問題一覧
1
Normal hydraulic system pressure is
3000psi
2
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) uses HYD 1 system power to provide HYD 2 system pressure.
True
3
During takeoff and landing with the PTU switch in the AUTO position, with the flaps out of zero, the PTU:
is activated by system logic if engine 2 fails or engine 2. EDP fails and gear lever is selected UP or DOWN
4
After starting engine 1 and parking brake released, the electric hydraulic pump 2 automatically comes on to provide
Both A&B
5
The HYD system 3 Unloader valve and Flow Limiter valve are used to
Avoid overloading the RAT during an electrical emergency
6
HYD system 1 and HYD system 2 are able to mix in the bootstrap reservoir via the system filter casing.
False
7
When the HYD system 1 and 2 engine driven pump shutoff buttons are pressed, the:
Both B&C
8
During flight, with HYD selector knobs in AUTO, when does the system 1 electric hydraulic pump operate continuously?
Both B&C
9
Is a single pack capable of providing adequate temperature control and pressurization?
Yes up to Fl310
10
What is the bleed system priority in flight?
Onside engine, opposite side engine, APU (if available)
11
The pressurization system consists of
All the Above
12
Maximum Rudder deflection (without gain scheduling) is
30 degrees
13
During rollout, the maximum deflection of the Multifunction Spoilers is
45 degrees
14
The number of Primary ACE units on board the aircraft is
3
15
The number of FCMs on board the aircraft is
4
16
Ground Spoilers deploy when
only A&B
17
The electric PBIT is performed after aircraft is powered by
Any AC power source and takes approximately 3 minutes to complete
18
When Multifunction Spoilers are deployed for use as speed brakes, the maximum deflection is on a gain schedule based on airspeed.
true
19
The flight control system operates under which two modes?
normal and direct
20
What is the only primary flight control that is NOT fly-by-wire?
ailerons
21
What is the priority of the pitch trim system?
Backup, Captain, FO, Autopilot
22
When the RAT is the only AC power source, the flight control system is subject to the following conditions:
All of B,C, and D
23
Which of the following will disengage the autopilot?
Activating a manual pitch trim switch
24
With Battery 1 ON and Battery 2 in AUTO during initial power-up, which items will be available?
DU 2 & 3, IESS, clock, MCDU 2, CCD 1, mag compass light, backup trim switch
25
The EMB-175 with enhanced winglets has a wingspan of
93’11”
26
The minimum runway or taxiway width required for a 180 degree turn is
59’2”
27
What is the EMB-175 maximum operating altitude?
FL410
28
The minimum engagement altitude for the autopilot per Mesa Airlines policy is
1000’ AGL
29
The maximum takeoff weight of the EMB-175 is
85,517
30
What is the EMB-175 maximum landing weight?
74,957
31
What will happen if a generating IDG source fails?
Bus ties will automatically connect to ensure no system degradation occurs
32
One IDG can supply the entire electrical system.
true
33
What will cause the amber light on the overhead panel to illuminate?
High oil temperature/low oil pressure
34
The purpose of the Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU) is to convert
115v AC to 28V DC
35
With no active AC source of power, how long will the main aircraft batteries last?
10 minutes
36
With both IDG and the APU generators offline, the RAT will power.
The AC Standby Bus via the AC Essential BUS
37
The DC GPU receptacle is used for APU start when
Both A&C
38
The primary ejector pumps are driven by what energy source?
Motive flow
39
What is purpose of the scavenge pumps?
maintains fuel level in collector tank
40
What is the purpose of the collector tank?
Both A&C
41
What is the maximum allowable fuel imbalance?
794 pounds
42
If fuel indication is 500 pounds high in the right tank the pilot should
turn the X-feed switch to Low 1
43
What is the electrical power source for the engine fire protection?
Hot battery bus
44
The number of fire bottles installed for use in both cargo compartments is
2
45
How many smoke detectors are installed in each cargo compartment?
3 in the forward and 2 in the aft
46
How many aircraft engine fire bottles are installed on the aircraft not including the APU
2
47
Pulling the fire extinguishing handle (T-handle) is all that is required to discharge the fire bottle into the main engine compartment.
only on the ground
48
When the Pressurization Dump Button is pressed,
D.Both A&C
49
The emergency RAM Air valve opens when
In flight below FL250 and both ECS packs are off or failed
50
Maximum differential over pressure is
8.8 PSID
51
With pressurization in manual mode, cabin altitude can be increased by
opening the outflow valve
52
With ICING set to OFF in the MCDU, the anti-icing system turns on during takeoff
icing conditions encountered aircraft above 1700 feet or 2 minutes
53
Only one ice detector must be operable for detecting icing conditions and activating engine and wing anti-ice.
true
54
If an engine fails, do both left and right wings receive anti-ice protecion
Yes, the crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical protection to both wings
55
The Smart probes and TAT probes are heated
When an engine is running
56
The ATTCS (Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System) provides
Maximum reserve thrust in the event of an engine failure
57
When does the FADEC provide engine start protection?
Only on the ground for hot start, hung start, or no light-off
58
During a go-around, pitch up is limited to
between 8° and 18°