問題一覧
1
A tail bumper is located on the bottom of the aft fuselage
True
2
What is the maximum operating altitude of the ATR 72-500?
25,000 feet MSL
3
Is a tail prop used to prevent aircraft from tipping backwards during passenger loading and unloading?
Yes
4
The aural alert for the cabin or cargo door is inhibited if either door is not locked and the engine 1 CL is in feather of Fuel S.O position
True
5
The ATR 72-500 incorporates an automatic power increase to ____ SHP in the vent of an engine failure at TO
2750
6
All cabin doors on the ATR72-500 can be used as emergency exists
True
7
What is the minimum pavement width required to accomplish 180 degree turn (if idle thrust and no differential braking)
21.39m
8
If the door cannot be secured closed, set the cabin pressurisation landing elevation to ____ feet to reduce cabin pressurisation forces against the door. No action is required if the FWD compartment door is unlocked
9000
9
The empennage, nose gear bay, radome and the main great bay are also pressurised?
False
10
If the ext power is not connected, the ground handling bus will be powered by the hot main battery bus. When this occurs, a red ON BAT light illuminates. The illumination of this light indicates that the battery is discharging. This will occur even if the battery switch is in the OFF position.
True
11
In the event a sensor detects that a door is not locked when it should be, the amber master warning light will flash, the amber DOOR light illuminates on the CAP, the associated door UNLK light illuminates on the DOORS panel
False
12
The aural alert for the service door or the forward compartment is inhibited if either door is not locked and the ENG 1 CL is in the feather or fuel shut off position
False
13
The forward windshields have electric anti-ice protection, and the side windows are delisted pneumatically.
False
14
Where is the ext power connection on the aircraft
On the lower right side of the fuselage, just aft of the nose gear
15
What is the aircraft cockpit philosophy?
Dark cockpit philosophy
16
Pilot proper seat position can be determined by:
By using the seat position sight gauge in the middle of both windshields
17
What is the alternate cockpit emergency exit?
Hatch in cockpit ceiling
18
What is the approximate length of the aircraft
27m
19
What is the approximate cabin height?
1.9m
20
What is the approximate wingspan?
27m
21
Which door(s) are monitored by the MFC?
CARGO, FWD COMPT, and EMER doors
22
What is considered as the main passenger door?
The REAR entry door
23
How can the cabin emergency exists be operated?
All emergency exits are operable from the interior or exterior of the cabin
24
When do the SVCE and CAB OK lights come on, when the crew presses the Test pb on the DOORS panel?
The cabin and service doors are open and the associated micro switches are in the unlocked position
25
How many emergency doors are installed in the passenger cabin?
Four emergency doors (two type I and two type III)
26
The lavatory is located
In the aft cabin
27
How is the toilet flushed?
By a motorized pump filter unit
28
The TO INHI function is cancelled automatically when:
When the landing gear unlocks for retraction
29
The T.O. CONFIG test is used before take off to check:
The system checks that the flaps are in thr takeoff position, pitch trim is in the green arc, the aileron lock is disengaged, the PWR MGT rotary knob is in the takeoff position and the Travel Limiting Unit is in the LOW SPEED configuration
30
Alert Levels are classified as Level 0/Information, Level 1/Warnings, Level2/Cautions, Levrl 3/Advisories
False
31
Failure to press the CLR pushbutton to reset the CAP for subsequent failures within the same system may result in no subsequent fault indications of that system.
True
32
Pushing an illuminated red MASTER WARNING light will cancel which of the following?
The MASTER WARNING lights and the associated aural warning
33
Following an MFC 1B and 2B failure, which of the following alerts will not be processed?
All level 2 alerts and the following level 3s: CONFIG, ENGINE OIL and PROP BRAKE
34
The master caution system is typically identified with:
Urgent situation
35
When pressing the TO INHI push-button, you will inhibit:
CCAS alerting for non emergency conditions
36
Level 3 Alerts are identified by flashing master Warning lights, an illuminated red light on the CAP, and:
A continuous repetitive chime
37
Manual cancellation of the TO INHI is obtained
By pressing RCL pushbutton
38
To extinguish the MASTER WARNING or MASTER CAUTION lights, it’s necessary:
To press the corresponding light
39
When the EMERGENCY AUDIO CANCEL spring-loaded switch is used to stop a continuous aural alert, the affected system will not provide another warning for that condition unless..
The MFC has been reset by cycling aircraft power, MFC 1B/2B is reset, the RCL pushbutton is pressed, or the TO CONFIG is tested.
40
Smoke warning, trim settings and engine oil are the only level 3 warnings inhibited by the Takeoff Inhibut button
False
41
CCAS triggers:
Visual and aural alerts
42
What corrective action should be performed if an SGU failure occurs?
The pilot on the side of the failed SGU should select the opposite SGU
43
What happens if the AHRS 2 fails completely?
Attitude and heading information are removed from the associated EADI. The EADI will display a red attitude FAIL message and the EHSI will display a red Heafding fail message at the top of the EHSI
44
The appearance of an amber HDG message on the top right of the EADI means that:
The two AHRS’s disagree on heading information (6 degrees or more)
45
The appearance of an amber ATT message on the EADI means that:
The two AHRS’s disagree on both pitch and roll information (6 degrees or more)
46
What corrective action should be performed if an AHRS failure occurs?
The Pilot on the side of the failed AHRS should select the opposite ATT/HDG reference
47
The EADI fast-slow scale is referenced to which of the following?
The airspeed bug set on the associate airspeed indicator?
48
The EFIS control panel’s ADI DIM/DH TEST inner knob is used to select the Decision Height as well as test the radio altimeter
True
49
Which of the following is true regarding the Cockpit Voice Recorder?
The last 30 minutes of recording are retained. All recording may be erased by pressing ERASE pushbutton provided the aircraft is on the ground and the parking brake is set to ON
50
When the aircraft is in flight the auxiliary power supply for AHRS 2 is from DC BUS 1
True
51
Where is the vertical speed indicated?
On a dedicated VSI/TCAS display
52
In addition to the ADCs, the aircraft is equipped with:
A standby system supplying the standby airspeed and attitude indicators directly with raw data
53
How can the pilot switch between navigation sources on the electronic horizontal situation indicator (EHSI)?
With the V/L (VOR/LOC) and RNAV (GNSS) pb on the EFIS control panel (ECP)
54
Where are the active/armed AFCS moved displayed?
On the ADU and on the top of the EADI
55
How is the V1 speed reference set?
How is the V1 speed reference set? By a green bug on the ASI (airspeed indicator), or by a yellow V1/VR bug on a non-limiting runway
56
The following statement is correct regarding the speed selector knob on the airspeed indicator (ASI)?
This knob is used to select a desired speed and controls the reference on the EADI Fast/Slow Scale
57
How is the MAP mode range on the EHSI adjusted?
With the UP and DWN arrows (or range selector) on the weather radar control panel
58
What are the TCAS indicator display ranges?
Selectable display ranges of 6 and 12Nm, and a fixed “aircraft mockup” loop range of 2Nm
59
Where is the DME distance displayed?
At the top right of the EHSI
60
How can the pilot switch between weather radar (RDR) and terrain mapping (TERR) mode on the EHSI?
With the DSP SEL pbs to the right/left of the EHSI
61
What is the status of displayed navigation information when a red OFF flag (internal failure) is shown on the RMI?
ADF needle displays only relative bearing to the station. VOR needle displays magnetic bearing to station on rose card
62
How is a decision height (DH) set, and where is it displayed?
The DH is set by the DH TST inner knob on the ECP and displayed on EADI
63
When are the amber altitude and associated aural alerts triggered related to the preselected altitude “H”?
When altitude is between H + 250ft and H+1000ft or between H -250ft and H -1000ft
64
Which of the following parameters is computed by the ADC?
Vertical Speed
65
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the digital altitude indicator on the altimeter indicator?
A black and white flag covers the LH drum when altitude <10000ft. A NEG black flag covers the two LH drums when altitude <0ft. A red OFF flag covers the indicator in case of an ADC failure, indicator failure or power failure.
66
How many characters can be entered into the scratchpad of the MCDU
24
67
What is the sector monitored by the radar’s targets alert mode?
+-7.5 degrees
68
The ILS receivers are independent of each other. However, they share the same localiser and glideslope antennas
True
69
Flying at 3500ft AGL above an elevation of 500ft, what is the radio altimeter indication on the EADI?
Nothing. The radio altitude is not displayed above 2500ft
70
The EGPWS alerting algorithm takes into account man made obstacles?
False
71
Pilots are authorised to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with an EGPWS warning?
True
72
Are GPWS Mode 1 & 2 alerts available at all times?
Only when the aircraft is below 2450ft AGL
73
The market beacon receivers gives:
A visual signal displayed on the EADI’s, and an audio signal
74
When can the GPWS GLIDE SLOPE warning be inhibited?
When the aircraft’s radio altitude is less than 2000ft AGL by pressing either glideslope switch light
75
Mode 2 alerts are not dependent on the aircraft descending, in level flight or climbing towards rising terrain?
True
76
How is the composite mode selected on an EHSI when that side’s EADI CRT failed?
By switching the respective side EADI to OFF
77
What does a red flag indicate on the F/O RMI?
If an internal failure officers or AHRS 1 supply is lost
78
Flying a VOR approach, how would a VOR receiver source failure be indicated on the EHSI
A Red Cross appears on the scale, indexes and pointer disappear; no flag is visible
79
What is the weather antenna pitch axis adjustment with the TILT control?
From 15 down to 15 up
80
With RNAV source selected on the EFIS control panel:
NAV pb arms LNAV on AFCS
81
What are the Enhanced modes of EGPWS
Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) and a Terrain Awareness Display (TAD)
82
Where is the weather radar impediment detection displayed?
Weather impediments are displayed on the EHSIs in ARC mode
83
What alert is generated with a Mode 3 alert (altitude loss after takeoff)?
DONT SINK, plus the red GPWS light illuminates
84
The AHRS system consisted of
Two attitude heading reference units, two flux valves and one dual remote compensator
85
To initiate an EGPWS test:
On the ground, press the GPWS G/S pb on the CAPT, or F/O Panel
86
How many aircraft can TCAS track simulataneously?
30
87
What does the RNG pushbutton do?
It enables the selection of the 6NM or 12NM forward range on the VSI/TRA indicator
88
How is a TA indicated on the VSI/TRA display?
A solid yellow coloured circle
89
The TCAS system requires that any intruder aircraft be equipped with a mode C transponder in order to command a climb or descent manoeuvre to avoid a collision
True
90
What is the maximum display range on the VSI/TRA Indicator?
12NM
91
TA aural advisories are inhibited when the aircraft is less than _____ feet above ground level (AGL) when the aircraft is descending, and ____ ft above ground level when the aircraft is climbing
900,1100
92
How is other traffic represented on the TCAS VSI/TRA display?
An open cyan coloured diamond
93
When is a RA issued?
When the intruding traffic is approx 25 seconds from the CPA of the aircraft
94
How is proximate traffic represented on the VSI/TRA display?
A solid cyan coloured diamond
95
When the mode selector switch on the TCAS Control Unit is set to STBY, all TCAS operations are disabled, except interrogation.
False
96
When is an intruder aircraft considered to be a ground target?
<380 feet AGL
97
When is a climb or descent arrow dedicated with an intruder aircraft?
When the intruder aircraft is climbing or descending at least 500fpm
98
When are descend advisories inhibited?
When the aircraft is less than 1000ft AGL during an approach, or below 1200ft AGL during takeoff
99
What is the maximum surveillance area of the TCAS?
14NM
100
Which push button must be pushed on the AFCS control panel to intercept and track a VOR radial
NAV