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ASCPi FINAL COACHING 3
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  • 問題数 100 • 12/18/2024

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    問題一覧

  • 1

    247. 6 consecutive values that are continuously decreasing is observable in the Levey- Jennings chart. Which of the ff is the most appropriate course of action?

    Open new test kit

  • 2

    ⭐️248. A NEWBORN SUFFERING FROM SEVERE HDN DUE TO JKB. IF EXCHANGE TRANSFUSION HAS TO BE DONE. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MUST BE GIVEN

    Mother’s blood

  • 3

    249. Which of the ff blood components is the best source of factor IX?

    Prothrombin complex

  • 4

    250. Mixed acid-base disorder in salicylate intoxication?

    Respiratory alkalosis & metabolic acidosis

  • 5

    251. Respiratory acidosis may result from which of the ff?

    Chronic obstructive pulmonary dse

  • 6

    252. A diagnostic test was performed on 100 people. The ff are the results: 10 true positives, 40 false positives, 45 true negatives, 5 false negatives. Which of the ff statistical determination is true about the test?

    Test sensitivity is 66.7%

  • 7

    253. A patient with renal tubular acidosis would most likely excrete a urine with a:

    high ph

  • 8

    254. The white count on an adult patients is 2.5x109/L. When the blood film is examined. The following results are obtained: 15% neutrophils & 75% lymphocytes. What conclusion can be made about the number of lymphocytes for this patient?

    Relatively increased but normal in absolute numbers

  • 9

    255.A newborn demonstrates detective, ecchymosis & mucosa bleeding. The preferred component for this infant would be:

    Platelet concentrate

  • 10

    256. For plateletpheresis donors, the pretransfusion platelet count must be at least:

    150 x 103/uL

  • 11

    258. in a multichannel analyzer, controls of enzymatic assays are within 3SD but outside 2SD, while non-enzymatic test controls are within 2SD. What is the probable cause?

    Instrument temp may be too low

  • 12

    259. For which of the ff transfusion candidates would CMV-seronegative blood be most likely indicated?

    Transplant candidates

  • 13

    260. Which of the ff explanation is most likely regarding a 1+ glucose strip reading & a negative Clinitest result?

    A little amount of glucose is present

  • 14

    261. A patient is treat for prostate cancer, after 12 months his PSA level is above normal. This is due to:

    Cancer has recurred

  • 15

    262. Identify the acid-base disorder: ph= 7.23; pCO2= 35mmHg; HCO3= 10mmol/L

    Metabolic acidosis.

  • 16

    263. Pooled 8 cryoprecipitate units using a sterile closed connector tube at 7.37 & stored it at 24C when will it expire?

    13.37

  • 17

    266. Which one of the ff values obtained during a glucose tolerance tes t are diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?

    Fasting plasma glucose = 126 mg/dl

  • 18

    267. CLL affects what cell?

    B-cell

  • 19

    268.FBS is 130 mg/dl & the 2hr post cranial glucose is 220 mg/dl . What is the next course of action?

    No further testing needed

  • 20

    ⭐️269. FBS is 120 mg/dl & the 2nd hr OGTT is 160 mg/dl

    Impaired glucose tolerance

  • 21

    271. In general, in which of the ff situations is the analysis of a tumor marker most useful?

    Testing for recurrence

  • 22

    ⭐️273. THE PATIENT EXPERIENCED PROLONGED APNEA AND PARALYSIS AFTER ADMINISTRATION OF SUCCINYLCHOLINE, AN ANESTHESIA MEDICATION. THIS IS MOST LIKELY DUE TO:

    Pseudocholinesterase deficiency

  • 23

    274. What test should be performed to monitor DM in px with hemolytic anemia?

    Fructosamine

  • 24

    275. A mother is group A, with anti-D in her serum. What is the preferred blood product if an intrauterine transfusion is indicated?

    O, Rh(-) RBCs, irradiated

  • 25

    276. The ff results were obtained. Which of the ff is the most probable explanation for these results?

    Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn, infant has a false(-) Rh typing

  • 26

    277. Laboratory studies of maternal & cord blood yield the ff results: If exchange transfusion is necessary, the best choice blood is:

    O, Rh(+), E-

  • 27

    ⭐️280. TWO URINE SPECIMENS WERE COLLECTED FOR EVALUATION OF ORTHODONTIC PROTEINURIA: 1: FIRST MORNING SPECIMEN AND 2: COLLECTED AFTER SEVERAL HOURS OF NORMAL ACTIVITY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING RESULTS IS MOST CONSISTENT WITH ORTHOSTATIC PROTEINURIA?

    Spx 1 = Neg protein; spx 2 = 1+ protein

  • 28

    281. RHCE codes for C/c & E/e antigens on:

    A single protein

  • 29

    282. A Kleihauer- Betke test result is reported 1.3% on an Rh(-) mother postpartum. How many vials of standard 300ug dose of RhIg should be administered within 72hrs to the mother with this amount of bleed?

    3 vials

  • 30

    283. Which of the ff serologic and infectious disease screening tests are performed on every blood donation?

    Antibody to HTLV I/II, WNV RNA, antibody to HBV core antigen

  • 31

    284. C, c & e. WHAT IS THE MOST PROBABLE PHENOTYPE

    R’,r

  • 32

    286. CD marker expressed on most cases of AML?

    CD117

  • 33

    287. Alpha 1 flat curve

    Pulmonary emphysema

  • 34

    289. A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of FFP. Which of the ff blood groups of FFP should be issued?

    AB

  • 35

    290. Which of the ff is true about the function of dextran sulfate in HDL determination?

    To precipitate non apo-A containing lipoproteins

  • 36

    291. A patient with anti-K and anti-Jka in her plasma needs 2 units of RBC for surgery. How many group specific units would need to be screened to find 2 units of RBC. The frequency of Jk (a+) is 77% and K+ frequency is 10%.

    10

  • 37

    292. During platelet aggregation studies, which of the ff conditions will present abCnormal aggregation with ECA with normal aggregation with ristocetin?

    Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

  • 38

    294. A patient is placed on clopidogrel. The clinician wants to determine if the dose is sufficient to impart platelet function. A platelet aggregation test is ordered. The agonist which would result in a decreased aggregation pattern would be:

    Adenosine diphosphate

  • 39

    295. A fasting serum sample from an asymptomatic 43yp woman is examined visually & chemically with the ff results. What lipoproteins are most likely increased in the patients sample? Initial appearance: milky After overnight refrigeration: creamy layer over turbidity serum

    Chylomicrons and very low density lipoproteins

  • 40

    297. Anti-K & anti-c were found in a patient with colon cancer. How many units of red cells would need to be screened to find two compatible units for surgery? The antigen negative frequency for K & c are 0.92 & 0.20, respectively.

    11 units

  • 41

    298. Which of the ff ab is clinically significant?

    Anti-P

  • 42

    299. Which of the ff should be selected for exchange transfusion if the newborn is group O, Rh(+) & the mother is Group O, Rh(+) with anti-c & anti-E.

    Group O, CDe/CDe

  • 43

    300. What is true about the offending antibody?

    Absorbed from plasma

  • 44

    301. Platelet aggregation will occur upon the production of:

    Thromboxane A2

  • 45

    303. Serum magnesium levels should be closely monitored in cases of?

    AOTA

  • 46

    304. Refer to the panel: Based on the results of the above panel, which technique would be most helpful in determining anyibody specificity?

    Proteolytic enzymes treatment

  • 47

    305. A 53-year-old man was in recovery following a triple bypass operation. Oozing was noted from his surgical wound. The ff laboratory data were obtained: identify the most likely cause of bleeding.

    Dilutional thrombocytopenia

  • 48

    306. Which of the ff blood products has the longest shelf life?

    Red Blood Cells leukocyte reduced with an additive solution

  • 49

    307. Which of the ff phenotypes will react with anti-f?

    rr

  • 50

    308. A group A patient requires two units of FFP. There are currently no Group A units in inventory. What units of FFP can be selected for transfusion to this patient?

    Group AB

  • 51

    309. Based on this antibody identification studies, which of the ff red cell phenotypes should be included in a selected cell panel to further confirm or eliminate additional antibody specificities?

    K+, S-, Jkb-

  • 52

    310. A deficiency of protein C is associated with which of the following?

    Increased risk of thrombosis

  • 53

    311. A unit of Leukoreduced RBC that expires in 32 days has just been irradiated. The expiration date of this unit will:

    Be reduced by 4days

  • 54

    313. Four units of Group A platelets were transfused to a group AB patient because group AB platelets were not available. The patient pretransfusion platelet count was 10 x 103/ul and the post transfusion count was 16 x 103/ul. From this information, what would the laboratorian most likely conclude about the patient?

    Has developed antibodies to the transfused platelets

  • 55

    314. MCV (60) & MCHC (30) were low, but RBC count (6.0) is normal. What condition?

    Beta thalassemia minor

  • 56

    318. Negative LE but with 8 WBCs/hpf?

    Lymphocytes were seen

  • 57

    ⭐️321. ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE ELECTROPHORESIS (BANDS AT A, F & A2/C)

    Beta thalassemia minor

  • 58

    322. Causative agent of meningitis that is intrinsically resistant to ceftriaxone?

    Listeria monocytogenes

  • 59

    323. Cells that are negative to CD3, CD5 & CD19 are most likely?

    NK cells

  • 60

    ⭐️324. REAGENTS FOR APTT?

    Phospholipids, activator, calcium chloride

  • 61

    327. A patient develops unexpected bleeding & the ff test results were obtained? What is the most probable cause of these results?

    DIC

  • 62

    328. A patient has chronic liver disease, which of the ff crystals may be seen in his urine?

    Tyrosine & leucine

  • 63

    329. What condition is due to ADAMTS13 deficiency?

    Thrombosis thrombocytopenic purpura

  • 64

    ⭐️330. WHAT CAN NEUTRAILIZE LUPUS-LIKE INHIBITOR IN VITRO?

    Platelets

  • 65

    332. Positive blood strip, no red blood cells in the urine?

    Dilute alkaline urine

  • 66

    ⭐️333. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FUNGAL AGENTS REQUIRES BSL2, AND BIOSAFETY LEVEL 3 WHEN HANDLED?

    Coccidioides

  • 67

    334. AGENT OF BIOTERRORISM, GRAM NEGATIVE, SATELLITISM WITH S. AUREUS. WHAT TO DO?

    ⭐️Rule out Brucella & Francisella tularensis

  • 68

    335. Which of the ff are regulatory agencies?

    FDA & OSHA

  • 69

    336. Which of the ff must be done based on the scenario? 6:00 – blood was collected using a gray top tube 10:00 – specimen was received in the laboratory 10:30 – specimen was centrifuged 11:00 – ppasma was separated from the cells 11:30 – plasma was tested for glucose using glucose oxidase and the result is 60 mg/dL.

    Repeat test using an alternate method

  • 70

    337. In which of the ff organisms a nitrocefin test is needed?

    Haemophilus influenzae

  • 71

    338. APTT result from the main laboratory is 67 sec & is frozen to be saved for additional lupus testing in the special coagulation laboratory. The aPtt repeated in the next day is 37 seconds.

    Platelet contaminated sample

  • 72

    339. Glitter cells are urine microscopic findings of what type of cell?

    Neutrophils

  • 73

    ⭐️340. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING EXHIBITS MALTESE CROSS FORMATION ON A POLARIZED MICROSCOPE?

    Starch granules

  • 74

    341. Postprandial turbidity is caused by?

    Lipoproteins

  • 75

    342. What may be mistaken as hyaline casts?

    Mucus threads

  • 76

    346. A patient had undergone gall bladder surgery. Seeing the ff coagulation test results, what test must be done next?

    DRVVT

  • 77

    347. The best test to determine if a sample is contaminated with heparin is:

    Thrombin time

  • 78

    ⭐️90. OF THE FOLLOWING BLOOD COMPONENTS, WHICH ONE SHOULD BE USED TO PREVENT HLA ALLOIMMUNIZATION OF THE RECIPIENT?

    Leukocyte Reduced RBC

  • 79

    ⭐️ONCE MYELOBAST BECOMES PROMYELOCYTE, IT LOSES EXPRESSION OF:

    CD 34 AND HLA DR

  • 80

    246. Leukemoid rxn is a clinical syndrome resembling leukemia in which the WBC ct is greatly elevated in response to an allergen, inflammatory dse, infection, poison, hemorrhage, burn or severe physical stress. This is usually distinguished from CML by the use of what?

    LAP score

  • 81

    111. Description of Zygomycetes?

    Aseptate hyphae w/ sporangiophores

  • 82

    169. What must be done next after seeing a monoclonal gamma pattern in SPE?

    Immunofixation electrophoresis

  • 83

    178. RPR: NR, FTA-ABS: R, interpret?

    Past infection

  • 84

    ⭐️331. LUPUS ANTICOAGULANT IS ASSOCIATED WITH?

    Thrombosis

  • 85

    ⭐️316. CD MARKERS MOST USEFUL FOR DIAGNOSIS OF ACUTE MEGAKARYOBLASTIC LEUKEMIA?

    CD41, CD61

  • 86

    40. Elevated urinary levels of 5 HIAA are associated with:

    Carcinoid tumor

  • 87

    ⭐️146. IMMUNOPHENOTYPING RESULT FOR PAROXYSMAL NOCTURNAL HEMOGLOBINURIA

    (-)DAF CD55, CD59

  • 88

    ⭐️206. ANTIBODY-MEDIATED DAMAGE TO THE ACETYLCHOLINE RECEPTORS IN SKELETAL MUSCLE LEADING TO A PROGRESSIVE MUSCLE WEAKNESS?

    Myasthenia gravis

  • 89

    234. Chromosomal translocation pair that creates a BCR/ABL1 fusion gene product asso. With CML?

    T (9;22)

  • 90

    ⭐️IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANISM A NITROCEFIN TEST IS NEEDED?

    H. influenzae

  • 91

    1. Often resembles, Confused, Mistakenly Identified as E coli in MALDI- TOF

    Shigella

  • 92

    ⭐️IDENTIFY THE VIRULENCE FACTOR OF THE PATHOGENIC NEISSERIA SPECIES THAT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE INITIAL ATTACHMENT OF THE ORGANISM TO HOST TISSUES.

    pili

  • 93

    A 1.Diabetic coma with SG of 1.032, what does it mean?

    ketoacidosis

  • 94

    1. Peripheral smear from BM photograph: With Blasts and band and PMNs

    normal marrow smear

  • 95

    ⭐️68. A 62 YEAR OLD PATIENT WITH HYPERLIPOPROTEINURIA HAS A LARGE AMOUNT OF PROTEIN IN HIS URINE. MICROSCOPIC ANALYSIS YIELDS MODERATE TO MANY FATTY, WAXY, GRANULAR AND CELLULQR CASTS. MANY OVAL FAT BODIES ARE ALSO NOTED.

    nephrotic syndrome

  • 96

    ⭐️148. CALIBRATION OF BLOOD GAS ANALYZERS REQUIRES WHAT?

    2 buffers of known ph and a constant temp

  • 97

    ⭐️IDENTIFY THE CIRCLE IN FLOW CYTOMMETRT. IMMUNOPHENOTYPING RESULT: POSITIVE FOR CD5, CD 19, CD23 AND EITHER KAPPA OR LAMBDA

    CLL

  • 98

    ⭐️18. ANTI-MITOCHONDRIAL ANTIBODY IS SEEN IN WHAT CONDITION?

    Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

  • 99

    ⭐️IN HOMOGENOUS PATTERN WHAT ANTIBODIES ARE PRESENT?

    anti-dsDNA(SLE)

  • 100

    ⭐️IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE STAINING PATTERN USING CRITHIDIA LUCILIAE SUBSTRATE DETECTS:

    anti-dsDNA(SLE)