2. According to safety measures, what action should a nurse take regarding a patient’s telemetry device when they need to shower? A. Remove the device only if ordered by a healthcare provider. - B. Always remove the device to prevent electrical hazaras. - C. Cover the device with plastic wrap to keep it dry. - D. Leave the device outside the bathroom

62. What is the primary purpose of cardiac stress testing? -A. To measure the patient’s ability to exercise. B. To assess heart function under stress conditions and detect potential dysrhythmias or ischemia. - C. To monitor daily heart rate and blood pressure.

63. What is typically required of patients before undergoing an exercise stress test? - A. They should eat a heavy meal to increase energy levels. B. They should fast for at least 3 hours prior to the test. - C. They should apply lotion to reduce skin irritation from electrodes. - D. They should rest thoroughly before the test.

64. During an exercise stress test, what are the common symptoms monitored by healthcare professionals? - A. Increased focus and mental clarity. - B. Dyspnea, dizziness, and chest pain. - C. Improved respiratory function. - D. Decreased heart rate

. 65. Which statement best describes a pharmacological stress test? - A. It involves high-intensity exercise to test cardiac function. - B. It is used for patients who are physically capable of enduring stress. - C It uses medications like dipyridamole or adenosine to simulate stress on the heart. - D. It requires patients to perform mental stress activities

. 66. What instructions are given to patients preparing for a nuclear stress test? - A. Patients are advised to consume stimulants like caffeine for clearer images - B. Patients should eat immediately before the test to ensure they have enough energy. -( C. Patients should be NO, avoid stimulants, and expect a cold feeling upon dye injection. - D. Patients are encouraged to exercise vigorously before the test to enhance dye circulation.

67. What safety advice is provided to patients after a nuclear stress test? - A. Patients can resume normal activities immediately without restrictions. B) Patients should avoid driving for 4 hours and stand slowly to avoid orthostatic hypotension. - C. Patients are advised to stay in a sitting position for several hours following the test. - D. Patients should immediately engage in strenuous activities to enhance test accuracy.

, . 68. What is the primary purpose of using echocardiography in cardiac assessment? - A. To measure blood pressure and cholesterol levels. B. To use high-frequency ultrasound waves to visualize the heart’s size, shape, and position. - C. To record the electrical activity of the heart. - D. To assess the lung functions related to heart disease.

69. What does a normal Ejection Fraction (EF) percentage indicate about heart function? - A. The heart is underperforming and may need immediate intervention. *B. The heart is functioning within normal limits, with an EF of 55% or above.**

70. Which of the following Ejection Fraction (EF) ranges indicates moderate heart function and possible damage? A.EF above 55% B. EF of 40% to 55%. C. EF Less than 40 D. EF of 60%to 75%

71. What is a key procedural detail for patients undergoing echocardiography? A. Patient must fast for 12 hours prior to the procedure B. It requires lengthy preparation involving multiple medications C. The procedure typically takes about 20 to 30 minutes and requires no preparation. D. Patients need to be hospitalized for the procedure

What is the main use of Positron Emission Tomography (PET) in cardiac imaging? A. To measure the electrical impulses of the heart B. To assess bone density related to cardiac health - C. To diagnose coronary artery disease and assess damage post-myocardial infarction. D.To directly visualize the heart valves in real time

73. How does Positron Emission Tomography (PET) work in cardiac imaging? - A. It uses sound waves to create images of the heart. B. It involves injecting a radioactive tracer, which is taken up by the heart muscle to produce images. - C. It requires the patient to exercise to stimulate heart function. - D. It uses a magnetic field and radio waves to create detailed images.

74. What is the primary purpose of performing blood cultures in patients suspected of having cardiovascular issues? - A. To measure cholesterol levels. -B To detect the presence of bacteria in the blood, crucial for diaghosing infectious endocarditis. - C. To evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. - D. To determine electrolyte balances in the bloodstream.

75. A nurse is explaining a Complete Blood Count (CBC) test to a patient. Which of the following would be important to mention about the CBC’s relevance to cardiovascular health? - A. CBC is used to measure blood sugar levels. B. CBC can indicate anemia, infection, or inflammation, which are significant for cardiac function. - C. CBC solely measures the lipid profile to assess cardiovascular risk. - D. CBC is not relevant to cardiovascular health.

Which laboratory test is essential for monitoring patients on anticoagulant therapy to assess clotting ability and drug effectiveness? - A. Serum Electrolyte Tests B) Coagulation Studies including PT, INR, and PTT - C. Serum Lipids - D. B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)

A patient has elevated potassium levels. What cardiac complication is this patient at increased risk for? - A. Infection B. Dysrhythmias - C. Anemia - D. Elevated cholesterol levels

78. What does an elevated B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) level indicate in a patient? - A. Kidney dysfunction - B. Liver disease -O. Heart failure - D. Increased risk of infections

79. Which serum cardiac markers are used to assess the extent of cardiac damage, especially after myocardial infarction (MI)? - A. Sodium and potassium - B. Homocysteine and CRP - C. Cholesterol and triglycerides D. Cardiac enzymes (CK, CK-MB) and troponin I

80. High sensitivity C-reactive Protein (hs-CRP) test is used to- A. Evaluate kidney function. B, Predict cardiac disease risk. - C. Measure blood sugar levels. - D. Identify bacterial infections.

81. What role does the nurse play in the management of patients with cardiovascular disorders? - A. Solely prescribing medications - B. Implementing nursing interventions and patient teaching - C. Conducting surgical procedures - D. Designing public awareness campaigns

82. As per the American Heart Association’s recommendations, how frequently should adults over the age of 20 have their cholesterol levels checked? - A. Every 2 years B. Every 4 to 6 years - C. Every year - D. Every 10 years

83. What is a common consequence of decreased cardiac outpl in older adults due to aging cardiac musculature? - A. Increased tissue perfusion - B. Improvement in disorientation ) Decreased tissue perfusion - D. Enhanced syncope recovery

84. Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease? - A. Smoking B. Family history - C. Diet - D. Exercise level

85. What is the potential effect of long-term smoking on cardiovascular health? - A. Decreased risk of hypertension Reduction in the number of cigarettes smoked decreases risk - C. Improvement in HDL cholesterol levels - D. No significant impact on cardiovascular disease

86. Which lifestyle modification is NOT typically recommended for managing hyperlipidemia? A. Increasing intake of saturated fats - B. Weight reduction - C. Regular exercise - D. Use of cholesterol-lowering drugs

87. According to new guidelines, what is the defined range for stage 1 hypertension? - A. 120-129/70-79 mm Hg B. 130-139/80-89 mm Hg - C. Less than 120/80 mm Hg - D. Equal to or greater than 140/90 mm Hg

88. What impact does a sedentary lifestyle have on cardiovascular disease? - A. Decreases the risk of developing cardiovascular disease B. Increases the risk of developing cardiovascular disease

89. What is the heart rate range that characterizes sinus tachycardia? - A. 60-100 bpm B. 100-120 bpm - C. 120-140 bpm - D. 80-100 bpm

90. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of sinus bradycardia? - A. Advanced age Excessive caffeine intake - C. Athletic training - D. Hypothyroidism

91. In the treatment of sinus tachycardia, which medication might be administered intravenously to slow the heart rate? - A. Levothyroxine - B. Atropine Adenosine - D. Synthroid

92. Which EKG characteristic is common to both sinus tachycardia and sinus bradycardia? -A. PR interval of 0.12 to 0.2 seconds - B. Irregular atrial rhythm - C. P wave buried in the T wave - D. More than one P-wave for every QRS complex

93. What is the first-line treatment approach when a patient presents with hemodynamically unstable sinus bradycardia? - A. Catheter ablation (B Administering atropine IV - C. Vagal maneuvers - D. Synchronized cardioversion

94. Which symptom is NOT typically associated with sinus tachycardia? - A. Dizziness - B. Hypotension - C. Fever - D. Fainting

95. A patient diagnosed with sinus bradycardia is likely to be asymptomatic if they are: - A. An elderly individual with no history of athletic training B) An athlete in training - C. A patient with hypothyroidism not on medication - D. A patient currently experiencing fever

96. For a patient experiencing sinus tachycardia, which of the following is NOT a recommended vagal maneuver? - A. Coughing - B. Bearing down - C. Ice pack on the face D) Rapid spinning

97. What is the preferred long-term management strategy for a patient with recurrent medically refractory sinus tachycardia? - A. Permanent pacemaker implantation - B. Regular administration of adenosine (C, Catheter ablation of the sinus node - D. Continuous use of beta-adrenergic blockers

98. Identify the incorrect pair related to the EKG characteristics of sinus bradycardia. - A. Ventricular and atrial rhythms are regular (B. P wave follows ORS complex - C. PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds - D. P to QRS complex ratio is 1:1

99. Which of the following is indicative of a third-degree atrioventricular block? \ The presence of P waves independent of QRS complexes B. A PR interval consistently longer than 0.20 seconds C. A progressive lengthening of the PR interval D. Regular P to ORS ratio of 1:1

100. What is a common initial pharmacological treatment for symptomatic second-degree AV block? (A. Atropine B. Amiodarone C. Digoxin D. Carvedilol

101. Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs) are characterized by which of the following? A. PVCs typically present with an abnormally shaped and prolonged QRS complex B. PVCs are associated with a prolonged PR interval C. PVCs only occur in patients with myocardial infarction D. PVCs are followed by a compensatory pause

102. Which of the following would NOT be a typical cause of Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs)? A. Electrolyte imbalance (B. Hypothyroidism C. Digitalis toxicity D. Stress

103. In the management of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT), what is the recommended treatment for a patient with a pulseless VT? A. Immediate cardioversion B. Administration of atropine (C? Immediate defibrillation D. Oral administration of beta-adrenergic blockers

104. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the management of atrioventricular block? A. Pacemakers are commonly required for management of first- degree AV block. B. Isoproterenol is typically used for long-term management of C) A pacemaker is frequently necessary for patients with third- degree AV block. D. Atropine is used to permanently correct third-degree AV block.

105. A patient with Ventricular Tachycardia and an ejection Fraction of 32% would likely benefit from which of the following interventions? A. Oral amiodarone (B. Implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) C. Continuous intravenous infusion of isoproterenol D. Periodic cardioversion

106. Which intervention is indicated for a patient with frequent, symptomatic Premature Ventricular Contractions impacting cardiac output? A. Immediate defibrillation B. Treatment with beta-adrenergic blockers C. Surgical implantation of a pacemaker D. High-dose aspirin therapy

107. What is a characteristic feature of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)? A. A ventricular rate less than 100 bpm B. A PR interval that can be easily measured : C. A series of three or more PVCs occurring at a rate exceeding 100 bpm D. A stable QRS morphology in all forms of VT

108. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of Atrioventricular (AV) Block? A. Atherosclerotic heart disease B. Hypokalemia (C. Excessive physical exercise D. Myocardial infarction

109. What is a key characteristic of Ventricular Fibrillation (VF) observed on an electrocardiogram (ECG)? A. Presence of regular QRS complexes B. Ventricular rate around 100 bpm C, Presence of irregular undulating QRS waves with changing amplitudes D. Clear, discernible P waves

110. Which of the following is a common cause of Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)? A. Hypertension B. Untreated ventricular tachycardia (VT) C. Aortic valve stenosis D. Bradycardia