microbiology

100問 • 1年前

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通報

問題一覧

1. Which one of the following media is most helpful in distinguishing the morphology of yeasts?

cornmeal agar w/ Tween 80

2. The best test to differentiate L. monocytogenes from Corynebacterium species is:

motility at 25.C

3. Encephalitis is most commonly asso w/ w/c viruses

Herpes simplex virus

4.A differential medium that can be used as a primary isolation agar producing predictable colored colonies that can be distinguished from other org colony types:

CHROMagar

5. The recommended medium/media to inoculate for the primary isolation of Mycobacteria include:

a broth-based & a solid-based

6. C. trachomatis infections have been implicated in:

LGV & conjunctivitis

7. Virus transport medium should contain agents that:

inhibit bacterial and fungal growth

8.W/c of ff clinical presentations is asso w/ HHV8?

Kaposi sarcoma

9. MacConkey media for screening suspected cases of hemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7 must contain:

sorbitol

10.W/c of the ff is the most appropriate org & media combination?

Y. enterocolitica -Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin

11. Shigella species characteristically are:

Nonmotile

12. An organism that must be incubated in a microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery is:

C.jejuni

13. The term "internal autoinfection" is generally used in referring to infections w/:

S.stercoralis

14. This parasite has the following characteristics: banana shaped gametocytes in RBCs, multiple ring forms in RBCs, all RBCs are infected:

P. falciparum

15. Which one of the ff viruses is responsible for the most common congenital infection in the United States?

CMV

16. Which of the ff scenarios presents the greatest risk for coccidioidomycosis?

Central Valley California migrant worker

17. Gram(+) cocci in chains are seen on a Gram stain from a blood culture. The org grows as a beta-hemolytic colony. Further tests that could be performed include:

PYR, bacitracin, & hippurate

18. The primary isolation of N. gonorrhoeae requires:

CO2

19. When performing a KOVAC indole test, the substrate must contain

tryptophan

20. The mycobacteria that produce a deep yellow or orange pigment both in the dark and light are:

scotochromogens

21. Which selective medium is used for the isolation of Gram-positive microorganisms?

Columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood

22. How is Trichomonas vaginalis transmitted?

sexual transmission

23. What Mycobacterium does not usually fluoresce when stained with a fluorochrome stain?

M. fortuitum

24. A px has a suspected diagnosis of subacute bacterial endocarditis. His blood cultures grow non-spore forming pleomorphic G(+) bacilli only in the anaerobic bottle. What test(s) will give a presumptive identification of this organism?

catalase and spot indole

25. W/c of the ff clinical syndromes is asso w/ VZV:

shingles

26. W/c DNA + org colony is not easily broken up & therefore displays the "hockey puck" characteristic where it can be pushed across the plate of medium?

Moraxella catarrhalis

27. An org from a peritoneal abscess is isolated on kanamycin-vancomycin laked blood agar & grows black colonies on BBE agar. It is nonpigmented, catalase(+) and indole(-). The genus of this organism is:

Bacteroides

28.A bronchoscopy sample w/ request for culture of Legionella is sent to lab.The correct plating protocol is:

culture on BCYE with antibiotics

29. Nutritionally variant streptococci are:

Granulicatella & Abiotrophia

30. The porphyrin test was devised to detect strains of Haemophilus capable of:

heme synthesis

31. Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) production?

Proteus, Providencia, Morganella

32. Members of the family Enterobacteriaceae share which one of the following characteristics?

reduce nitrate to nitrite

33. Which of the following pairs of organisms usually grow on kanamycin, vancomycin, laked blood agar?

Bacteriodes & Prevotella

34 A Gram-positive coccus isolated from a blood culture has the following characteristics: Optochin susceptibility(-) Bile esculin hydrolysis(-) Bacitracin susceptibility(-) Hippurate hydrolysis(+) Catalase-

S. agalactiae

35. A gamma-hemolytic Streptococcus that blackens bile esculin agar but does not grow in 6.5% NaCl broth is most likely:

group D Streptococcus

36. The optimal collection of a wound specimen for culture of anaerobic organisms is a:

syringe filled w/ pus,obtained b4 administration of antibiotics

37. Multifocal brain lesions in AIDS patients are commonly caused by:

T. gondii

38.Plesiomonas shigelloides is a member of the family Enterobacteriaceae. The characteristic that differentiates Plesiomonas from other Enterobacteriaceae is:

(+) oxidase

39. Which test is the primary screening test for HIV?

serum ELISA

40. In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, as an antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk the concentration of antibiotic is:

decrease

41. The specimen of choice for detection of RSV is:

nasopharyngeal aspirate

42. Acceptable specimen sources for culture of anaerobic bacteria includes:

abscess

43. A TSI tube inoculated with an org gave the ff rxn: Alkaline slant, Acid butt, no H2S & gas

S. dysenteriae

44. The stock cultures needed for QC testing of motility are:

K. pneumoniae = E. coli

45. Media used to support growth of Legionella pneumophila should contain the additives:

charcoal & yeast extract

46. An Enterococcus isolated from multiple blood cultures in a patient endocarditis should be:

screened for high level aminoglycoside resistance

47.A β-hemolytic streptococci that is bacitracin sensitive & CAMP(-) is:

grp A

48. Susceptibility testing performed on QC org using a new media lot no. yielded zone sizes that were too large for all antibiotics tested. The testing was repeated using media from a previously used lot no., & all zone sizes were acceptable. The unacceptable zone sizes are:

depth of the media was too thin

49.A nonfermenting G(-) bacillus is isolated from a wound.The nitrate & oxidase are strongly(+).The growth on Mueller-Hinton agar produces pyoverdin.This org is:

P.aeruginosa

50. Which of the following is the most appropriate specimen source and primary media selection?

endocervical Chocolate, Martin Lewis

51. A Klebsiella pnuemoniae isolate is known to produce carbapenemase; therefore, it therapeutically will not respond to the antibiotics:

amoxicillin, cefazolin & imipenem

52.A liquid fecal spx from a 3mo infant is submitted for culture:The stool culture should detect Salmonella, Shigella &:

Campylobacter spp.

53. Which characteristic best differentiates Acinetobacter species from MOraxella species?

motility

54.Characteristics of the HACEK grp of bacteria:

requirement of 5-10% CO2 for growth

55. Which type of virus causes SARS?

coronavirus

56. A 25yo man who had recently worked as a steward on a transoceanic grain ship presented to the ER w/ high fever, diarrhea, & prostration. Axillary lymph nodes were hemorrhagic & enlarged. A Wright-Giemsa stain of the aspirate showed bacilli that were bipolar, resembling safety pins.

Yersinia pestis

57. Caffeic acid disks inoculated with a yeast isolate show brown pigment production in a few hours. This is useful in the identification of:

Cryptococcus neoformans

58. The most important variable in the recovery of organisms in adult patients with bacteremia is:

the recommended volume of blood cultured

59. The proper blood-to-broth ratio for blood cultures to reduce the antibacterial effect of serum in adults is:

1:10

60. Many fungal infections are transmitted to man via inhalation of infectious structures. Which of the ff is usually contracted in this manner?

H. capsulatum

61. A male urethral discharge specimen submitted for culture should be inoculated to:

chocolate & modified Thayer-Martin agar

62. On day 3pf fungal culture, a dense grayish cottony growth is observed. It fills the container and looks like "cotton candy". The most likely mold isolated is a:

zygomycete

63. The optimal incubator temperature for isolation of the C.jejuni/coli group is:

42.C

64. A fibrous skin nodule is removed from the back of a patient from Central America. A microfilaria seen upon microscopic exam of the nodule is most likely

O.volvulus

65. Which of the ff agents is the most common cause of pediatric viral gastroenteritis?

rotavirus

66. Which nonculture method is best for the diagnosis of N. gonorrhoeae in an adult female?

NAAT

67. Organisms that can be easily identified to the species level from the ova in fecal specimens include:

P.westermani, H.nana

68. The principle difference between the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain technique and the Kinyoun acid-fast stain technique is the:

use of heat to allow the dye to penetrate organism

69. The best medium for culture of B. pertussis is:

Regan-Lowe agar

70. W/c of the ff dermatophytes can be identified w/ its clavate or peg-shaped microconidia that resembles "birds on a wire"?

Trichophyton rubrum

71. W/c feature distinguishes E. rhusiopathiae from other clinically significant non-spore-forming, Gram(+), facultatively anaerobic bacilli?

H2S prodn

72. Grp B, B-hemolytic streptococci may distinguish from other hemolytic strep by w/c of the ff procedures?

latex ag grouping

73. The steam autoclave mtd of sterilization requires:

15lb of pressure for 15min

D 74. A college student attended a beach party where raw oysters and other shellfish were consumed. The next day, he had symptoms of septicemia. The blood cultures grew Gram(-) bacilli with the ff characteristics: Oxidase(+) O/129 (150ug) = susceptible MacConkey agar=pink colonies The most likely organism is:

V. vulnificus

75. It is important to differentiate between Enterococcus & grpD streptococci because:

enterococci often show more antibiotic(R) than grpD strep

76. W/c of the ff specimen requests is acceptable?

urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli

77. Which of the following groups of specimens would be acceptable for anaerobic culture?

pleural fluid,brain abscess fluid

78. Using a FLUORescent microscope a wet preparation of skin tissue reveals fluorescent septate hyphae. The smear was prepared using:

calcofluor white

79. A patient is suspected of having amebic dysentery. Upon microscopic examination of a fresh fecal specimen for ova and parasites, the following data were obtained: a trophozoite of 25um progressive, unidirectional crawl evenly distributed peripheral chromatin finely granular cytoplasm

E. histolytica

80. Biochemical rxn of an org are consistent w/ Shigella. A suspension is tested in antiserum without resulting aggln. However, after 15min of boiling aggln occurs in grpD antisera. The Shigella species is:

sonnei

81.An org previously thought to be nonpathogenic, M. catarrhalis,is now known to be asso w/ an opportunistic respiratory infection & nosocomial transmission. Characteristic identification criteria include:

butyrate esterase(+)

82. Which of the ff org is the causative agent of hand, foot and mouth disease?

coxsackie A

83. Children who have infections with beta-hemolytic streptococci can develop:

acute glomerulonephritis

84.W/c medium could the technologist use to verify that a yeast isolate from a blood culture is pure?

CHROMagar

85. The ONPG test allows org to be classified as a lactose fermenter by testing for which of the following?

B-galactosidase

86. A method to culture Acanthamoeba sp from corneal ulcer scrapings is to inoculate:

an agar plate overlaid with E.coli

87. Which nematode has a characteristic mammillated bile stained egg?

Ascaris

88. Which one of the ff org could be used as the (+) quality control test for lecithinase on egg yolk agar?

Clostridium perfringens

89. Which of the following organisms is, to date, considered universally susceptible to penicillin:

S.pyogenes

90. W/c fungal org is Urease + & Phenol oxidase +?

C. neoformans

91. Where do Plasmodium sporozoites proliferate?

Liver

92.V. parahaemolyticus is best isolated from feces on:

TCBS

93.mtd for definitive identification of N. gonorrhoeae:

utilization of carbohydrates

94.Which one of the ff features of T. saginata helps distinguish it from T. solium?

unarmed rostellum

95. The virus responsible for nearly all cases of infantile respiratory bronchiolitis:

respiratory syncytial virus

96.When using a control strain of S. aureus,the technologist notices that the zone around the cefoxitin disk is too small.

use of outdated cefoxitin disks

97. Which of the following is a dimorphic fungus?

B.dematitidis

98. A young girl cuts her foot on a rock while swimming at the ocean. Her foot begins to show signs of infection & her parents take her to the ER.A culture grows a non-lactose fermenting G(-) rod that produces copious amounts of hydrogen sulfide & gas, is indole(+) & motile. The org most likely isolated is:

Edwardsiella spp

99. Laboratory workers should always work under a biological safety hood when working with cultures of:

C.immitis

100

100. Penicillium species can be separated from Aspergillus fumigatus by:

lack of vesicle

clinical microscopy

clinical microscopy

clinical chemistry

clinical chemistry

immunology & serology

ユーザ名非公開 · 99問 · 1年前

immunology & serology

hematology

hematology

Bloodbank 1

Bloodbank 1

molecular biology

molecular biology

ASCPi SIMULATED EXAM1

ユーザ名非公開 · 99問 · 1年前

ASCPi SIMULATED EXAM1

99問 • 1年前

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ASCPi STIMULATED EXAM 2

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ASCPi STIMULATED EXAM 2

98問 • 1年前

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ASCPi Diagnostic Exam

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ASCPi Diagnostic Exam

FINAL COACHING 1

FINAL COACHING 1

FINAL COACHING ASCPI 2

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FINAL COACHING ASCPI 2

100問 • 1年前

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ASCPi FINAL COACHING 3

ユーザ名非公開 · 3回閲覧 · 100問 · 1年前

ASCPi FINAL COACHING 3

3回閲覧 • 100問 • 1年前

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cerebro students recalls

ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 11ヶ月前

cerebro students recalls

100問 • 11ヶ月前

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cerebro students recalls 2

ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 11ヶ月前

cerebro students recalls 2

100問 • 11ヶ月前

ユーザ名非公開

問題一覧

1. Which one of the following media is most helpful in distinguishing the morphology of yeasts?

cornmeal agar w/ Tween 80

2. The best test to differentiate L. monocytogenes from Corynebacterium species is:

motility at 25.C

3. Encephalitis is most commonly asso w/ w/c viruses

Herpes simplex virus

4.A differential medium that can be used as a primary isolation agar producing predictable colored colonies that can be distinguished from other org colony types:

CHROMagar

5. The recommended medium/media to inoculate for the primary isolation of Mycobacteria include:

a broth-based & a solid-based

6. C. trachomatis infections have been implicated in:

LGV & conjunctivitis

7. Virus transport medium should contain agents that:

inhibit bacterial and fungal growth

8.W/c of ff clinical presentations is asso w/ HHV8?

Kaposi sarcoma

9. MacConkey media for screening suspected cases of hemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7 must contain:

sorbitol

10.W/c of the ff is the most appropriate org & media combination?

Y. enterocolitica -Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin

11. Shigella species characteristically are:

Nonmotile

12. An organism that must be incubated in a microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery is:

C.jejuni

13. The term "internal autoinfection" is generally used in referring to infections w/:

S.stercoralis

14. This parasite has the following characteristics: banana shaped gametocytes in RBCs, multiple ring forms in RBCs, all RBCs are infected:

P. falciparum

15. Which one of the ff viruses is responsible for the most common congenital infection in the United States?

CMV

16. Which of the ff scenarios presents the greatest risk for coccidioidomycosis?

Central Valley California migrant worker

17. Gram(+) cocci in chains are seen on a Gram stain from a blood culture. The org grows as a beta-hemolytic colony. Further tests that could be performed include:

PYR, bacitracin, & hippurate

18. The primary isolation of N. gonorrhoeae requires:

CO2

19. When performing a KOVAC indole test, the substrate must contain

tryptophan

20. The mycobacteria that produce a deep yellow or orange pigment both in the dark and light are:

scotochromogens

21. Which selective medium is used for the isolation of Gram-positive microorganisms?

Columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood

22. How is Trichomonas vaginalis transmitted?

sexual transmission

23. What Mycobacterium does not usually fluoresce when stained with a fluorochrome stain?

M. fortuitum

catalase and spot indole

25. W/c of the ff clinical syndromes is asso w/ VZV:

shingles

26. W/c DNA + org colony is not easily broken up & therefore displays the "hockey puck" characteristic where it can be pushed across the plate of medium?

Moraxella catarrhalis

Bacteroides

28.A bronchoscopy sample w/ request for culture of Legionella is sent to lab.The correct plating protocol is:

culture on BCYE with antibiotics

29. Nutritionally variant streptococci are:

Granulicatella & Abiotrophia

30. The porphyrin test was devised to detect strains of Haemophilus capable of:

heme synthesis

31. Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) production?

Proteus, Providencia, Morganella

32. Members of the family Enterobacteriaceae share which one of the following characteristics?

reduce nitrate to nitrite

33. Which of the following pairs of organisms usually grow on kanamycin, vancomycin, laked blood agar?

Bacteriodes & Prevotella

S. agalactiae

35. A gamma-hemolytic Streptococcus that blackens bile esculin agar but does not grow in 6.5% NaCl broth is most likely:

group D Streptococcus

36. The optimal collection of a wound specimen for culture of anaerobic organisms is a:

syringe filled w/ pus,obtained b4 administration of antibiotics

37. Multifocal brain lesions in AIDS patients are commonly caused by:

T. gondii

38.Plesiomonas shigelloides is a member of the family Enterobacteriaceae. The characteristic that differentiates Plesiomonas from other Enterobacteriaceae is:

(+) oxidase

39. Which test is the primary screening test for HIV?

serum ELISA

40. In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, as an antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk the concentration of antibiotic is:

decrease

41. The specimen of choice for detection of RSV is:

nasopharyngeal aspirate

42. Acceptable specimen sources for culture of anaerobic bacteria includes:

abscess

43. A TSI tube inoculated with an org gave the ff rxn: Alkaline slant, Acid butt, no H2S & gas

S. dysenteriae

44. The stock cultures needed for QC testing of motility are:

K. pneumoniae = E. coli

45. Media used to support growth of Legionella pneumophila should contain the additives:

charcoal & yeast extract

46. An Enterococcus isolated from multiple blood cultures in a patient endocarditis should be:

screened for high level aminoglycoside resistance

47.A β-hemolytic streptococci that is bacitracin sensitive & CAMP(-) is:

grp A

depth of the media was too thin

49.A nonfermenting G(-) bacillus is isolated from a wound.The nitrate & oxidase are strongly(+).The growth on Mueller-Hinton agar produces pyoverdin.This org is:

P.aeruginosa

50. Which of the following is the most appropriate specimen source and primary media selection?

endocervical Chocolate, Martin Lewis

51. A Klebsiella pnuemoniae isolate is known to produce carbapenemase; therefore, it therapeutically will not respond to the antibiotics:

amoxicillin, cefazolin & imipenem

52.A liquid fecal spx from a 3mo infant is submitted for culture:The stool culture should detect Salmonella, Shigella &:

Campylobacter spp.

53. Which characteristic best differentiates Acinetobacter species from MOraxella species?

motility

54.Characteristics of the HACEK grp of bacteria:

requirement of 5-10% CO2 for growth

55. Which type of virus causes SARS?

coronavirus

Yersinia pestis

57. Caffeic acid disks inoculated with a yeast isolate show brown pigment production in a few hours. This is useful in the identification of:

Cryptococcus neoformans

58. The most important variable in the recovery of organisms in adult patients with bacteremia is:

the recommended volume of blood cultured

59. The proper blood-to-broth ratio for blood cultures to reduce the antibacterial effect of serum in adults is:

1:10

60. Many fungal infections are transmitted to man via inhalation of infectious structures. Which of the ff is usually contracted in this manner?

H. capsulatum

61. A male urethral discharge specimen submitted for culture should be inoculated to:

chocolate & modified Thayer-Martin agar

62. On day 3pf fungal culture, a dense grayish cottony growth is observed. It fills the container and looks like "cotton candy". The most likely mold isolated is a:

zygomycete

63. The optimal incubator temperature for isolation of the C.jejuni/coli group is:

42.C

64. A fibrous skin nodule is removed from the back of a patient from Central America. A microfilaria seen upon microscopic exam of the nodule is most likely

O.volvulus

65. Which of the ff agents is the most common cause of pediatric viral gastroenteritis?

rotavirus

66. Which nonculture method is best for the diagnosis of N. gonorrhoeae in an adult female?

NAAT

67. Organisms that can be easily identified to the species level from the ova in fecal specimens include:

P.westermani, H.nana

68. The principle difference between the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain technique and the Kinyoun acid-fast stain technique is the:

use of heat to allow the dye to penetrate organism

69. The best medium for culture of B. pertussis is:

Regan-Lowe agar

70. W/c of the ff dermatophytes can be identified w/ its clavate or peg-shaped microconidia that resembles "birds on a wire"?

Trichophyton rubrum

71. W/c feature distinguishes E. rhusiopathiae from other clinically significant non-spore-forming, Gram(+), facultatively anaerobic bacilli?

H2S prodn

72. Grp B, B-hemolytic streptococci may distinguish from other hemolytic strep by w/c of the ff procedures?

latex ag grouping

73. The steam autoclave mtd of sterilization requires:

15lb of pressure for 15min

V. vulnificus

75. It is important to differentiate between Enterococcus & grpD streptococci because:

enterococci often show more antibiotic(R) than grpD strep

76. W/c of the ff specimen requests is acceptable?

urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli

77. Which of the following groups of specimens would be acceptable for anaerobic culture?

pleural fluid,brain abscess fluid

78. Using a FLUORescent microscope a wet preparation of skin tissue reveals fluorescent septate hyphae. The smear was prepared using:

calcofluor white

E. histolytica

sonnei

butyrate esterase(+)

82. Which of the ff org is the causative agent of hand, foot and mouth disease?

coxsackie A

83. Children who have infections with beta-hemolytic streptococci can develop:

acute glomerulonephritis

84.W/c medium could the technologist use to verify that a yeast isolate from a blood culture is pure?

CHROMagar

85. The ONPG test allows org to be classified as a lactose fermenter by testing for which of the following?

B-galactosidase

86. A method to culture Acanthamoeba sp from corneal ulcer scrapings is to inoculate:

an agar plate overlaid with E.coli

87. Which nematode has a characteristic mammillated bile stained egg?

Ascaris

88. Which one of the ff org could be used as the (+) quality control test for lecithinase on egg yolk agar?

Clostridium perfringens

89. Which of the following organisms is, to date, considered universally susceptible to penicillin:

S.pyogenes

90. W/c fungal org is Urease + & Phenol oxidase +?

C. neoformans

91. Where do Plasmodium sporozoites proliferate?

Liver

92.V. parahaemolyticus is best isolated from feces on:

TCBS

93.mtd for definitive identification of N. gonorrhoeae:

utilization of carbohydrates

94.Which one of the ff features of T. saginata helps distinguish it from T. solium?

unarmed rostellum

95. The virus responsible for nearly all cases of infantile respiratory bronchiolitis:

respiratory syncytial virus

96.When using a control strain of S. aureus,the technologist notices that the zone around the cefoxitin disk is too small.

use of outdated cefoxitin disks

97. Which of the following is a dimorphic fungus?

B.dematitidis

Edwardsiella spp

99. Laboratory workers should always work under a biological safety hood when working with cultures of:

C.immitis

100

100. Penicillium species can be separated from Aspergillus fumigatus by:

lack of vesicle