問題一覧
1
Tylosin is used primarily in the poultry as feed additive. it is included under this family of bacteriostatic antibacterial
macrolides
2
this is generallythe most active of the aminoglycosides which is a fermantation product of Micromonospora purpurea. this is often the aminoglycoside of choice for serious g- infections caused by susceptible organisms
gentamycin
3
due to its effects of causing aplastic anemia to humans, this antibacterial is now banned in food animals in the philippines
chloramphenicol
4
these are considered bacteriostatic by inhibiting the protein synthesis by reversibly binding to 30s ribosomal subunit.they were one of the first to be known as "broad spectrum" antibiotics
tetracyclines
5
which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for swine dysentery
lincomycin
6
a way of bacteria acquiring resistance through the passage of resistant genes from cell to cell by direct contact through sex pilus or bridge
conjugation
7
all of the following are members of the 3rd generation quinolones EXCEPT
norfloxacin
8
this is the sulfonamide which is commonly used against urinary tract infection
sulfisoxazole
9
all of these are antibacterial that inhibits nucleic acid function EXCEPT
vancomycin
10
which of the following combinations is considered irrational or antagonistic systematically
chlortetracycline and penicillin G
11
neuromuscular blockade results because of this action of aminoglycosides:
chelation of Ca
12
this substance can serve as a flase substrate for penicillinase therefore it can protect a penicillin antibiotic from destruction of penicillinase:
clavulanic acid
13
cotrimoxazole is a potentiated sulfonamide which consist of trimethoprim and:
sulfamethixazole
14
colistin belongs to the antibiotic group called ___, whose bacterial effect is___
polymyxin; cidal
15
lincosamide is contraindicated in this animal
morgan
16
what organism produces chloramphenicol
streptomyces venezuelae
17
moxalactam is a:
3rd generation cephalosporin
18
the most important advantage of potentiated sulfonamides over regular sulfonamide is
greater potency
19
sulbactam and clavulanic acid are combined with amoxicillin to:
hasten amoxicillin action against beta-lactamase-producing bacteria
20
this is observed when two or more bacteriostatic antibacterial agents are used in combination
additive effect
21
which of the following agents is not an inhibitor of DNA synthesis and replication
rifamycin
22
penicillins are the most active during which phase of bacterial growth
logarithmic phase
23
all of the following are members of the 3rd generation of quinolones EXCEPT:
norfloxacin
24
all of the following are bacteriocidal EXCEPT
erythromycin
25
macrolide antibiotics and their metabolites are excreted mainly in the:
bile
26
this is the primary lesion of aminoglycoside toxicity in the kidney:
tubular necrosis
27
which is NOT true about penicillins?
sodium or potassium salts of penicillin G are highly water soluble are gradually absorbed over 1-3 (or even more) days respectively
28
this agent is used as growth promoter in pigs, but is now banned for use in food animals because of carcinogenic effect
carbadox
29
which of the following is contraindicated when given simultaneously with tetracyclines
all of the above
30
what is the mechanismof action of macrolides?
against 50s
31
this drug is characterized by cardiac toxicity (tachycardia and decreased contractility
tilmicosin
32
in a combination of sulfonamides, as in triple sulfa, the solubility of in water of each sulfonamide
is indipendent of the other
33
a dosing regimen of an antimicrobial is based on:
MIC
34
which of the ff drug combination is not good
amoxicillin and chloramphenicol
35
this is the enzyme inhibited by trimethoprim
dihydrofolate reductase
36
which of the ff is not a bacteriostatic drug?
TMPS
37
allergies due to penicillin is brought about by:
penicilloic acid
38
a third generation cephalosporin which has a gram negative spectrum that is more similar to the fist generation cephalosporin
ceftiofur
39
among the synthetic antiviral agents, this agent may inhibit replication of different strains of influenza A virus, influenza C virus, sendai virus and pseudorabies virus at usual concentration
amantadine
40
tamiflu ®, which is against many flu strains is
oseltamivir
41
these antiviral drugs inhibit viral nucleic acid synthesis
nucleosides
42
a systemic antiviral agent, this is active against all herpesviruses and it is more active than acyclovir against cytomegalovirus for instance in a bone marrow transplant recipient
ganicilovir
43
this is a purine nucleoside:
acyclovir
44
an antiviral that lead to inhibition or delay of the uncoating process that preceds primary transcription
amantadine
45
this systemic antiviral agent is used to treat influenza, bovine herpesvirus, canine distemper, blue tongue, Mareks disease and rotavirus
ribavirin
46
which of the following agents is a pyrimidine nucleoside
trifluridine
47
a polyene antibiotic, this is the first antimycotic antibiotic to be discovered which has a fairly broad spectrum of activity against yeast and various fungi
nystatin
48
an azole antibiotic, this agent is used to treat Candida vaginitis in humasn and it is 1% solution is the drug of choice for Aspergillus infections of the comea
clotrimazole
49
a systemic antifungal agent, this should not be used in pregnant animals because it is embryo toxic and teratogenic
ketoconazole
50
this antifungal can lead to normocytic normochromic anemia
amphotericin B
51
aside from being a dewormer, this agent also has antifungal property
thiabendazole
52
this antifungal has 100% bioavailability
fluconazole
53
what is the most notorious side effect of amphotericin B?
nephrotoxicity
54
this is the choice of treatment for disseminated histoplasmosis in dogs and cats
itraconazole
55
this is a major adverse effect od griseofulvin
hepatotoxicity
56
the mechanism of action of griseofulvin
disrupts mitotic spindle fibers
57
this is a group of antineoplastic drugs that form highly reactive intermediate compounds that are able to transfer alkyl group to DNA
alkylating agents
58
mitotane causes selective destruction of normal and neoplastic adrenal cortical cells by inhibiting production of steroids induced by adrenocorticotropic hormone, which causes atrophy of the inner zones of the adrenal cortex. it is a derivative of:
DDT
59
the canine tumor which is usually treated
lymphosarcoma
60
an example of delayed toxicity that is seen in antiviral agents and the patient exhibits increased incidence of infection associated with leukopenia, increased risk of hemorrhage associated with thrombocytopenia and anemia
myelosuppression
61
vincristine is an alkaloid product of this plant?
periwinkle
62
which of the following antineoplastic agents must be activated in the liver to cytotoxic metabolites?
cyclophosphamide
63
5-fluorouracil must be converted to an active 5-fluoro-2'-deoxyuridine-5'-phosphate form to bind the enzyme thymidylate synthase and block or inhibit DNA and RNA synthase. it is a:
purine analog
64
this is a semisynthetic glycosides derived from the mandrake plant. it is thought to stimulate DNA cleavage mediated by topo isomerase II which contributes to its antineoplastic action
epipodophyllotoxine
65
all of the ff are antineoplastic mitotic inhibitors except:
bleomycin
66
the antineoplastic drug taxanes are extracted from what plant?
yew tree
67
these are naturally derived pesticides from chrysanthemum flower
pyrethrin
68
this probenzimidazole is a metabolized to true benzimidazole but has teratogenic effects in sheep due to its oxfendazole metabolite
febentel
69
although it has no effects in roundworms and tapeworms, this benzimidazole has high activity against all stages of liver flukes
triclabendazole
70
all of the following are used for treatment of malaria except
suramin
71
in cattle, this drug at present is most effective against coccidiosis
amprolium
72
this agent is unique among the anthelmintics because it heightens endogenous GABA induced inhibitory actions in worms to cause paralysis
ivermectin
73
in cattle, this anthelmintic is 100% effective against all GIT roundworms except nematodirus ostertagia and trichuris
thiabendazole
74
ivermectin is contraindicated in this breed of dog because of idiosyncratic reactions which include depression, muscle weakness, blindness, come and death
collie
75
diaveridine is a trimethoprim against this parasite:
coccidia
76
nematode species that are resistant to ivermectin are also likely to be resistant to:
milbemycin
77
which of the following agents would be most effective in treating demotectic mange?
amitraz
78
this agent is combined with pyrethroids (including citrus extracts) to act synergistically in the prevention of metabolic inactivation of the pyrethroid within the insect
piperonyl butoxide
79
this saltor pyrantel makes it poorly soluble in water, thus allowing the drug to reach and be effective against parasite in the large intestines:
pamoate
80
this dewormer act by binding to glutamate gated chloride channel receptors in nematode and arthropod nerve cells allowing an influx of chloride ions:
doramectin
81
melarsomine is:
a heartworm adulticide
82
heartgard ® contains ivermectin which:
is used to prevent heartworm infection
83
what is the mechanism of action of piperazine against helminths?
it hyperpolarizes the nerve membrane
84
this is a nicotinic anthelmintic that acts as agonist at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors of nematodes
levimasole
85
this refers to killing or removing all forms of microbial life (including endospores) in a metal or aj object
sanitation
86
this physical method or microbial control applies pressure to boiling water to prevent steam from escaping
autoclaving
87
rubbing alcohol is simply:
isopropanol
88
this oxidizing agent has keratolytic and anti seborrheic activity which makes it useful in treating pyoderma in dogs
benzoyl peroxide
89
what is the active ingredient of zonrox®?
sodium hypochlorite
90
this is a viscid blackish brown liquid, used primarily for antiseptic bandaging of wounds of the hoof and horn:
pine tar
91
among the ff acids, which can be used as spermatocide
lactic acid
92
which of the following antiseptics can be incorporated in soaps, shampoos, ointments, and surgical scrubs because of its low potential for systemic and dermal toxicity?
chlorhexidine
93
benzalkonium chloride is a :
cationic surfactant
94
what was the source of the first sulfonamide?
azo dye
95
repeated exposure of skin to high concentrations of this agent may lead to sufficient absorption of the antiseptic to cause nervous disorders
hexachlorophene
96
lugols solution is
5% iodine in 10% KI
97
potassium permanganate as an effective algicide and virucide is classfied as
oxidizing agent
98
among the ff agents, which can be used as an astringent?
silver compounds
99
which of the ff agents serve as an ideal teat dip?
iodophor
100
he is considered as the father of chemotherapy
paul Ehrlich