問題一覧
1
Laminated wood spars may be substituted for solid rectangular wood spars
of the same quanlity wood is used in both
2
The strength of a well designed and properly prepared wood splice joint is provided by the
glue
3
Where is information found concerning acceptable species substitutions for wood materials used in aircraft repair?
AC 43.13-1B
4
In cases of elongated bolt holes in a wood spar or cracks in the vicinity of bolt holes,
a new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar replaced entirely
5
A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates
compression failure
6
Which statement about wood decay is correct
Decay is not acceptable in any form or amount
7
Which of the following conditions will determine cceptance of wood with mineral streaks?
Careful inspection fails to reveal any decay
8
The Ibeam wooden spar is routed to
reduce weight
9
Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood aircraft structure provided
they produce a small effect on grain direction
10
The cantilever wing uses
no external bracing
11
Laminated wood is sometimes used in the construction of highly stressed aircraft components. This wood can be identifed by its
parallel grain construction
12
When patching a plywood skin, abrupt changes in cross sectional areas which will develop dangerous stress concentration should be avoided by using
circular or elliptical patches
13
Glue deterioration in wood aircraft structure is indicated
when a joint has separated and the glue surface shows only the imprint of the wood with no wood fibers clinging to the glue.
14
Compression failures in wood aircraft structures are characterized by buckling of the fibers that appear as streaks on the surface
at right angles to the grain
15
When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that
the grain is perpendicular to the skin
16
What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used in the construction and repair of aircraft structures?
To join and reinforce intersecting structural members
17
Fungicidal dopes are used in aircraft finishing as the
first coat to prevent fabric rotting and are applied thin enough to saturate the fabric
18
What is the usual cause pf runs and sags in aircraft finishes?
Too much material applied in one coat
19
Which defect in aircraft finishes may be caused by adverse humidity, drafts, or sudden changes in temperáture?
Blushing
20
What is used to slow the drying time of some finishes and prevent blush?
Retarded
21
Which type of coating typically includes phosphoric acid as one of its components at the time of application?
Wash primer
22
Which properly applied finish topcoat is the most durable and chemical resistant
Polyurethane
23
Aluminum-pigment in dope is used primarily to
exclude sunlight from the fabric
24
A correct use for acetone is to
remove grease from fabric
25
Which of the following is a hazard associated with sanding on fabric covered surfaces during the finishing process?
Static electricity buildup
26
What is likely to occur if unhydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
Corrosion
27
Before applying a protective coating to any unpainted clean aluminum you should,
avoid touching the surface with bare hands
28
What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
A glossy, blush-free finish
29
Which statement is true regarding paint system compatibility?
Old wash primer coats may be overcoated directly with epoxy finishes.
30
If registration numbers are to be applied to an aircraft with a letter height of 12 inches, what is the minimum space required for the registration mark NI683C? Note: 2/3 x height = character width. 1/6 x height = width for 1. 1/4 x 2/3 height = spacing. 1/6 x height = stroke or line width.
52 inches
31
If masking tape is applied to an aircraft such as for trim spraying, and is left on for several days and/or exposed to heat, it is likely that the tape will
cure to the finish and be very difficult to remove
32
You can distinguish between aluminum and aluminum alloy by
testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic soda
33
Annealing of aluminum
removes stresses caused by forming
34
When repairing puncture type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the doubler should be tapered to
100 times the thickness of the metal
35
A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt tension and shear fasteners (other than their application) is in the
number of locking codes grooves
36
One of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that
they can be installed with ordinary hand tools
37
Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated
by the manufacturer and do not require heat treatment before being driven
38
The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify the
body diameter, type of hea, and length
39
The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is measured in
hundredths of an inch
40
The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is measured in
sixteenths of an inch
41
Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to
attach parts or Components with screws to sheet metal.
42
Cherrymax and Olympic-Lok rivets
utilize a pulling tool for installation
43
Select the alternative which best describes the function of the flute section of a twist drill.
Prevents overheating of the drill point
44
What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?
90°.
45
When comparing the machining techniques for stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminum alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to drill the stainless steel at a
lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill
46
When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an inchuded angle of
140° and turn at a low speed.
47
Which is correct concerning the use of a file
Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, except when filing very soft metals such as lead or aluminum.
48
Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size?
Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction
49
What should be the included angle of a twist drill for hard metal?
118°
50
The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum alloy rivets indicate the
specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets
51
When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear strength is obtained
only after a period of age hardening
52
What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment?
To retart age hardening
53
Under certain conditions, type A rivets are not used because of their
low strength characteristics
54
Heat treated rivets in the D and DD series that are not driven within the prescribed time after heat treatment or removal from refrigeration
must be reheat treated before use
55
The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are
1/8 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch long
56
Most rivets used in aircraft construction have
dimples
57
MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which has
an overall length of 5/16 inch
58
Which rivet may be used as received without further treatment?
2117-T3
59
A DD rivet is heat treated before use to
soften to facilitate riveting
60
Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy structures?
5056 aluminum
61
Which rivet is used for riveting nickel steel alloys?
Monel
62
A well designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to
shear loads
63
Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard category airplanes must
be at least flame resistant
64
In what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector?
Cockpit and/or cabin
65
What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated?
A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically
66
When air samplęs contain carbon monoxide, portable carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow silica gel will turn which color?
Green
67
Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of
detection
68
Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called
photoelectrical devices
69
A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test unit would be returned to service by
installing a new indicating element
70
Which fire detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?
Thermocouple
71
Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected by which instrument?
Photoelectric cell
72
Light refraction smoke detectors
sense light reflected from smoke particies passing through a chamber.
73
When installing pneumatic surface-bonded type deicer boots
remove all paint from the area to be covered by the deicer boot.
74
Which of the following are found in a laminated integral electrically heated windshield system? 1. Autotransformer. 2. Heat control relay. 3. Heat control toggle switch. 4. 24V DC power supply. 5. Indicating light.
1, 2, 3, and 5
75
What is one check for proper operation of a pitot/static tube heater after replacement?
Ammeter reading
76
What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system?
Distributor valve
77
What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer boots on reciprocating engine, aircraft?
Vane type pump
78
Which of the following regulates the vacüum of the air pump to hold the deicing boots deflated when the pneumatic deicing system is off?
Suction relief valve
79
What may be used to clean deicer boots?
Soap and water
80
Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and intake ducts. When is this type of anti ice system usually operated during flight?
Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or expected to occur.
81
Which of the following indications occur during a normal operational check of a pneumatic deicer system?
Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge and relatively steady readings on the vacuum gauge.
82
A hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8794 will have a yellow stripe running the length of the hose.
is used to ensure that the hose is installed without excessive twisting.
83
The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is generally accomplished
by operating the various hydraulic components through several cycles
84
Which statement about fluids is correct?
All fluids readily transmit pressure
85
Pressure is a term used to indicate the force per unit area. Pressure is usually expressed in
pounds per square inch
86
lf two actuating cylinders which have the samė cross sectional area but different lengths of stroke are connected io the same source of hydraulic pressure, they will exert
equal amounts of force and will move at the same rate of speed.
87
Using a hand pump, pressure of 100 PSI has been built up in a hydraulic system. The hand pump piston is 1 inch in diameter. A 1/2-inch line connects the hand pump to an actuating cylinder 2 inches in diameter. What is the pressure in the line between the hand pump and the actuator?
100 PSI
88
A crossflow valve which is designed to bypass fluid from one side of an actuating cylinder to the other side, under certain conditions, may be found in some aircraft installed in the
landing gear system
89
To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock strut after initial compression resulting from landing impact,
various types of valves or orifices are used which restrict the reverse fluid flow.
90
The metering pin in oleo shock struts serve to
retard flow of oil as the struts are compressed.
91
After performing maintenance on an aircrafť's landing gear system which may have affected the system's operation, it is usually necessary to
make an operational check with the aircraft on jacks
92
The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will
melt at a specified elevated temperature
93
Over inflated aircraft tires may cause damge to the
wheel flange
94
An embossed letter “H” on an air valve core stem
indicates high-pressure type
95
On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear, some means must be provided to
extend the landing gear if the normal operating mechanism fails.
96
An automatic damping action occurs at the steering damper if for any reason the flow of high pressure fluid is removed from the
inlet of the steer damper
97
What is the purpose of the torque links attached to the cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut?
Maintain correct wheel alignment