問題一覧
1
What fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
AC-130W
2
The illumination shell is a base ejection projectile containing a flare attached to a parachute. What is NOT a use of Illumination?
Mark Friendly Locations for CAS attacks
3
A ___________________ is an area assigned to an artillery unit where individual artillery systems can maneuver to increase their survivability
Position Area for Artillery
4
________________ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces. Both can be executed as either hasty or deliberate attacks and are typically supported with integrated joint fires (ATP 304.1). US Army attack helicopters can also perform close air support (CAS) in support of another component. The United States Marine Corps (USMC) employs its attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform. Attack helicopters can employ precision guided munitions and provide terminal guidance for other weapon platforms.
Army Attack Aviation
5
When engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under fire, the observer announces __________________ (followed by the target location).
Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
6
What munition is available to utilize with the 120mm mortar that minimizes collateral damage and reduces the number of rounds required to defeat targets?
APMI
7
During an ILLUM mission if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?
Down 100
8
What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?
so the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use
9
Illumination range and deviation correction of less than ________ meters should not be made.
200
10
A _____________________ is a subordinate operational component of a tactical air control system designed to provide air liaison to land forces and for the control of aircraft.
Tactical Air Control Party
11
________________is a clear and concise expression of the purpose of the operation and the desired military end state that supports mission command, provides focus to the staff, and helps subordinate and supporting commanders act to achieve the commander’s desired results without further orders, even when the operation does not unfold as planned
Commanders Intent
12
How would an observer maintain positive control of SOF Gunship or Army Attack Aviation during engagement?
State At My Command
13
The second step of the targeting process, ___________, directs how and which target acquisition assets find the specified targets to the requisite level of accuracy.
Detect
14
If there is a significant difference in vertical shift (greater than or equal to _________ meters in altitude between the observer's position or known point and the target), the observer includes the vertical shift in his target location (expressed to the nearest _______ meters).
35, 5
15
Brevity: Specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.
Captured
16
_________________________ is best when responsive fires are required and the observer is experienced in the adjustment of fire.
Hasty Bracketing
17
________________ is the detection, identification, and location of a target in sufficient detail to permit the effective employment of weapons
Target Acquistion
18
If a burst correction is desired during an immediate suppression mission what should be transmitted before the correction?
Target Description
19
____________ normally produces the specific effect on a target with the minimum expenditure of ammunition. It also reduces our vulnerability to adversary target acquisition.
Massing Fires
20
_____________ is an offensive task designed to catch or cut of a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it
Pursuit
21
Use the ____________________ pattern when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination.
Two Gun Illumination
22
During a registration mission spottings of target hit or range correct count as spottings of _______________________.
Both Over and Short
23
A target identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting.
Target of Opportunity
24
What fuze can be added to 155mm HE to provide near precision?
PGK
25
A _____________ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time.
Scheduled Target
26
______________________ is a defensive task that involves organized movement away from the enemy.
Retrograde
27
Brevity: Acquisition of laser designation or the platform is laser spot tracker (LST) capable.
Spot
28
In order for an observer to achieve as few as possible shadows during an illumination mission they should request ___________________ in the call for fire.
Illumination Range and Lateral Spread
29
Size, activity, location, time, remarks (SALT-R) is the standard format for passing BDA information. Minimum requirements include _______________________.
Successful, unsuccessful, or unknown
30
The _____________ and its elements integrate the fires warfighting function into operations. It has resources to plan for future operations from the main command post and to support current operations from the tactical command post (when deployed). Additionally it has the limited capability to provide coverage to the command group and the deputy command group when deployed. The _____________ is the centerpiece of the targeting process, focused on integrating both lethal and nonlethal effects. The __________ thus collaboratively plans, coordinates and synchronizes fire support, to include Joint Fires.
Fires Cell
31
A ______________________ is a specific designated area into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing HQ. It is used to expedite joint fires and to facilitate emergency jettison of aircraft munitions.
Free Fire Area
32
The terrain sketch is a panoramic sketch as precise as possible of the terrain by the observer of his area of responsibility. It aids in target location in a static environment. What should the terrain sketch also provide?
Means of orienting relief personnel
33
True / False: Regardless of friendly force posture, commanders, JTACs, and aircrew will refer to the Standing posture column and use this distance to determine when danger close procedures apply.
True
34
Using flash to bang, the observer counts the number of seconds between the time the round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang) and multiply by _________ meters/second. The answer is the approximate number of meters between the observer and the round.
350
35
___________________ is an offensive task that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both
Attack
36
The ___________________ is an Army coordination organization that provides selected operational functions between the Army and the air component commander. Its mission is to provide Army forces liaison at the joint air operations center. They provide the critical and continuous coordination between the air and land commanders.
Battlefield coordination detachment
37
___________ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets
Collateral Damage
38
Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that could be
True North, Grid North, Magnetic North
39
What is the max range of M982 Excalibur?
37500
40
What is NOT a method in which to achieve responsive fires?
Streamlining the call for fire by shortening the number of transmissions
41
A ______________ is a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit or formation so that their fire will be coordinated.
Fire Plan
42
______________________ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission
Operational Control
43
Methods of Engagement: If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they use in the call for fire?
Followed By
44
Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the team?
Communication
45
A ____________________ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.
Series of Targets
46
_____________ is that support which is given to the supported force as a whole and not to any particular subdivision thereof
General Support
47
_____________ is the process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate response to them, considering operational requirements and capabilities
Targeting
48
Attitude is sent to the nearest _______ and less than 3200 mils.
100 mils
49
Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how are the corrections sent?
in the form of a grid to the burst location
50
_____________________ is a support relationship requiring a force to support another supporting unit
Reinforcing
51
The objective of impact registration is to get spottings of _________________________ along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 25 meters apart.
4 rounds, 2 over and 2 short
52
What is the max range of the M777 155mm standard HE?
22500
53
What is the max range of the M224 60mm mortar?
3489
54
True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the observer’s location.
False
55
A ____________________ is a task conducted to defeat an attacking enemy force, retain key terrain, gain time, economize forces, and develop conditions favorable for offensive or stability tasks
Defensive Task
56
What are the hand angular measurements for deviation
Spread: 300, 5: 180, 4: 125, 3: 100, 2: 70, 1: 30
57
______________ is assigned to and forming an essential part of a military organization as listed in its table of organization for the Army, Air Force, and Marine Corps, and are assigned to the operating forces for the Navy.
Organic
58
______________ is an offensive task that usually follows the conduct of a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth
Exploitation
59
A _____________ is a land area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited
No Fire Area
60
True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.
True
61
What is the max range of the M252 81mm mortar?
5800
62
Tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted.
Destroy
63
A ______________ is a line beyond which conventional, indirect, surface fire support means may create effects at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without additional coordination
Coordinated Fire Line
64
A ______________________ is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.
High Payoff Target
65
The act of drawing the attention and forces of an enemy from the point of the principal operation; an attack, alarm, or feint that diverts attention.
Divert
66
In the event the Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to
Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud
67
True / False: The type of adjustment that may be employed is area fire or precision fire.
True
68
___________is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions.
Type 3 Control
69
If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD _____ or DROP _____ from the last data fired.
10
70
Laser range finders are the preferred means of determining the observer-target distance. When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest __________ meters
10
71
The method of engagement consists of
type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and mark
72
_________________ is the continuing process of analyzing, allocating, and scheduling fires to describe how fires are used to facilitate the actions of the maneuver force
Fire Support Planning
73
True / False: The three HOB spottings are air, graze, and mixed.
False
74
Tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy’s formation or tempo, interrupt the enemy’s timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in a piecemeal fashion.
Disrupt
75
Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position, but is normally within _____ to ______ meters of friendly positions.
200 to 400
76
What is the max range of the M120 120mm mortar?
7200
77
____________________ occurs when a unit passes through another unit’s positions while moving toward the enemy
Forward Passage of Lines
78
If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, they would include _____________ in the method of control.
At My Command
79
A _____ operation is a coordinated attack using a combination of FW and Army RW assets normally supported by artillery or NSFS. Electronic warfare (EW), air defense artillery, and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance assets also may support. To maximize the effectiveness of a ______, fires are integrated, mutually supportive, and synergistic, not simply deconflicted.
JAAT Joint Air Attack Team
80
What is the initial height of burst for 155mm M485A2 Illumination?
600
81
If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give __________
Attitude
82
A _______________ is an area from which radar is prohibited from reporting acquisitions. Normally placed around friendly weapon systems to prevent them from being acquired by friendly radars.
Censor Zone
83
A _______________ is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to measuring task accomplishment.
Measure of Performance
84
____________________ is a support relationship requiring a force to support another specific force and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported force’s request for assistance
Direct Support
85
A _______________________ is a plan that addresses each means of fire support available and describes how Army indirect fires, joint fires, and target acquisition are integrated with maneuver to facilitate operational success
Fire Support Plan
86
Tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the performance of a force or weapons system below the level needed to accomplish the mission
Suppress
87
If angle T is ___________ or greater, the FDC should tell the observer. If the observer is told that angle T is _________ or greater, at first observer continues to use the original OT factor to make deviation corrections. If the observer is getting more of a correction than asked for, the observer should consider cutting the corrections to better adjust rounds onto the target.
500 Mils
88
A spotting of ________ is a round whose location cannot be determined by sight or sound.
Lost
89
The observer normally uses __________ for suppression and smoke missions. ______________ will tell the FDC the total time to engage a target.
Duration
90
_______________ are those operations undertaken by a commander to provide early and accurate warning of enemy operations, to provide the force being protected with time and maneuver space within which to react to the enemy, and to develop the situation to allow the commander to effectively use the protected force
Security Operations
91
The warning order clears the net for the fire mission. The warning order consists of
Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location
92
________________________ is the process by which the supported commander ensures that fires or their effects will have no unintended consequences on friendly units or the scheme of maneuver
Clearance of Fires
93
The goal of the Field Artillery is to achieve ____________________. This enables greater effectiveness and a reduced logistical footprint. It requires that all five of the requirements for accurate fire are consistently being met.
First round fire for effect
94
_________ is the first step in the targeting process. It begins with the military decision-making process (MDMP). It does not end when the plan is completed; the decide function continues throughout the operation.
Decide
95
True / False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two overs and two shorts) along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 50 meters apart.
True
96
. In the initial call for fire the observer should announce ______________ to indicate the observer cannot see the target (because of vegetation, terrain, weather, intensity of the conflict, or smoke).
Cannot Observe
97
_____________ is the planning and executing of fire so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons
Fire Support Cooridnation
98
____________ is the delivery technique of applying accurately computed corrections (not determined by firing) to standard firing data for all nonstandard conditions (weather, weapon, ammunition, rotation of the earth) to deliver accurate surprise, nuclear, or nonnuclear fire on any known target in any direction from any weapon limited only by the characteristics of the weapon and ammunition used
Predicted Fire
99
__________ is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities.
Screening Smoke
100
The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _______ with shorter hash marks at _________ increments.
10 mils and 5 mils