問題一覧
1
If the door cannot be secured closed, set the cabin pressurisation landing elevation to ____ feet to reduce cabin pressurisation forces against the door. No action is required if the FWD compartment door is unlocked
9000
2
What is the normal main hydraulic pump output pressure for the blue hydraulic system?
3000 PSI
3
How many PBEs are located in the cabin?
3
4
The extreme value for cabin rate of change during climb up to ZA 20,000ft is:
550ft/min
5
Antiskid protection is not available at ground speeds below
10 KTS
6
With the propeller anti-icing MODE SEL pb pressed ON (HIGH POWER cycle):
Blade’s heating duration is longer (20 secs each cycle)
7
Assuming normal operation in flight, when are the HOT EMER BUS and HOT MAIN BAT BUS connected to their respective batteries?
Always
8
When does a single steady illuminated amber F light on the antiskid panel indicate?
a failure is detected in the associated channel and antiskid is lost on the associated wheel
9
Where is the sensor for the OVHT light?
On the return line
10
The EXT flag on the flaps position indicator displays that:
All answers are correct
11
What is the source of power for the strobe lights?
AC Wild Bus 1, AC Wild Bus 2
12
If the DE-ICE MODE Selector pushbutton is pressed in this causes the SLOW caption in the pushbutton to illuminate and the cycle is forced to ____ seconds. If this pushbutton is released out, the cycle is set at ____ seconds
180,60 seconds
13
With a TRU installed, both ACW generators operate, with a dual DC generator failure:
The batteries can be maintained when DC power is under emergency supply conditions (both generators failed)
14
The autopilot trims the aircraft in the yaw axis.
False
15
In addition to the ADCs, the aircraft is equipped with:
A standby system supplying the standby airspeed and attitude indicators directly with raw data
16
The compartment temperature selector is operative:
In the automatic and manual modes of operation
17
Temperature control is achieved by mixing bleed air with air produced by the expansion turbine
True
18
What prevents the power levers from being moved to the Ground Beta Region when the aircraft is in flight
A Flight Idle gate that is controlled by the shock absorbers. At least one must be compressed in order to unlock the Flight idle gate
19
What is the approximate length of the aircraft
27m
20
How is the system protected against exceeding the maximum cabin differential pressure?
Both outflow valves will open in order to prevent an over-pressure condition
21
What is the purpose of the oxygen system on the ATR42-500
It allows the aircraft to descend from 25,000 to 13,000 as well as continue flight between 10,000 and 13,000 for a period of up to 26 minutes
22
When does the amber UNDV light illuminate, when operating on batteries only?
DC STBY BUS voltage is lower than 19.5 VDC
23
The empennage, nose gear bay, radome and the main great bay are also pressurised?
False
24
Once the starter generator has started the engine, it operates in the generator mode when passing:
NH 61.5%
25
The propeller reduction gearbox drives:
The 115 volt AC wild generator, the PVM, a HP oil pump, a propeller over speed governor and the fuel cooled oil cooler
26
What should you do if your going to discharge a fire extingusisher in the flight compartment
Flight compartment crew members should don their oxygen masks with 100% oxygen selected ON
27
Loops A & B are powered from the respective main DC BUS
False
28
When the pilot uses the touch control steering (TCS) it allows him/her:
To manually change the aircraft’s attitude, altitude, vertical speed and/or airspeed without disengaging the autopilot
29
When does the electric fuel pump automatically turn off? (PUMP pb pressed in)
30 seconds after HP fuel pressure is available and the 8.5 PSI pressure switch detects the normal jet pump functioning
30
When are the amber altitude and associated aural alerts triggered related to the preselected altitude “H”?
When altitude is between H + 250ft and H+1000ft or between H -250ft and H -1000ft
31
What happens when the SQUIB test pb is depressed
Both SQUIB lights illuminate if the test is successful
32
The components supplied by the BLUE hydraulic system include:
Nose wheel steering, flaps, spoilers,m propeller brake, emergency parking brake
33
What are the main functions of the MFC system?
All answers are correct
34
When the AP is engaged with an active flight director mode engaged, the autopilot immediately maneuvers to follow the active flight director commands
True
35
Each hydraulic pump is mainly pressurised by means of:
An ACW electrical pump
36
The engine and airframe anti-ice system requires pneumatic bleed air. Therefore, the bleed air valve must be open in order for the engine and airframe anti-ice system to operate normally?
False
37
Each engine is equipped with:
Two dire detection loops mounted in parallel
38
What is the weather antenna pitch axis adjustment with the TILT control?
From 15 down to 15 up
39
Once the autofeather sequence for one of the propellers in initiated, the autofeather system on the remaining engine remains enabled.
False
40
What happens when the AP is engaged but a mode is not selected?
The AP maintains the present pitch attitude (+-15 max) and the present roll (6-35) or present heading if the bank angle is <6
41
When is an intruder aircraft considered to be a ground target?
<380 feet AGL
42
Pushing an illuminated red MASTER WARNING light will cancel which of the following?
The MASTER WARNING lights and the associated aural warning
43
Are GPWS Mode 1 & 2 alerts available at all times?
Only when the aircraft is below 2450ft AGL
44
What do the fuel quantity indicators display?
The fuel mass remaining in the fuel tanks
45
What should be “reselected” on the refuelling panel SELECT QTY counters to refuel the aircraft?
Total fuel quantity for automatic refusing. (including what is already on board)
46
How is the propeller pitch control achieved?
By opposing unmetered oil pressure against metered oil pressure
47
When do the EMER EXIT lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT selector on ARM?
If DC EMER BUS voltage is below 18V or in case of loss of both generators
48
What is the maximum display range on the VSI/TRA Indicator?
12NM
49
The fire bottle squibs are armed:
When the associated fire handle is pulled
50
How is constant AC PWR frequency obtained:
From DC busses through two static inverters
51
The lavatory is located
In the aft cabin
52
The jet pump is activated by
HP fuel from the HMU
53
With engine 2 in HOTEL mode and DC generator electrical power applied which main hydraulic pumps can be operating?
No main hydraulic pumps can be operating
54
Which of the following parameters is computed by the ADC?
Vertical Speed
55
What sub-system handles the autofeathering of the propeller?
The Auto-Feathering Unit (AFU)
56
The bus tie contractors (BTC) in the ACW electrical system permits:
one ACW generator to power both ACW buses if one ACW GEN fails
57
What does the amber LO LVL light indicate
When fuel quantity for each tank (LH or RH) is lower than 160kg, or when the feeder tank is not full (Feeder jet pump failure)
58
How is the go-around mode cancelled?
By using the TCS, or by pushing the STBY button or by selecting a new vertical mode or by engaging the AP
59
How many passenger oxygen masks are installed on the ATR72-500
19
60
With the LOOP pb in, how many detection loops need to detect a fire to activate the FIRE WARNING system?
Two loops
61
Pilots are authorised to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with an EGPWS warning?
True
62
In the automatic mode, the TLU limits rudder travel when the aircraft accelerates through _____ knots
185
63
The CCAS can generate the next type alerts when a system failure is detected
Visual and aural alerts
64
What happens when the AP is engaged with no flight director mode selected
The AP maintains the present pitch attitude, the wings are leveled automatically, and the heading existing at the time the wings are levelled is maintained
65
The DUMP function is available regardless of the mode of operation of the pressurisation system?
False
66
What is the minimum oxygen bottle pressure required for normal operations?
any pressure above 1400 PSI
67
How many emergency doors are installed in the passenger cabin?
Four emergency doors (two type I and two type III)
68
Pressing the STBY pb on the AFCS control panel
Cancels all FD modes (both armed and active). When AP pb is engaged the AP resets to basic modes
69
The aircraft is on the ground, one engine is operating, and the external power is connected. What powers the starter generator for the remaining engine?
The aircraft main battery and the operating generator
70
The yaw trim position indicator shows
Units of trim motor displacement from neutral
71
What is the main engine parameter
TQ
72
Which statement is correct if an elevator panel becomes jammed?
Disengaging the pitch coupling mechanism allows the non-affected channel to operate
73
The accessory gearbox, which is driven by the HP spool drives the:
The DC starter/generator, engine driven fuel pump and the oil pump
74
The aural alert for the service door or the forward compartment is inhibited if either door is not locked and the ENG 1 CL is in the feather or fuel shut off position
False
75
Which are of the aircraft is not part of the interphone system?
Nose gear bay
76
When does the rudder spring tab reduce flight crew effort around the yaw xis
At any speed
77
What is the status of displayed navigation information when a red OFF flag (internal failure) is shown on the RMI?
ADF needle displays only relative bearing to the station. VOR needle displays magnetic bearing to station on rose card
78
What type of fire should the halon flight extinguisher NOT be used on?
The halon fire extinguisher can be used on most fires
79
What braking system options are available?
Normal brakes, emergency brakes, parking brakes and autobrakes when LDG GEAR lever is selected up
80
If the pack valve is closed or inoperative:
The other pack supplies both compartments (cockpit, cabin through the mixing chamber)
81
Pressing an illuminated red master warning light cancels
Both master warning lights and associated aural warning (CRC)
82
The market beacon receivers gives:
A visual signal displayed on the EADI’s, and an audio signal
83
What does a HYD OVHT alert indicate?
An overheat detection in the associated drain line of the pump housing
84
What happens if the airflow is set to HIGH?
This increases pack valve airflow on ground and in flight
85
If the AP is ON and the YD is engaged, what happens if the AP push button is pressed?
Only the AP disengages
86
What happens when the pitch wheel is actuated with the AP engaged in ALT HOLD (green) mode?
The pitch wheel is inhibited in GS, ALT SEL CAPTURE and ALT HOLD modes
87
The TO INHI function is cancelled automatically when:
When the landing gear unlocks for retraction
88
What does a PACK VALVE FAULT message indicate?
Paxk valve position disagrees with selected position
89
If the normal gear extension fails, the emergency extension handle allows mechanical unlocking, and the
unlocks are released and a valve is opened to allow fluid in the lines to return back to the reservoir. After that the gear falls by gravity assisted by a compressed gas strut
90
What is considered as the main passenger door?
The REAR entry door
91
How is the MAP mode range on the EHSI adjusted?
With the UP and DWN arrows (or range selector) on the weather radar control panel
92
How many aircraft can TCAS track simulataneously?
30
93
The landing gear posotion detection and indicating systems are provided by
Two isolated systems and two sets of position indicator lights
94
If the AP is on and the YD is engaged, what happens if the YD push button is pressed?
Both the AP and the YD disengage
95
The AHRS system consisted of
Two attitude heading reference units, two flux valves and one dual remote compensator
96
At what point during the start does the starter disengage?
At 45% NH
97
To initiate an EGPWS test:
On the ground, press the GPWS G/S pb on the CAPT, or F/O Panel
98
How is the STBY COMPASS illuminated when required?
Through a STBY compass switch on the (overhead) FLT COMP LT panel by integral lighting
99
When the EMERGENCY AUDIO CANCEL spring-loaded switch is used to stop a continuous aural alert, the affected system will not provide another warning for that condition unless..
The MFC has been reset by cycling aircraft power, MFC 1B/2B is reset, the RCL pushbutton is pressed, or the TO CONFIG is tested.
100
How is the blue system pressurised for the PROP BRAKE locking sequence with the engines not running?
By pressing the HYD AUX PUMP SWITCH on the pedestals which activates the auxiliary DC hydraulic pump for 30 seconds