問題一覧
1
1.A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network.which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
Device(config)#lldp run
2
2.Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
CPU ACL
3
3.When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
IPsec
4
4.How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
TCP use the three-way handshake, and UDP dose no guarantee message delivery
5
5.What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (choose two)
when the cable length limits are exceeded, when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
6
6.A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged
7
7.Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?
The default Hello and Dead timers are in use
8
8.What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point
9
9.When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup
10
10.Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
on
11
11.What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)
The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies., The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.
12
12.Refer to the exhibit. which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
it is a broadcast IP address
13
13.what is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
The seventh bit of original MAC address of the interface is inverted
14
14.Which function does an SNMP agent perform?
It sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS.
15
15.Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet. Which action corrects the configuration issue?
Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1.
16
16.What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)
faster changes with more reliable results, reduced operational costs
17
17.Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (choose two)
interface port-channel 10 no switchport ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0, interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 Channel-group 10 mode active
18
18.Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
service password-encryption
19
19.R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols,which route is installed?
route with the lowest administrative distance
20
20.Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
172.28.0.0/16
21
21.Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?
administrative distance
22
22.which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?
ntp master
23
23.When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the exiting interface to calculate the route with the lowest cost.
24
24.What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
Each device is separated by the same number of hops.
25
25.Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)
The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN., The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.
26
26.Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
enable SLAAC on an interface
27
27.Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted.
28
28.In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
29
29.Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
longest prefix
30
30.Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
Assign a DNS domain name
31
31.Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
southbound
32
32.Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1.which configuration accomplishes this task?
R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1
33
33.What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
34
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
interface eo/o description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252
35
35.Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
flexconnect
36
36.Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
active
37
37.which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
SAE encryption
38
38.Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router 1. The new circuit uses eBGP and learns the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.
39
39.Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address
40
40.Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor., The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
41
41.Refer to the exhibit, which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (choose two)
int range g0/0-1 Channel-group 10 mode active, int range g0/0-1 Channel-group 10 mode passive
42
42.What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them
43
43.Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computer must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to Switch A accomplishes the task?
config t ip access-list extended wwwblock deny top any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80 permit ip any any int vlan 20 ip access-group wwwblock in
44
44.Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?
It selects RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address
45
45.What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.
46
46.While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
A matching permit statement is too high in the access test, A matching permit statement is too broadly defined
47
47.Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
allocation nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
48
48.How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management.
49
49.Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two.)
It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets., It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.
50
50.Which set of actions satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
The users enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.