ASCPi FINAL COACHING 3

3回閲覧 • 100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

247. 6 consecutive values that are continuously decreasing is observable in the Levey- Jennings chart. Which of the ff is the most appropriate course of action?

Open new test kit

⭐️248. A NEWBORN SUFFERING FROM SEVERE HDN DUE TO JKB. IF EXCHANGE TRANSFUSION HAS TO BE DONE. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MUST BE GIVEN

Mother’s blood

249. Which of the ff blood components is the best source of factor IX?

Prothrombin complex

250. Mixed acid-base disorder in salicylate intoxication?

Respiratory alkalosis & metabolic acidosis

251. Respiratory acidosis may result from which of the ff?

Chronic obstructive pulmonary dse

252. A diagnostic test was performed on 100 people. The ff are the results: 10 true positives, 40 false positives, 45 true negatives, 5 false negatives. Which of the ff statistical determination is true about the test?

Test sensitivity is 66.7%

253. A patient with renal tubular acidosis would most likely excrete a urine with a:

high ph

254. The white count on an adult patients is 2.5x109/L. When the blood film is examined. The following results are obtained: 15% neutrophils & 75% lymphocytes. What conclusion can be made about the number of lymphocytes for this patient?

Relatively increased but normal in absolute numbers

255.A newborn demonstrates detective, ecchymosis & mucosa bleeding. The preferred component for this infant would be:

Platelet concentrate

256. For plateletpheresis donors, the pretransfusion platelet count must be at least:

150 x 103/uL

258. in a multichannel analyzer, controls of enzymatic assays are within 3SD but outside 2SD, while non-enzymatic test controls are within 2SD. What is the probable cause?

Instrument temp may be too low

259. For which of the ff transfusion candidates would CMV-seronegative blood be most likely indicated?

Transplant candidates

260. Which of the ff explanation is most likely regarding a 1+ glucose strip reading & a negative Clinitest result?

A little amount of glucose is present

261. A patient is treat for prostate cancer, after 12 months his PSA level is above normal. This is due to:

Cancer has recurred

262. Identify the acid-base disorder: ph= 7.23; pCO2= 35mmHg; HCO3= 10mmol/L

Metabolic acidosis.

263. Pooled 8 cryoprecipitate units using a sterile closed connector tube at 7.37 & stored it at 24C when will it expire?

13.37

266. Which one of the ff values obtained during a glucose tolerance tes t are diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?

Fasting plasma glucose = 126 mg/dl

267. CLL affects what cell?

B-cell

268.FBS is 130 mg/dl & the 2hr post cranial glucose is 220 mg/dl . What is the next course of action?

No further testing needed

⭐️269. FBS is 120 mg/dl & the 2nd hr OGTT is 160 mg/dl

Impaired glucose tolerance

271. In general, in which of the ff situations is the analysis of a tumor marker most useful?

Testing for recurrence

⭐️273. THE PATIENT EXPERIENCED PROLONGED APNEA AND PARALYSIS AFTER ADMINISTRATION OF SUCCINYLCHOLINE, AN ANESTHESIA MEDICATION. THIS IS MOST LIKELY DUE TO:

Pseudocholinesterase deficiency

274. What test should be performed to monitor DM in px with hemolytic anemia?

Fructosamine

275. A mother is group A, with anti-D in her serum. What is the preferred blood product if an intrauterine transfusion is indicated?

O, Rh(-) RBCs, irradiated

276. The ff results were obtained. Which of the ff is the most probable explanation for these results?

Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn, infant has a false(-) Rh typing

277. Laboratory studies of maternal & cord blood yield the ff results: If exchange transfusion is necessary, the best choice blood is:

O, Rh(+), E-

⭐️280. TWO URINE SPECIMENS WERE COLLECTED FOR EVALUATION OF ORTHODONTIC PROTEINURIA: 1: FIRST MORNING SPECIMEN AND 2: COLLECTED AFTER SEVERAL HOURS OF NORMAL ACTIVITY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING RESULTS IS MOST CONSISTENT WITH ORTHOSTATIC PROTEINURIA?

Spx 1 = Neg protein; spx 2 = 1+ protein

281. RHCE codes for C/c & E/e antigens on:

A single protein

282. A Kleihauer- Betke test result is reported 1.3% on an Rh(-) mother postpartum. How many vials of standard 300ug dose of RhIg should be administered within 72hrs to the mother with this amount of bleed?

3 vials

283. Which of the ff serologic and infectious disease screening tests are performed on every blood donation?

Antibody to HTLV I/II, WNV RNA, antibody to HBV core antigen

284. C, c & e. WHAT IS THE MOST PROBABLE PHENOTYPE

R’,r

286. CD marker expressed on most cases of AML?

CD117

287. Alpha 1 flat curve

Pulmonary emphysema

289. A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of FFP. Which of the ff blood groups of FFP should be issued?

290. Which of the ff is true about the function of dextran sulfate in HDL determination?

To precipitate non apo-A containing lipoproteins

291. A patient with anti-K and anti-Jka in her plasma needs 2 units of RBC for surgery. How many group specific units would need to be screened to find 2 units of RBC. The frequency of Jk (a+) is 77% and K+ frequency is 10%.

292. During platelet aggregation studies, which of the ff conditions will present abCnormal aggregation with ECA with normal aggregation with ristocetin?

Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

294. A patient is placed on clopidogrel. The clinician wants to determine if the dose is sufficient to impart platelet function. A platelet aggregation test is ordered. The agonist which would result in a decreased aggregation pattern would be:

Adenosine diphosphate

295. A fasting serum sample from an asymptomatic 43yp woman is examined visually & chemically with the ff results. What lipoproteins are most likely increased in the patients sample? Initial appearance: milky After overnight refrigeration: creamy layer over turbidity serum

Chylomicrons and very low density lipoproteins

297. Anti-K & anti-c were found in a patient with colon cancer. How many units of red cells would need to be screened to find two compatible units for surgery? The antigen negative frequency for K & c are 0.92 & 0.20, respectively.

11 units

298. Which of the ff ab is clinically significant?

Anti-P

299. Which of the ff should be selected for exchange transfusion if the newborn is group O, Rh(+) & the mother is Group O, Rh(+) with anti-c & anti-E.

Group O, CDe/CDe

300. What is true about the offending antibody?

Absorbed from plasma

301. Platelet aggregation will occur upon the production of:

Thromboxane A2

303. Serum magnesium levels should be closely monitored in cases of?

AOTA

304. Refer to the panel: Based on the results of the above panel, which technique would be most helpful in determining anyibody specificity?

Proteolytic enzymes treatment

305. A 53-year-old man was in recovery following a triple bypass operation. Oozing was noted from his surgical wound. The ff laboratory data were obtained: identify the most likely cause of bleeding.

Dilutional thrombocytopenia

306. Which of the ff blood products has the longest shelf life?

Red Blood Cells leukocyte reduced with an additive solution

307. Which of the ff phenotypes will react with anti-f?

308. A group A patient requires two units of FFP. There are currently no Group A units in inventory. What units of FFP can be selected for transfusion to this patient?

Group AB

309. Based on this antibody identification studies, which of the ff red cell phenotypes should be included in a selected cell panel to further confirm or eliminate additional antibody specificities?

K+, S-, Jkb-

310. A deficiency of protein C is associated with which of the following?

Increased risk of thrombosis

311. A unit of Leukoreduced RBC that expires in 32 days has just been irradiated. The expiration date of this unit will:

Be reduced by 4days

313. Four units of Group A platelets were transfused to a group AB patient because group AB platelets were not available. The patient pretransfusion platelet count was 10 x 103/ul and the post transfusion count was 16 x 103/ul. From this information, what would the laboratorian most likely conclude about the patient?

Has developed antibodies to the transfused platelets

314. MCV (60) & MCHC (30) were low, but RBC count (6.0) is normal. What condition?

Beta thalassemia minor

318. Negative LE but with 8 WBCs/hpf?

Lymphocytes were seen

⭐️321. ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE ELECTROPHORESIS (BANDS AT A, F & A2/C)

Beta thalassemia minor

322. Causative agent of meningitis that is intrinsically resistant to ceftriaxone?

Listeria monocytogenes

323. Cells that are negative to CD3, CD5 & CD19 are most likely?

NK cells

⭐️324. REAGENTS FOR APTT?

Phospholipids, activator, calcium chloride

327. A patient develops unexpected bleeding & the ff test results were obtained? What is the most probable cause of these results?

DIC

328. A patient has chronic liver disease, which of the ff crystals may be seen in his urine?

Tyrosine & leucine

329. What condition is due to ADAMTS13 deficiency?

Thrombosis thrombocytopenic purpura

⭐️330. WHAT CAN NEUTRAILIZE LUPUS-LIKE INHIBITOR IN VITRO?

Platelets

332. Positive blood strip, no red blood cells in the urine?

Dilute alkaline urine

⭐️333. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FUNGAL AGENTS REQUIRES BSL2, AND BIOSAFETY LEVEL 3 WHEN HANDLED?

Coccidioides

334. AGENT OF BIOTERRORISM, GRAM NEGATIVE, SATELLITISM WITH S. AUREUS. WHAT TO DO?

⭐️Rule out Brucella & Francisella tularensis

335. Which of the ff are regulatory agencies?

FDA & OSHA

336. Which of the ff must be done based on the scenario? 6:00 – blood was collected using a gray top tube 10:00 – specimen was received in the laboratory 10:30 – specimen was centrifuged 11:00 – ppasma was separated from the cells 11:30 – plasma was tested for glucose using glucose oxidase and the result is 60 mg/dL.

Repeat test using an alternate method

337. In which of the ff organisms a nitrocefin test is needed?

Haemophilus influenzae

338. APTT result from the main laboratory is 67 sec & is frozen to be saved for additional lupus testing in the special coagulation laboratory. The aPtt repeated in the next day is 37 seconds.

Platelet contaminated sample

339. Glitter cells are urine microscopic findings of what type of cell?

Neutrophils

⭐️340. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING EXHIBITS MALTESE CROSS FORMATION ON A POLARIZED MICROSCOPE?

Starch granules

341. Postprandial turbidity is caused by?

Lipoproteins

342. What may be mistaken as hyaline casts?

Mucus threads

346. A patient had undergone gall bladder surgery. Seeing the ff coagulation test results, what test must be done next?

DRVVT

347. The best test to determine if a sample is contaminated with heparin is:

Thrombin time

⭐️90. OF THE FOLLOWING BLOOD COMPONENTS, WHICH ONE SHOULD BE USED TO PREVENT HLA ALLOIMMUNIZATION OF THE RECIPIENT?

Leukocyte Reduced RBC

⭐️ONCE MYELOBAST BECOMES PROMYELOCYTE, IT LOSES EXPRESSION OF:

CD 34 AND HLA DR

246. Leukemoid rxn is a clinical syndrome resembling leukemia in which the WBC ct is greatly elevated in response to an allergen, inflammatory dse, infection, poison, hemorrhage, burn or severe physical stress. This is usually distinguished from CML by the use of what?

LAP score

111. Description of Zygomycetes?

Aseptate hyphae w/ sporangiophores

169. What must be done next after seeing a monoclonal gamma pattern in SPE?

Immunofixation electrophoresis

178. RPR: NR, FTA-ABS: R, interpret?

Past infection

⭐️331. LUPUS ANTICOAGULANT IS ASSOCIATED WITH?

Thrombosis

⭐️316. CD MARKERS MOST USEFUL FOR DIAGNOSIS OF ACUTE MEGAKARYOBLASTIC LEUKEMIA?

CD41, CD61

40. Elevated urinary levels of 5 HIAA are associated with:

Carcinoid tumor

⭐️146. IMMUNOPHENOTYPING RESULT FOR PAROXYSMAL NOCTURNAL HEMOGLOBINURIA

(-)DAF CD55, CD59

⭐️206. ANTIBODY-MEDIATED DAMAGE TO THE ACETYLCHOLINE RECEPTORS IN SKELETAL MUSCLE LEADING TO A PROGRESSIVE MUSCLE WEAKNESS?

Myasthenia gravis

234. Chromosomal translocation pair that creates a BCR/ABL1 fusion gene product asso. With CML?

T (9;22)

⭐️IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANISM A NITROCEFIN TEST IS NEEDED?

H. influenzae

1. Often resembles, Confused, Mistakenly Identified as E coli in MALDI- TOF

Shigella

⭐️IDENTIFY THE VIRULENCE FACTOR OF THE PATHOGENIC NEISSERIA SPECIES THAT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE INITIAL ATTACHMENT OF THE ORGANISM TO HOST TISSUES.

pili

A 1.Diabetic coma with SG of 1.032, what does it mean?

ketoacidosis

1. Peripheral smear from BM photograph: With Blasts and band and PMNs

normal marrow smear

⭐️68. A 62 YEAR OLD PATIENT WITH HYPERLIPOPROTEINURIA HAS A LARGE AMOUNT OF PROTEIN IN HIS URINE. MICROSCOPIC ANALYSIS YIELDS MODERATE TO MANY FATTY, WAXY, GRANULAR AND CELLULQR CASTS. MANY OVAL FAT BODIES ARE ALSO NOTED.

nephrotic syndrome

⭐️148. CALIBRATION OF BLOOD GAS ANALYZERS REQUIRES WHAT?

2 buffers of known ph and a constant temp

⭐️IDENTIFY THE CIRCLE IN FLOW CYTOMMETRT. IMMUNOPHENOTYPING RESULT: POSITIVE FOR CD5, CD 19, CD23 AND EITHER KAPPA OR LAMBDA

CLL

⭐️18. ANTI-MITOCHONDRIAL ANTIBODY IS SEEN IN WHAT CONDITION?

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

⭐️IN HOMOGENOUS PATTERN WHAT ANTIBODIES ARE PRESENT?

anti-dsDNA(SLE)

100

⭐️IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE STAINING PATTERN USING CRITHIDIA LUCILIAE SUBSTRATE DETECTS:

anti-dsDNA(SLE)

clinical microscopy

clinical microscopy

clinical chemistry

clinical chemistry

immunology & serology

ユーザ名非公開 · 99問 · 1年前

immunology & serology

hematology

hematology

Bloodbank 1

Bloodbank 1

microbiology

microbiology

molecular biology

molecular biology

ASCPi SIMULATED EXAM1

ユーザ名非公開 · 99問 · 1年前

ASCPi SIMULATED EXAM1

99問 • 1年前

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ASCPi STIMULATED EXAM 2

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ASCPi STIMULATED EXAM 2

98問 • 1年前

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ASCPi Diagnostic Exam

ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前

ASCPi Diagnostic Exam

FINAL COACHING 1

FINAL COACHING 1

FINAL COACHING ASCPI 2

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FINAL COACHING ASCPI 2

100問 • 1年前

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cerebro students recalls

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cerebro students recalls

100問 • 1年前

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cerebro students recalls 2

ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前

cerebro students recalls 2

100問 • 1年前

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問題一覧

247. 6 consecutive values that are continuously decreasing is observable in the Levey- Jennings chart. Which of the ff is the most appropriate course of action?

Open new test kit

⭐️248. A NEWBORN SUFFERING FROM SEVERE HDN DUE TO JKB. IF EXCHANGE TRANSFUSION HAS TO BE DONE. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MUST BE GIVEN

Mother’s blood

249. Which of the ff blood components is the best source of factor IX?

Prothrombin complex

250. Mixed acid-base disorder in salicylate intoxication?

Respiratory alkalosis & metabolic acidosis

251. Respiratory acidosis may result from which of the ff?

Chronic obstructive pulmonary dse

Test sensitivity is 66.7%

253. A patient with renal tubular acidosis would most likely excrete a urine with a:

high ph

Relatively increased but normal in absolute numbers

255.A newborn demonstrates detective, ecchymosis & mucosa bleeding. The preferred component for this infant would be:

Platelet concentrate

256. For plateletpheresis donors, the pretransfusion platelet count must be at least:

150 x 103/uL

258. in a multichannel analyzer, controls of enzymatic assays are within 3SD but outside 2SD, while non-enzymatic test controls are within 2SD. What is the probable cause?

Instrument temp may be too low

259. For which of the ff transfusion candidates would CMV-seronegative blood be most likely indicated?

Transplant candidates

260. Which of the ff explanation is most likely regarding a 1+ glucose strip reading & a negative Clinitest result?

A little amount of glucose is present

261. A patient is treat for prostate cancer, after 12 months his PSA level is above normal. This is due to:

Cancer has recurred

262. Identify the acid-base disorder: ph= 7.23; pCO2= 35mmHg; HCO3= 10mmol/L

Metabolic acidosis.

263. Pooled 8 cryoprecipitate units using a sterile closed connector tube at 7.37 & stored it at 24C when will it expire?

13.37

266. Which one of the ff values obtained during a glucose tolerance tes t are diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?

Fasting plasma glucose = 126 mg/dl

267. CLL affects what cell?

B-cell

268.FBS is 130 mg/dl & the 2hr post cranial glucose is 220 mg/dl . What is the next course of action?

No further testing needed

⭐️269. FBS is 120 mg/dl & the 2nd hr OGTT is 160 mg/dl

Impaired glucose tolerance

271. In general, in which of the ff situations is the analysis of a tumor marker most useful?

Testing for recurrence

⭐️273. THE PATIENT EXPERIENCED PROLONGED APNEA AND PARALYSIS AFTER ADMINISTRATION OF SUCCINYLCHOLINE, AN ANESTHESIA MEDICATION. THIS IS MOST LIKELY DUE TO:

Pseudocholinesterase deficiency

274. What test should be performed to monitor DM in px with hemolytic anemia?

Fructosamine

275. A mother is group A, with anti-D in her serum. What is the preferred blood product if an intrauterine transfusion is indicated?

O, Rh(-) RBCs, irradiated

276. The ff results were obtained. Which of the ff is the most probable explanation for these results?

Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn, infant has a false(-) Rh typing

277. Laboratory studies of maternal & cord blood yield the ff results: If exchange transfusion is necessary, the best choice blood is:

O, Rh(+), E-

Spx 1 = Neg protein; spx 2 = 1+ protein

281. RHCE codes for C/c & E/e antigens on:

A single protein

3 vials

283. Which of the ff serologic and infectious disease screening tests are performed on every blood donation?

Antibody to HTLV I/II, WNV RNA, antibody to HBV core antigen

284. C, c & e. WHAT IS THE MOST PROBABLE PHENOTYPE

R’,r

286. CD marker expressed on most cases of AML?

CD117

287. Alpha 1 flat curve

Pulmonary emphysema

289. A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of FFP. Which of the ff blood groups of FFP should be issued?

290. Which of the ff is true about the function of dextran sulfate in HDL determination?

To precipitate non apo-A containing lipoproteins

292. During platelet aggregation studies, which of the ff conditions will present abCnormal aggregation with ECA with normal aggregation with ristocetin?

Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

Adenosine diphosphate

Chylomicrons and very low density lipoproteins

11 units

298. Which of the ff ab is clinically significant?

Anti-P

299. Which of the ff should be selected for exchange transfusion if the newborn is group O, Rh(+) & the mother is Group O, Rh(+) with anti-c & anti-E.

Group O, CDe/CDe

300. What is true about the offending antibody?

Absorbed from plasma

301. Platelet aggregation will occur upon the production of:

Thromboxane A2

303. Serum magnesium levels should be closely monitored in cases of?

AOTA

304. Refer to the panel: Based on the results of the above panel, which technique would be most helpful in determining anyibody specificity?

Proteolytic enzymes treatment

305. A 53-year-old man was in recovery following a triple bypass operation. Oozing was noted from his surgical wound. The ff laboratory data were obtained: identify the most likely cause of bleeding.

Dilutional thrombocytopenia

306. Which of the ff blood products has the longest shelf life?

Red Blood Cells leukocyte reduced with an additive solution

307. Which of the ff phenotypes will react with anti-f?

308. A group A patient requires two units of FFP. There are currently no Group A units in inventory. What units of FFP can be selected for transfusion to this patient?

Group AB

309. Based on this antibody identification studies, which of the ff red cell phenotypes should be included in a selected cell panel to further confirm or eliminate additional antibody specificities?

K+, S-, Jkb-

310. A deficiency of protein C is associated with which of the following?

Increased risk of thrombosis

311. A unit of Leukoreduced RBC that expires in 32 days has just been irradiated. The expiration date of this unit will:

Be reduced by 4days

Has developed antibodies to the transfused platelets

314. MCV (60) & MCHC (30) were low, but RBC count (6.0) is normal. What condition?

Beta thalassemia minor

318. Negative LE but with 8 WBCs/hpf?

Lymphocytes were seen

⭐️321. ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE ELECTROPHORESIS (BANDS AT A, F & A2/C)

Beta thalassemia minor

322. Causative agent of meningitis that is intrinsically resistant to ceftriaxone?

Listeria monocytogenes

323. Cells that are negative to CD3, CD5 & CD19 are most likely?

NK cells

⭐️324. REAGENTS FOR APTT?

Phospholipids, activator, calcium chloride

327. A patient develops unexpected bleeding & the ff test results were obtained? What is the most probable cause of these results?

DIC

328. A patient has chronic liver disease, which of the ff crystals may be seen in his urine?

Tyrosine & leucine

329. What condition is due to ADAMTS13 deficiency?

Thrombosis thrombocytopenic purpura

⭐️330. WHAT CAN NEUTRAILIZE LUPUS-LIKE INHIBITOR IN VITRO?

Platelets

332. Positive blood strip, no red blood cells in the urine?

Dilute alkaline urine

⭐️333. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FUNGAL AGENTS REQUIRES BSL2, AND BIOSAFETY LEVEL 3 WHEN HANDLED?

Coccidioides

334. AGENT OF BIOTERRORISM, GRAM NEGATIVE, SATELLITISM WITH S. AUREUS. WHAT TO DO?

⭐️Rule out Brucella & Francisella tularensis

335. Which of the ff are regulatory agencies?

FDA & OSHA

Repeat test using an alternate method

337. In which of the ff organisms a nitrocefin test is needed?

Haemophilus influenzae

338. APTT result from the main laboratory is 67 sec & is frozen to be saved for additional lupus testing in the special coagulation laboratory. The aPtt repeated in the next day is 37 seconds.

Platelet contaminated sample

339. Glitter cells are urine microscopic findings of what type of cell?

Neutrophils

⭐️340. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING EXHIBITS MALTESE CROSS FORMATION ON A POLARIZED MICROSCOPE?

Starch granules

341. Postprandial turbidity is caused by?

Lipoproteins

342. What may be mistaken as hyaline casts?

Mucus threads

346. A patient had undergone gall bladder surgery. Seeing the ff coagulation test results, what test must be done next?

DRVVT

347. The best test to determine if a sample is contaminated with heparin is:

Thrombin time

⭐️90. OF THE FOLLOWING BLOOD COMPONENTS, WHICH ONE SHOULD BE USED TO PREVENT HLA ALLOIMMUNIZATION OF THE RECIPIENT?

Leukocyte Reduced RBC

⭐️ONCE MYELOBAST BECOMES PROMYELOCYTE, IT LOSES EXPRESSION OF:

CD 34 AND HLA DR

LAP score

111. Description of Zygomycetes?

Aseptate hyphae w/ sporangiophores

169. What must be done next after seeing a monoclonal gamma pattern in SPE?

Immunofixation electrophoresis

178. RPR: NR, FTA-ABS: R, interpret?

Past infection

⭐️331. LUPUS ANTICOAGULANT IS ASSOCIATED WITH?

Thrombosis

⭐️316. CD MARKERS MOST USEFUL FOR DIAGNOSIS OF ACUTE MEGAKARYOBLASTIC LEUKEMIA?

CD41, CD61

40. Elevated urinary levels of 5 HIAA are associated with:

Carcinoid tumor

⭐️146. IMMUNOPHENOTYPING RESULT FOR PAROXYSMAL NOCTURNAL HEMOGLOBINURIA

(-)DAF CD55, CD59

⭐️206. ANTIBODY-MEDIATED DAMAGE TO THE ACETYLCHOLINE RECEPTORS IN SKELETAL MUSCLE LEADING TO A PROGRESSIVE MUSCLE WEAKNESS?

Myasthenia gravis

234. Chromosomal translocation pair that creates a BCR/ABL1 fusion gene product asso. With CML?

T (9;22)

⭐️IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANISM A NITROCEFIN TEST IS NEEDED?

H. influenzae

1. Often resembles, Confused, Mistakenly Identified as E coli in MALDI- TOF

Shigella

⭐️IDENTIFY THE VIRULENCE FACTOR OF THE PATHOGENIC NEISSERIA SPECIES THAT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE INITIAL ATTACHMENT OF THE ORGANISM TO HOST TISSUES.

pili

A 1.Diabetic coma with SG of 1.032, what does it mean?

ketoacidosis

1. Peripheral smear from BM photograph: With Blasts and band and PMNs

normal marrow smear

nephrotic syndrome

⭐️148. CALIBRATION OF BLOOD GAS ANALYZERS REQUIRES WHAT?

2 buffers of known ph and a constant temp

⭐️IDENTIFY THE CIRCLE IN FLOW CYTOMMETRT. IMMUNOPHENOTYPING RESULT: POSITIVE FOR CD5, CD 19, CD23 AND EITHER KAPPA OR LAMBDA

CLL

⭐️18. ANTI-MITOCHONDRIAL ANTIBODY IS SEEN IN WHAT CONDITION?

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

⭐️IN HOMOGENOUS PATTERN WHAT ANTIBODIES ARE PRESENT?

anti-dsDNA(SLE)

100

⭐️IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE STAINING PATTERN USING CRITHIDIA LUCILIAE SUBSTRATE DETECTS:

anti-dsDNA(SLE)