ASCPi Diagnostic Exam

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

1. Before release of a unit of red blood cells for transfusion, which records must be checked?

The intended recipient's first and last name, unique identifier number, and ABO/Rh

2. Which of the following cells can be described as neoplastic lymphocytes with noncleaved clumped nuclei and very basophilic cytoplasm with prominent vacuoles?

Burkitt's lymphoma cells

3. Which of the following analytes is helpful in distinguishing a condition affecting the liver from bone disease in the presence of an elevation of ALP?

GGT

4. The ab associated with type IV hypersensitivity is:

NOTA

5. The diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often based upon which finding?

The presence of oligoclonal bands by electrophoresis

6. The growth factor erythropoietin is produced by which organ?

Kidney

7. Which of the following would be an acceptable alternative for a red cell transfusion if ABO group-specific blood was not available?

Group AB recipient with group B donor

8. Which MHC class of molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells?

Class II

9. The biochemical test performed on a gram-positive bacillus were consistent with those of Corynebacterium diphtheria. The MLS should now:

Determine if the isolate is toxigenic by performing an Elek test

10. The ff OGTT results are indicative of what state? Fasting serum glucose: 124 mg/dl 2-hour post load serum glucose: 227 mg/dl

Diabetes mellitus

11. The most critical step in obtaining accurate Gram stain results is the application of which of the following?

Acetone/ethanol

12. The laboratory manager's most appropriate approach to performing employee evaluations could best described as?

Positive reinforcement

13. The most probable explanation for a patient who presents with an elevated osmolal gap, metabolic acidosis, and calcium oxalate crystals in the urine is:

Ethylene glycol intoxication

14. Which of the ff is asso with a ↓ CSF glucose?

Damaged blood-brain barrier glucose transport

15.The most recent CBC results for a px who has been treated for CML for several years show a blast count 38% in the differential. The CML is now in w/c phase?

Terminal phase (blast crises)

16. Which of the ff pairing of crystals and causes is not correct?

Cystine crystals and not clinically significant

17. Which of the following is used in rapid slide tests for detection of rheumatoid factors?

Fc portion of the IgG molecule

18. The presence of waxy casts in a microscopic examination of urine is consistent with a diagnosis of:

Chronic renal failure

19. Which of the following is true about enzyme and their effect on red cell antigens and antibodies?

The Duffy, MN, & Ss system ag are destroyed, so antigen and antibody reaction are not detectable

20. In gas chromatography, the elution order of volatiles is usually based upon the:

Boiling point

21. Which ratio of anticoagulant to blood is correct for coagulation procedures?

1:9

22. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is performed on a patient with known homozygous Hb S who has received red cell transfusions in the past week. Which hemoglobins would be expected on the gel?

Hb S, Hb A, Hb F & Hb A2

23. What is the purpose of adding 0.025%-0.050% sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the collection of blood cultures?

Inhibits phagocytosis and complement

24. The underlying cause for anemia of chronic inflammation is that:

Acute phase reactants impair iron mobilization

25. Which of the following could result in a fatal negative result for a DAT?

all of the above

26. Neutrophil phagocytosis and particle ingestion are associated with an increase in oxygen utilization referred to as respiratory burst. What are the two most important products of this biochemical reactions

Hydrogen peroxide and superoxide anion

27. Which of the following serial dilutions contains an incorrect factor?

1:2, 1:6, 1:12

28. What is the most likely cause of ABO discrepancy below?

Subgroup of A

29. This type of resistance mechanism modifies the antibiotic targets and results in reduced affinity of antibiotics for their microbial target sites.

Enzyme modification

30. Which of the ff px would be a candidate for RhIg?

B(-)mom who had an O(+) 👶🏻, 2nd 🤰🏻, no anti-D in mom

31. A latex agglutination test for cardiolipin is performed on a px suspected of having which disease?

Syphilis

32. A positive result was obtained when a VDRL test was performed on a patient's serum. The MLS should:

Perform a treponemal test

33. Which of the following tests is used to monitor patients for early signs of renal disease?

Microalbumin measurement using a sensitive reagent strip

34. Which of the following conditions is cause for rejecting an analytical run?

2 consecutive controls >2s above or below the mean

35. What ab are represented by the nucleolar pattern in the immunofluorescence test for antinuclear ab?

Anti-RNA ab

36. What gene must be amplified in PCR to diff methicillin-resistant StaphylOcoccus aureus from methicillin resistant coagulase(-) StaphylOcoccus?

orfX

37. DIC is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

38. According to AABB Standards, what is the minimum information required to be on a sample label for transfusion testing purposes?

1ST & last name of the px, date of collection, ID of the phlebotomist & unique serial no.

39. The decreased release of TSH would result in which of the following actions from the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis?

↓ release of thyroid hormones from the thyroid glands

40. You received a blood gas sample from a px who is in the ER for assessment of unexplained vomiting for the past 4 days & abnormal respirations. Which of the ff interpretations best describes the px blood gas results? pH: 7.50 pCO2: 55 mmHg pO2: 85 mmHg HCO3-: 35 mmol/L

Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

41. A Prussian blue stain of a bone marrow shows blue granules present inside macrophages. Which of the following disorders can be ruled out by this result?

Iron deficiency

42. If the cytoplasm of a cell is very basophilic or blue when stained w/ Wright stain, w/c of the ff does it contain?

↑ no. of ribosomes

43. Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV?

Bands at p24 & gp120

44. Irradiated red blood cell transfusion would not be indicated for which of the following patient diagnoses?

Exchange transfusion

45. In px with developing subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ___, & fT4 will likely be____.

increased, normal

46. Which of the following factors binds to platelets via the glycoprotein Ib/IX receptor?

VWF

47. Based on the following results, what is the most likely diagnosis? ALP and GGT moderately increase ALT, LD and Total bilirubin minimally increase

Biliary obstruction

48. A thermally dimorphic fungus shows a filamentous mold form with tuberculate macroconidia at room temperature, and a yeast form above 35°C. Which organism best fits this description?

Histoplasma capsulatum

49. What is the titer in tube No. 8 if tube No.1 is undiluted and dilutions are doubled?

128

50. When preparing fresh frozen plasma for transfusion, what compatibility testing is performed?

No testing is required

51. A patient's sample shows a large spike on serum protein electrophoresis in the gamma region. On further testing, the spike is shown to be mostly IgM. Which of the following is true regarding this patient's diagnosis?

Most likely has Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

52. The respiratory culture of a patient with cystic fibrosis yielded gram(-) bacilli with the ff reactions: Oxidase: + MacConkey agar: + Glucose OF open: + Gelatin hydrolysis: + Pigment: Metallic green Arginine dihydrolase: + Growth at 42⁰C: + W/c of the ff is the most likely identification of this org?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

53. Which of the following conditions is usually associated with thrombosis?

Factor V Leiden mutation

54. Which of the ff can occur days to weeks after transfusion?

All of the above

55. A decrease in serum haptoglobin accompanies which of the following?

Intravascular hemolysis

⭐️56. Which red cell inclusion is often found in lead poisoning cases?

Basophilic stippling

57. Pernicious anemia can be distinguished from folate deficiency by which of the following findings?

Hypersegmented neutrophils

58. A px transfused with several units of RBC developed a febrile transfusion rxn. What component is most appropriate to prevent this rxn in the future?

Leukocyte-reduced RBC

59. W/c of the ff group of organisms is most correct for use in performing quality ctrl on a TSI agar slant?

E. coli & Salmonella, Shigella & Pseudomonas spp

60. An anaerobic, box-shaped gram(+) bacillus is + for the reverse CAMP test. This org would also be:

Lecithinase(+)

61. What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs of TRALI?

Antileukocyte antibody

62. Which of the following ketones is (are) not detected using the reagent strip?

BHBA

63. Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an exudative effusion?

Malignancy

64. The PYR hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which of the following streptococci?

Group A & Enterococcus

65. All of the following characteristics are consistent with the appearance of normal cerebrospinal except:

WBC count >100/ul

67. Which of the following would result in a permanent deferral for a whole blood donation?

Recipient of human growth hormone

66. In the Oliver-Rosalki method, the reverse rxn is used to measure creatine kinase activity. The enzyme(s) used in the coupling reactions are:

Hexokinase and G6PD

68. A person genotype R1R1 could potentially produce antibodies to which of the following Rh ag?

69. A px comes to the ER w/ report of an upset stomach. He has a rash covering his body,& he is becoming increasingly hypotensive. The blood samples that you drew for culture were (+) w/in 24hrs for gram(+) cocci in clusters. The most likely causative agent is w/c of the ff?

Staphylococcus aureus

70. Cysts of Iodamoeba butschlii typically have:

A large glycogen vacuole

71. Which of the following results are discrepant?

Negative blood but 6-10 RBCs/HPF

72. How would you prepare a 1/5 dilution of a urine sample?

1 part urine + 4 parts diluent

73. Urine w/ an SG consistently between 1.002 & 1.003 indicates:

Diabetes Insipidus

74. Which of the following is the correct location of enteric "H" antigens?

Flagella

75. Which anemia has red cell morphology similar to that seen in iron deficiency anemia?

Thalassemia syndrome

76. Which of the following is most likely to cause a false-positive dry reagent strip test for protein?

Highly buffered alkaline urine

77. What immunoglobulin is typically found in secretions?

IgA

78. Two units of blood are ordered for a patient. Previous blood bank records indicate the patient had an anti-K 3 years ago. What is the next course of action for completing this order?

Ag type units for the K ag & xm units (-) for K

79. The agency that is responsible for protecting workers' health and well-being is:

OSHA

80. Which of the following red blood cell precursors has a nucleus that can be described as pyknotic?

Orthochromic normoblast

81. An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has the following characteristics:

Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs, and clear pseudopodia

82. Which cell is capable of both phagocytosis and antigen processing?

Macrophage

83. A unit of packed RBCs is split using the open system. One of the half units is used. What may be done with the second half unit?

Must be issued w/in 24hrs

84. HIV virus belongs to w/c of the ff grps of viruses?

Retrovirus

85. In familial β dyslipoproteinemia (formerly Type III hyperlipoproteinemia), which lipoprotein accumulates?

IDL

86. Which of the following lipid measurements is estimated using a formula, and not measured?

LDL

87. People who have anti-A and anti-B blood group antibodies detected in their serum are said to be of which blood group?

88. What is the preferred specimen for molecular techniques for diagnosis of inherited mutations?

DNA extracted from peripheral white blood cells

89. Laboratory diagnosis of hookworm is usually made by:

Ova in feces

90. Which of the following conditions is caused by an impairment of an enzyme needed to conjugate bilirubin?

Gilbert’s disease

91. Immunoglobulins function by all of the following except:

Reneutralized toxins produced by viruses

92. A manual white blood cell (WBC) count was performed. A total of 36 cells were counted in all 9-mm2 squares of a Neubauer-ruled hemacytometer. A 1:10 dilution was used. What is the WBC count?

0.4 x 109/L

93. How do sickle cells or spherocytes interfere with the ESR?

Prevent rouleaux formation, so falsely decrease

94. A patient sample tested positive for anti-dsDNA antibodies. The patient most likely has which of the ff?

SLE

95. Alkaline phosphatase values are expected to be increased in all of the following situations, except:

After a myocardial infarction

96. In salicylate overdose, what is the first acid-base disturbance present?

Respiratory alkalosis

97. A PT and PTT on a patient fails to correct when mixed with normal pooled plasma. Which of the following is a possible explanation?

The circulating inhibitor is present in the patient

98.Which of the ff is true regarding indirect bilirubin?

It requires an accelerator to react with the Diazo reagent

99. What is the transport temperature of packed red blood cells?

Transported on ice not to exceed 10⁰C

100

100. Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection?

HBsAg

clinical microscopy

clinical microscopy

clinical chemistry

clinical chemistry

immunology & serology

ユーザ名非公開 · 99問 · 1年前

immunology & serology

hematology

hematology

Bloodbank 1

Bloodbank 1

microbiology

microbiology

molecular biology

molecular biology

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問題一覧

1. Before release of a unit of red blood cells for transfusion, which records must be checked?

The intended recipient's first and last name, unique identifier number, and ABO/Rh

2. Which of the following cells can be described as neoplastic lymphocytes with noncleaved clumped nuclei and very basophilic cytoplasm with prominent vacuoles?

Burkitt's lymphoma cells

3. Which of the following analytes is helpful in distinguishing a condition affecting the liver from bone disease in the presence of an elevation of ALP?

GGT

4. The ab associated with type IV hypersensitivity is:

NOTA

5. The diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often based upon which finding?

The presence of oligoclonal bands by electrophoresis

6. The growth factor erythropoietin is produced by which organ?

Kidney

7. Which of the following would be an acceptable alternative for a red cell transfusion if ABO group-specific blood was not available?

Group AB recipient with group B donor

8. Which MHC class of molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells?

Class II

9. The biochemical test performed on a gram-positive bacillus were consistent with those of Corynebacterium diphtheria. The MLS should now:

Determine if the isolate is toxigenic by performing an Elek test

10. The ff OGTT results are indicative of what state? Fasting serum glucose: 124 mg/dl 2-hour post load serum glucose: 227 mg/dl

Diabetes mellitus

11. The most critical step in obtaining accurate Gram stain results is the application of which of the following?

Acetone/ethanol

12. The laboratory manager's most appropriate approach to performing employee evaluations could best described as?

Positive reinforcement

13. The most probable explanation for a patient who presents with an elevated osmolal gap, metabolic acidosis, and calcium oxalate crystals in the urine is:

Ethylene glycol intoxication

14. Which of the ff is asso with a ↓ CSF glucose?

Damaged blood-brain barrier glucose transport

15.The most recent CBC results for a px who has been treated for CML for several years show a blast count 38% in the differential. The CML is now in w/c phase?

Terminal phase (blast crises)

16. Which of the ff pairing of crystals and causes is not correct?

Cystine crystals and not clinically significant

17. Which of the following is used in rapid slide tests for detection of rheumatoid factors?

Fc portion of the IgG molecule

18. The presence of waxy casts in a microscopic examination of urine is consistent with a diagnosis of:

Chronic renal failure

19. Which of the following is true about enzyme and their effect on red cell antigens and antibodies?

The Duffy, MN, & Ss system ag are destroyed, so antigen and antibody reaction are not detectable

20. In gas chromatography, the elution order of volatiles is usually based upon the:

Boiling point

21. Which ratio of anticoagulant to blood is correct for coagulation procedures?

1:9

22. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is performed on a patient with known homozygous Hb S who has received red cell transfusions in the past week. Which hemoglobins would be expected on the gel?

Hb S, Hb A, Hb F & Hb A2

23. What is the purpose of adding 0.025%-0.050% sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the collection of blood cultures?

Inhibits phagocytosis and complement

24. The underlying cause for anemia of chronic inflammation is that:

Acute phase reactants impair iron mobilization

25. Which of the following could result in a fatal negative result for a DAT?

all of the above

Hydrogen peroxide and superoxide anion

27. Which of the following serial dilutions contains an incorrect factor?

1:2, 1:6, 1:12

28. What is the most likely cause of ABO discrepancy below?

Subgroup of A

29. This type of resistance mechanism modifies the antibiotic targets and results in reduced affinity of antibiotics for their microbial target sites.

Enzyme modification

30. Which of the ff px would be a candidate for RhIg?

B(-)mom who had an O(+) 👶🏻, 2nd 🤰🏻, no anti-D in mom

31. A latex agglutination test for cardiolipin is performed on a px suspected of having which disease?

Syphilis

32. A positive result was obtained when a VDRL test was performed on a patient's serum. The MLS should:

Perform a treponemal test

33. Which of the following tests is used to monitor patients for early signs of renal disease?

Microalbumin measurement using a sensitive reagent strip

34. Which of the following conditions is cause for rejecting an analytical run?

2 consecutive controls >2s above or below the mean

35. What ab are represented by the nucleolar pattern in the immunofluorescence test for antinuclear ab?

Anti-RNA ab

36. What gene must be amplified in PCR to diff methicillin-resistant StaphylOcoccus aureus from methicillin resistant coagulase(-) StaphylOcoccus?

orfX

37. DIC is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

38. According to AABB Standards, what is the minimum information required to be on a sample label for transfusion testing purposes?

1ST & last name of the px, date of collection, ID of the phlebotomist & unique serial no.

39. The decreased release of TSH would result in which of the following actions from the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis?

↓ release of thyroid hormones from the thyroid glands

Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

41. A Prussian blue stain of a bone marrow shows blue granules present inside macrophages. Which of the following disorders can be ruled out by this result?

Iron deficiency

42. If the cytoplasm of a cell is very basophilic or blue when stained w/ Wright stain, w/c of the ff does it contain?

↑ no. of ribosomes

43. Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV?

Bands at p24 & gp120

44. Irradiated red blood cell transfusion would not be indicated for which of the following patient diagnoses?

Exchange transfusion

45. In px with developing subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ___, & fT4 will likely be____.

increased, normal

46. Which of the following factors binds to platelets via the glycoprotein Ib/IX receptor?

VWF

47. Based on the following results, what is the most likely diagnosis? ALP and GGT moderately increase ALT, LD and Total bilirubin minimally increase

Biliary obstruction

48. A thermally dimorphic fungus shows a filamentous mold form with tuberculate macroconidia at room temperature, and a yeast form above 35°C. Which organism best fits this description?

Histoplasma capsulatum

49. What is the titer in tube No. 8 if tube No.1 is undiluted and dilutions are doubled?

128

50. When preparing fresh frozen plasma for transfusion, what compatibility testing is performed?

No testing is required

Most likely has Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

53. Which of the following conditions is usually associated with thrombosis?

Factor V Leiden mutation

54. Which of the ff can occur days to weeks after transfusion?

All of the above

55. A decrease in serum haptoglobin accompanies which of the following?

Intravascular hemolysis

⭐️56. Which red cell inclusion is often found in lead poisoning cases?

Basophilic stippling

57. Pernicious anemia can be distinguished from folate deficiency by which of the following findings?

Hypersegmented neutrophils

58. A px transfused with several units of RBC developed a febrile transfusion rxn. What component is most appropriate to prevent this rxn in the future?

Leukocyte-reduced RBC

59. W/c of the ff group of organisms is most correct for use in performing quality ctrl on a TSI agar slant?

E. coli & Salmonella, Shigella & Pseudomonas spp

60. An anaerobic, box-shaped gram(+) bacillus is + for the reverse CAMP test. This org would also be:

Lecithinase(+)

61. What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs of TRALI?

Antileukocyte antibody

62. Which of the following ketones is (are) not detected using the reagent strip?

BHBA

63. Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an exudative effusion?

Malignancy

64. The PYR hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which of the following streptococci?

Group A & Enterococcus

65. All of the following characteristics are consistent with the appearance of normal cerebrospinal except:

WBC count >100/ul

67. Which of the following would result in a permanent deferral for a whole blood donation?

Recipient of human growth hormone

66. In the Oliver-Rosalki method, the reverse rxn is used to measure creatine kinase activity. The enzyme(s) used in the coupling reactions are:

Hexokinase and G6PD

68. A person genotype R1R1 could potentially produce antibodies to which of the following Rh ag?

Staphylococcus aureus

70. Cysts of Iodamoeba butschlii typically have:

A large glycogen vacuole

71. Which of the following results are discrepant?

Negative blood but 6-10 RBCs/HPF

72. How would you prepare a 1/5 dilution of a urine sample?

1 part urine + 4 parts diluent

73. Urine w/ an SG consistently between 1.002 & 1.003 indicates:

Diabetes Insipidus

74. Which of the following is the correct location of enteric "H" antigens?

Flagella

75. Which anemia has red cell morphology similar to that seen in iron deficiency anemia?

Thalassemia syndrome

76. Which of the following is most likely to cause a false-positive dry reagent strip test for protein?

Highly buffered alkaline urine

77. What immunoglobulin is typically found in secretions?

IgA

78. Two units of blood are ordered for a patient. Previous blood bank records indicate the patient had an anti-K 3 years ago. What is the next course of action for completing this order?

Ag type units for the K ag & xm units (-) for K

79. The agency that is responsible for protecting workers' health and well-being is:

OSHA

80. Which of the following red blood cell precursors has a nucleus that can be described as pyknotic?

Orthochromic normoblast

81. An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has the following characteristics:

Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs, and clear pseudopodia

82. Which cell is capable of both phagocytosis and antigen processing?

Macrophage

83. A unit of packed RBCs is split using the open system. One of the half units is used. What may be done with the second half unit?

Must be issued w/in 24hrs

84. HIV virus belongs to w/c of the ff grps of viruses?

Retrovirus

85. In familial β dyslipoproteinemia (formerly Type III hyperlipoproteinemia), which lipoprotein accumulates?

IDL

86. Which of the following lipid measurements is estimated using a formula, and not measured?

LDL

87. People who have anti-A and anti-B blood group antibodies detected in their serum are said to be of which blood group?

88. What is the preferred specimen for molecular techniques for diagnosis of inherited mutations?

DNA extracted from peripheral white blood cells

89. Laboratory diagnosis of hookworm is usually made by:

Ova in feces

90. Which of the following conditions is caused by an impairment of an enzyme needed to conjugate bilirubin?

Gilbert’s disease

91. Immunoglobulins function by all of the following except:

Reneutralized toxins produced by viruses

92. A manual white blood cell (WBC) count was performed. A total of 36 cells were counted in all 9-mm2 squares of a Neubauer-ruled hemacytometer. A 1:10 dilution was used. What is the WBC count?

0.4 x 109/L

93. How do sickle cells or spherocytes interfere with the ESR?

Prevent rouleaux formation, so falsely decrease

94. A patient sample tested positive for anti-dsDNA antibodies. The patient most likely has which of the ff?

SLE

95. Alkaline phosphatase values are expected to be increased in all of the following situations, except:

After a myocardial infarction

96. In salicylate overdose, what is the first acid-base disturbance present?

Respiratory alkalosis

97. A PT and PTT on a patient fails to correct when mixed with normal pooled plasma. Which of the following is a possible explanation?

The circulating inhibitor is present in the patient

98.Which of the ff is true regarding indirect bilirubin?

It requires an accelerator to react with the Diazo reagent

99. What is the transport temperature of packed red blood cells?

Transported on ice not to exceed 10⁰C

100

100. Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection?

HBsAg