring of extremity appearance and sensation D) Tight bandaging to promote blood flow

198. What is the primary focus of assessment for venous insufficiency? A) Temperature of the extremity B) Capillary refill time (C) Edema, skin changes, ulcers, peripheral pulses, and associated symptoms D) Rate of hair growth on the extremity

199. How should edema be assessed in a patient suspected of venous insufficiency? A) By measuring the blood pressure in the affected extremity B) By comparing the affected extremity with the unaffected one and grading the edema on a scale from 0 to 4 C) By checking for temperature variations only D) By assessing pulse rate only

200. Which diagnostic test measures changes in blood volume in the veins of the calf or other extremities and is used for patients with venous disorders? A) Treadmill test B) Plethysmography C) Doppler ultrasound D) Venography

201. What type of pain is typically associated with venous disorders? A) Sharp pain exacerbated by exercise B) Aching to cramping pain relieved by activity or elevating the extremity C) Pain that does not change with position D) Intermittent claudication that occurs at rest

202. What skin changes are most likely to be observed in a patient with chronic venous insufficiency? A) Pale, hairless skin B) Warm, thick, and toughened skin with darkened pigmentation C) Bright red skin with blisters D) Cold and clammy skin

203. In the assessment of peripheral pulses in a patient with venous insufficiency, what is typically observed? A) Pulses are diminished or absent B) Pulses are bounding and strong (C) Pulses are usually present D) No pulses are detectable

204. Which invasive diagnostic test involves injecting a contrast medium to visualize deep leg veins? A) Doppler ultrasound B) Venography C) Angiography D) Duplex scanning

205. What does a grade +4 in edema assessment indicate? A) No edema B) Mild edema, barely perceptible C) Moderate edema, indentation subsides rapidly D) Severe edema, indentation lasts for a prolonged time

206. Which symptom is NOT a typical finding in venous disorders? A) Stasis ulcers B) Hair loss on the affected extremity C) Edema that increases at the end of the day D) Pain relieved by elevating the extremity

207. Which test is a blood test that detects fibrin degradation products, used to indicate the presence of a thrombus? A) D-dimer B) Plethysmography C) Doppler ultrasound D) Treadmill test

208. What percentage of the adult population in the United States is estimated to have undiagnosed hypertension? - A. 10% - B. 20% 30% - D. 40%

209. Which system is activated by decreased blood flow to the kidney, leading to increased blood pressure through vasoconstriction? - A. Sympathetic Nervous System - B. Parasympathetic Nervous System -(C. Renin-Angiotensin System - D. Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal Axis

210. Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor for essential hypertension? - A. Smoking - B. Age - C. Obesity - D. High-sodium diet