問題一覧
1
Esmolol gtt:
50-300 mcg/kg/min
2
Beta-blocker that might be preferable in a patient with insulin-dependent diabetes:
atenolol
3
combined alpha and beta antagonist:
labetalol
4
less preload issues:
ARB
5
labetalol dose, onset, duration:
0.1 - 0.5 mg/kg 5-10 min 5 hours
6
specific to amide locals:
propranolol will decrease clearance of amide locals- toxicity risk
7
first line therapy for htn, chf, and mitral regurgitation:
ACEI
8
hypertensive emergency:
nitroprusside
9
most likely associated with alpha 1 selective antagonism:
decrease in IP3 and DAG
10
beta 1 selective antagonist third generation: select 3
betaxolol, caliprolol , nebivolol
11
dose of phentalomine
30-70 mcg/kg
12
Heart failure treatment of hypertension:
thiazide diuretic, BB, ACEI, ARB, aldosterone antagonist
13
propranolol metabolite:
4-hydroxy propranolol
14
Timolol eye drops cause:
decrease HR, decrease BP, increase airway resistance
15
ACEI are safe during pregnancy.
false
16
first line therapy for htn, chf, and mr:
ACEI
17
MOA of ACEI involves what:
peptidyl-depeptidase
18
which drug would cause more tachycardia:
phentalomine
19
ACEI MOA:
prevent conversion of angiotensin I to II
20
where is angiotensinogen synthesized?
liver
21
A patient presents with a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg. The patient has a history of coronary vascular disease, resulting in angina, but has no evidence of congestive heart failure. The patient also has asthma and has been treated mainly using terbutaline (Brethine), by aerosol inhalation Propranolol (Inderal) was prescribed to manage essential hypertension. Was this action appropriate?
Propranolol (Inderal) is inappropriate because its use is contraindicated in a patient with asthma.
22
highest risk for cough and angioedema:
ACEI
23
metabolized in liver to glucuronide conjugate:
labetalol
24
alpha antagonist that will decrease afterload in heart failure:
prazosin
25
what causes orthostatic hypotension caused by alpha antagonist?
decreased preload
26
least likely to cause tachycardia:
prazosin
27
atenolol dose and duration:
5-10mg IV 6-7 hours
28
extensive 1st pass effect:
propranolol
29
nonselective beta antagonist first generation: select 5
Nadolol , penbutolol , pindolol , propranolol, timolol
30
lisinopril, catapril are examples of what?
ACE I
31
fill in the blank: compared to prazosin, tamsulosin is ________ potent and ________ acting.
less, longer
32
dose of propranolol IV:
1-10mg
33
select adverse effects NOT associated with ACEI: select 5
hypokalemia , hyperglycemia , hyponatremia , PVD exacerbation , bradycardia
34
phenoxybenzamine:
a1 > a2
35
aldosterone causes:
Na and water reabsorption in renal distal tubules
36
another name for angiotensin converting enzyme:
peptidyl dipeptidase
37
Areas of concern for administration of anesthetics to patients treated with antihypertensive drugs: EXCEPT
increased sensitivity to indirect-acting sympathomimetic agents
38
treats intraop hypertensive emergency (pheochrono. manipulation or autonomic hyperreflexia):
phentalomine
39
contraindications of ARB: select 2
renal artery stenosis , pregnancy
40
where do BB competively bind?
postsynaptic receptor
41
effect of beta blockers on renin levels
decrease
42
Timolol:
B1 = B2
43
most dangerous med to give to patient in renal failure:
atenolol
44
reflex tachycardia risk: 2
phenoxybenzamine phentalomine
45
Esmolol E1/2t:
9 min
46
select 3 of the following that will occur with beta antagonism:
decrease in renin , bronchoconstrition , hyperkalemia
47
aldosterone > acts on this location
distal convoluted tubules
48
angiotensin II causes: select 3
squeeze arteries and veins , increase aldosterone , efferent arteriole vasoconstrion
49
90 % first pass
propranolol
50
what is the prototype ACEI:
captopril
51
most protein bound drug:
propranolol
52
metoprolol treats: 5
htn ischemic heart block angina mi a fib
53
select 2 that are specific to esmolol uses:
thyroid storm , htn due to laryngoscopy
54
select 3 that apply to captopril
decreases SVR, onset 15 min, angioedema
55
angiotensin I + ACE > ?
angiotensin II
56
ARBs block vasoconstriction actions of angiotensin II without effecting what activity?
angiotensin converting enzyme
57
associated adverse effect of enalapril:
NSAID antagonizes effects
58
safest med to give to patient in liver failure:
atenolol
59
associated with alpha 2 selective antagonism:
increase of cAMP
60
ACEI cause sodium and water Reabsorbtion ?
false
61
prazosin:
a1>>>>a2
62
propranolol will cause:
decrease in cAMP
63
BP #/# treatment guidelines in adults over 60:
150/90
64
onset is 5-10 min:
labetalol
65
only available IV:
Esmolol
66
hypertensive crisis: select 2
DBP > 120, evidence of end organ failure
67
goal and treatment for hypertensive crisis: select 2
decrease DBP to 100-105 asap, nitroprusside
68
effects aldosterone levels more:
ACEI
69
What Adrenergic antagonist drug bonds covalently?
phenoxybenzamine
70
high levels of _______ are associated with ACEI induced cough:
bradykinin
71
most likely used in opthalamic procedures to decrease IOP: select 1
Timolol
72
labetalol B:A ratio for IV and PO
IV: BA: 7:1 PO: BA: 3:1
73
Angiotension II causes:
increase aldosterone secretion
74
true regarding phentolamine: select 4
competive bond , peripheral vasodilation , a1 = a2, increase CO
75
Hemodynamic responses in anesthetized patients who had been receiving antihypertensive drug treatment:
excessive responses associated with body position changes
76
renin made in the ________ interacts with _________ made by the liver.
kidney angiotensinogen
77
all the following are true of metoprolol except: select 1
most selective beta 1 antagonist
78
more effective in DM pts and can delay progression of renal disease:
ACEI
79
select 3 of the alpha 1 selective antagonist:
tamsulosin , prazosin , terazosin
80
BP guideline for pt with DM or kidney disease regardless of age:
140/90
81
true regarding yohimibine: select 3
alpha 2 selective blocker , treats orthostatic hypotension , treats impotence
82
phentalomine dose, onset, and duration:
30-70 mcg/kg onset 2 min duration 10 min
83
true regarding beta antagonists:
influences inotropy and chronotropy , competitive and reversible , chronic use associated with uppregulation , can provoke bronchospams , vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle
84
should not be taken morning of surgery:
lisinopril
85
where does aldosterone effect on kidney:
distal convoluting tubule
86
60% first pass:
metoprolol
87
NSAID antagonize effect of this drug: specific drug (not class)
captopril
88
metabolized in the liver into a glucuronide conjugate:
labetalol
89
best to blunt short noxious stimuli:
Esmolol
90
hypertensive crisis treatments: select 4
nitroprusside, nitroglycerin , labetalol , fenoldapam
91
where does the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II occur?
lungs
92
propranolol is a:
nonselctive beta antagonist
93
contraindications of beta blockers: 5
1. pre existing AV heart block 2. cardiac failure 3. DM (no monitors) 4. reactive airway disease 5. hypovolemia
94
Angiotension converting enzyme is associated with what G protein:
Gq
95
more likely to have CNS effects:
beta antagonists
96
goal and treatment of hypertensive urgency: select 2
decrease DBP to 100-105 within 24 hours , clonidine
97
ARBS metabolized:
liver
98
electrolyte imbalance due to beta antagonism most notable:
hyperkalemia