1. Which one of the following media is most helpful in distinguishing the morphology of yeasts?

2. The best test to differentiate L. monocytogenes from Corynebacterium species is:

3. Encephalitis is most commonly asso w/ w/c viruses

4.A differential medium that can be used as a primary isolation agar producing predictable colored colonies that can be distinguished from other org colony types:

5. The recommended medium/media to inoculate for the primary isolation of Mycobacteria include:

6. C. trachomatis infections have been implicated in:

7. Virus transport medium should contain agents that:

8.W/c of ff clinical presentations is asso w/ HHV8?

9. MacConkey media for screening suspected cases of hemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7 must contain:

10.W/c of the ff is the most appropriate org & media combination?

11. Shigella species characteristically are:

12. An organism that must be incubated in a microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery is:

13. The term "internal autoinfection" is generally used in referring to infections w/:

14. This parasite has the following characteristics: banana shaped gametocytes in RBCs, multiple ring forms in RBCs, all RBCs are infected:

15. Which one of the ff viruses is responsible for the most common congenital infection in the United States?

16. Which of the ff scenarios presents the greatest risk for coccidioidomycosis?

17. Gram(+) cocci in chains are seen on a Gram stain from a blood culture. The org grows as a beta-hemolytic colony. Further tests that could be performed include:

18. The primary isolation of N. gonorrhoeae requires:

19. When performing a KOVAC indole test, the substrate must contain

20. The mycobacteria that produce a deep yellow or orange pigment both in the dark and light are:

21. Which selective medium is used for the isolation of Gram-positive microorganisms?

22. How is Trichomonas vaginalis transmitted?

23. What Mycobacterium does not usually fluoresce when stained with a fluorochrome stain?

24. A px has a suspected diagnosis of subacute bacterial endocarditis. His blood cultures grow non-spore forming pleomorphic G(+) bacilli only in the anaerobic bottle. What test(s) will give a presumptive identification of this organism?

25. W/c of the ff clinical syndromes is asso w/ VZV:

26. W/c DNA + org colony is not easily broken up & therefore displays the "hockey puck" characteristic where it can be pushed across the plate of medium?

27. An org from a peritoneal abscess is isolated on kanamycin-vancomycin laked blood agar & grows black colonies on BBE agar. It is nonpigmented, catalase(+) and indole(-). The genus of this organism is:

28.A bronchoscopy sample w/ request for culture of Legionella is sent to lab.The correct plating protocol is:

29. Nutritionally variant streptococci are:

30. The porphyrin test was devised to detect strains of Haemophilus capable of:

31. Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) production?

32. Members of the family Enterobacteriaceae share which one of the following characteristics?

33. Which of the following pairs of organisms usually grow on kanamycin, vancomycin, laked blood agar?

34 A Gram-positive coccus isolated from a blood culture has the following characteristics: Optochin susceptibility(-) Bile esculin hydrolysis(-) Bacitracin susceptibility(-) Hippurate hydrolysis(+) Catalase-

35. A gamma-hemolytic Streptococcus that blackens bile esculin agar but does not grow in 6.5% NaCl broth is most likely:

36. The optimal collection of a wound specimen for culture of anaerobic organisms is a:

37. Multifocal brain lesions in AIDS patients are commonly caused by:

38.Plesiomonas shigelloides is a member of the family Enterobacteriaceae. The characteristic that differentiates Plesiomonas from other Enterobacteriaceae is:

39. Which test is the primary screening test for HIV?

40. In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, as an antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk the concentration of antibiotic is:

41. The specimen of choice for detection of RSV is:

42. Acceptable specimen sources for culture of anaerobic bacteria includes:

43. A TSI tube inoculated with an org gave the ff rxn: Alkaline slant, Acid butt, no H2S & gas

44. The stock cultures needed for QC testing of motility are:

45. Media used to support growth of Legionella pneumophila should contain the additives:

46. An Enterococcus isolated from multiple blood cultures in a patient endocarditis should be:

47.A β-hemolytic streptococci that is bacitracin sensitive & CAMP(-) is:

48. Susceptibility testing performed on QC org using a new media lot no. yielded zone sizes that were too large for all antibiotics tested. The testing was repeated using media from a previously used lot no., & all zone sizes were acceptable. The unacceptable zone sizes are:

49.A nonfermenting G(-) bacillus is isolated from a wound.The nitrate & oxidase are strongly(+).The growth on Mueller-Hinton agar produces pyoverdin.This org is:

50. Which of the following is the most appropriate specimen source and primary media selection?

51. A Klebsiella pnuemoniae isolate is known to produce carbapenemase; therefore, it therapeutically will not respond to the antibiotics:

52.A liquid fecal spx from a 3mo infant is submitted for culture:The stool culture should detect Salmonella, Shigella &:

53. Which characteristic best differentiates Acinetobacter species from MOraxella species?

54.Characteristics of the HACEK grp of bacteria:

55. Which type of virus causes SARS?

56. A 25yo man who had recently worked as a steward on a transoceanic grain ship presented to the ER w/ high fever, diarrhea, & prostration. Axillary lymph nodes were hemorrhagic & enlarged. A Wright-Giemsa stain of the aspirate showed bacilli that were bipolar, resembling safety pins.

57. Caffeic acid disks inoculated with a yeast isolate show brown pigment production in a few hours. This is useful in the identification of:

58. The most important variable in the recovery of organisms in adult patients with bacteremia is:

59. The proper blood-to-broth ratio for blood cultures to reduce the antibacterial effect of serum in adults is:

60. Many fungal infections are transmitted to man via inhalation of infectious structures. Which of the ff is usually contracted in this manner?

61. A male urethral discharge specimen submitted for culture should be inoculated to:

62. On day 3pf fungal culture, a dense grayish cottony growth is observed. It fills the container and looks like "cotton candy". The most likely mold isolated is a:

63. The optimal incubator temperature for isolation of the C.jejuni/coli group is:

64. A fibrous skin nodule is removed from the back of a patient from Central America. A microfilaria seen upon microscopic exam of the nodule is most likely

65. Which of the ff agents is the most common cause of pediatric viral gastroenteritis?

66. Which nonculture method is best for the diagnosis of N. gonorrhoeae in an adult female?

67. Organisms that can be easily identified to the species level from the ova in fecal specimens include:

68. The principle difference between the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain technique and the Kinyoun acid-fast stain technique is the:

69. The best medium for culture of B. pertussis is:

70. W/c of the ff dermatophytes can be identified w/ its clavate or peg-shaped microconidia that resembles "birds on a wire"?

71. W/c feature distinguishes E. rhusiopathiae from other clinically significant non-spore-forming, Gram(+), facultatively anaerobic bacilli?

72. Grp B, B-hemolytic streptococci may distinguish from other hemolytic strep by w/c of the ff procedures?

73. The steam autoclave mtd of sterilization requires:

D 74. A college student attended a beach party where raw oysters and other shellfish were consumed. The next day, he had symptoms of septicemia. The blood cultures grew Gram(-) bacilli with the ff characteristics: Oxidase(+) O/129 (150ug) = susceptible MacConkey agar=pink colonies The most likely organism is:

75. It is important to differentiate between Enterococcus & grpD streptococci because:

76. W/c of the ff specimen requests is acceptable?

77. Which of the following groups of specimens would be acceptable for anaerobic culture?

78. Using a FLUORescent microscope a wet preparation of skin tissue reveals fluorescent septate hyphae. The smear was prepared using:

79. A patient is suspected of having amebic dysentery. Upon microscopic examination of a fresh fecal specimen for ova and parasites, the following data were obtained: a trophozoite of 25um progressive, unidirectional crawl evenly distributed peripheral chromatin finely granular cytoplasm

80. Biochemical rxn of an org are consistent w/ Shigella. A suspension is tested in antiserum without resulting aggln. However, after 15min of boiling aggln occurs in grpD antisera. The Shigella species is:

81.An org previously thought to be nonpathogenic, M. catarrhalis,is now known to be asso w/ an opportunistic respiratory infection & nosocomial transmission. Characteristic identification criteria include:

82. Which of the ff org is the causative agent of hand, foot and mouth disease?

83. Children who have infections with beta-hemolytic streptococci can develop:

84.W/c medium could the technologist use to verify that a yeast isolate from a blood culture is pure?

85. The ONPG test allows org to be classified as a lactose fermenter by testing for which of the following?

86. A method to culture Acanthamoeba sp from corneal ulcer scrapings is to inoculate:

87. Which nematode has a characteristic mammillated bile stained egg?

88. Which one of the ff org could be used as the (+) quality control test for lecithinase on egg yolk agar?

89. Which of the following organisms is, to date, considered universally susceptible to penicillin:

90. W/c fungal org is Urease + & Phenol oxidase +?

91. Where do Plasmodium sporozoites proliferate?

92.V. parahaemolyticus is best isolated from feces on:

93.mtd for definitive identification of N. gonorrhoeae:

94.Which one of the ff features of T. saginata helps distinguish it from T. solium?

95. The virus responsible for nearly all cases of infantile respiratory bronchiolitis:

96.When using a control strain of S. aureus,the technologist notices that the zone around the cefoxitin disk is too small.

97. Which of the following is a dimorphic fungus?

98. A young girl cuts her foot on a rock while swimming at the ocean. Her foot begins to show signs of infection & her parents take her to the ER.A culture grows a non-lactose fermenting G(-) rod that produces copious amounts of hydrogen sulfide & gas, is indole(+) & motile. The org most likely isolated is:

99. Laboratory workers should always work under a biological safety hood when working with cultures of:

100. Penicillium species can be separated from Aspergillus fumigatus by: