問題一覧
1
What Adrenergic antagonist drug bonds covalently?
phenoxybenzamine
2
Adrenergic antagonist oral prodrug:
phenoxybenzamine
3
dose of phentalomine
30-70 mcg/kg
4
least likely adverse effect associated with alpha Adrenergic antagonist:
hyperkalemia
5
treats intraop hypertensive emergency (pheochrono. manipulation or autonomic hyperreflexia):
phentalomine
6
least likely to cause tachycardia:
prazosin
7
treats impotence:
yohimibine
8
alpha antagonist that will decrease afterload in heart failure:
prazosin
9
select 2 of the following that alpha antagonism will cause:
bladder relaxation , nasal congestion
10
fill in the blank: compared to prazosin, tamsulosin is ________ potent and ________ acting.
less, longer
11
select 3 of the alpha 1 selective antagonist:
tamsulosin , prazosin , terazosin
12
associated with alpha 2 selective antagonism:
increase of cAMP
13
most likely associated with alpha 1 selective antagonism:
decrease in IP3 and DAG
14
not generally used preop for pheochromocytoma:
ACEI
15
safest drug to give to a patient with COPD:
metoprolol
16
select 3 of the following that will occur with beta antagonism:
decrease in renin , bronchoconstrition , hyperkalemia
17
all are beta 2 selective antagonist except:
propranolol
18
more associated with PVD symptom exacerbation :
beta antagonist
19
chronic use of beta antagonists should be tapered gradually due to upregulation, if stopped abruptly the patient will risk what adverse effect:
tachycardia
20
beta antagonism causes __________ secretion of insulin.
decrease
21
electrolyte imbalance due to beta antagonism most notable:
hyperkalemia
22
propranolol is a:
nonselctive beta antagonist
23
propranolol will cause:
decrease in cAMP
24
Propranolol:
B1 = B2
25
labetalol:
B1 = B2 > a1
26
combined alpha and beta antagonist:
labetalol
27
most likely used in opthalamic procedures to decrease IOP: select 1
Timolol
28
dose of propranolol IV:
1-10mg
29
most dangerous med to give to patient in renal failure:
atenolol
30
safest med to give to patient in liver failure:
atenolol
31
excreted by plasma esterase:
Esmolol
32
Esmolol dose:
10-80mg
33
metoprolol dose: select 1
1-15 mg
34
all the following are true of metoprolol except: select 1
most selective beta 1 antagonist
35
which would be MOST safest for patient with asthma:
atenolol
36
beta 2 antagonism causes all the following except: select 1
orthostatic hypotension
37
propranolol metabolite:
4-hydroxy propranolol
38
only available IV:
Esmolol
39
best to blunt short noxious stimuli:
Esmolol
40
metabolized in the liver into a glucuronide conjugate:
labetalol
41
select 2 that are specific to esmolol uses:
thyroid storm , htn due to laryngoscopy
42
contraindication for Timolol:
pacemaker
43
Timolol:
B1 = B2
44
which drug should raise concern when using amide local anesthetics:
propranolol
45
most protein bound drug:
propranolol
46
extensive 1st pass effect:
propranolol
47
Timolol eye drops cause:
decrease HR, decrease BP, increase airway resistance
48
performing hypotension technique most commonly uses this drug:
Labetalol
49
labetalol dose: IV
0.1-0.5mg/kg
50
onset is 5-10 min:
labetalol
51
Esmolol E1/2t:
9 min
52
most associated with hyperkalemia:
ACE I
53
Angiotension II causes:
vasoconstriction
54
Angiotension II causes:
increase aldosterone secretion
55
Angiotension converting enzyme is associated with what G protein:
Gq
56
MOA of ACEI involves what:
peptidyl-depeptidase
57
lisinopril, catapril are examples of what?
ACE I
58
ACEI cause sodium and water Reabsorbtion ?
false
59
more likely to have CNS effects:
beta antagonists
60
the following are true regarding ACEI EXCEPT:
poor patient compliance
61
select 4 that apply to side effects of ACEI:
persistent cough , prolonged hypotension , angioedema , loss of taste
62
select 3 that apply to captopril
decreases SVR, onset 15 min, angioedema
63
ACEI contraindications: 2
renal artery stenosis pregnancy
64
should not be taken morning of surgery:
lisinopril
65
ACEI are safe during pregnancy.
false
66
BP #/# treatment guidelines in adults over 60:
150/90
67
BP #/# guidelines for adults younger than 40:
140/90
68
BP guideline for pt with DM or kidney disease regardless of age:
140/90
69
first line therapy for htn:
thiazide diuretic
70
select the 3 compelling indications: (in regards to first line therapy treatment for hypertension):
heart failure , MI, high CVD risk
71
Heart failure treatment of hypertension:
thiazide diuretic, BB, ACEI, ARB, aldosterone antagonist
72
MI treatment with hypertension:
BB, ACEI, aldosterone antagonist
73
high CVD risk with hypertension:
thiazide diuretic, BB, ACEI, CCB
74
hypertensive urgency: select 2
DBP > 120, evidence of progressive end organ damage
75
hypertensive crisis: select 2
DBP > 120, evidence of end organ failure
76
goal and treatment of hypertensive urgency: select 2
decrease DBP to 100-105 within 24 hours , clonidine
77
goal and treatment for hypertensive crisis: select 2
decrease DBP to 100-105 asap, nitroprusside
78
hypertensive crisis treatments: select 4
nitroprusside, nitroglycerin , labetalol , fenoldapam
79
nonselective beta antagonist first generation: select 5
Nadolol , penbutolol , pindolol , propranolol, timolol
80
beta 1 selective antagonists: select 5
acebutolol, atenolol, bisoprolol, esmolol, metoprolol
81
nonselective mixed alpha and beta antagonist: select 4
carteolol, carvedilol, bucindolol, labetalol
82
beta 1 selective antagonist third generation: select 3
betaxolol, caliprolol , nebivolol
83
phentalomine:
a1 = a2
84
prazosin:
a1>>>>a2
85
phenoxybenzamine:
a1 > a2
86
effects of alpha 1 antagonism: select 3
decrease PVR, decrease BP, miosis
87
which drug would cause more tachycardia:
phentalomine
88
medication with half life of 24 hours and risks accumulation with repeated doses:
phenoxybenzamine
89
extravascular dose of phentolamine:
2.5-5.0 mg
90
intraop htn emergency phentalomine dose:
30-70 mcg/kg
91
true regarding prazosin: select 4
less likely to cause tachycardia , dilates both arterioles and veins , used pre-op with patients with pheochromocytoma , a1 >>> a2
92
true regarding phentolamine: select 4
competive bond , peripheral vasodilation , a1 = a2, increase CO
93
true regarding phenoxybenzamine: select 4
onset 1 hour , use caution with repeated doses, a1 > a2, decrease in SVR
94
true regarding yohimibine: select 3
alpha 2 selective blocker , treats orthostatic hypotension , treats impotence
95
true regarding terazosin: select 3
treats BPH, adverse effect: orthostatic hypotension , elimination half time varies
96
true regarding beta antagonists:
influences inotropy and chronotropy , competitive and reversible , chronic use associated with uppregulation , can provoke bronchospams , vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle
97
contraindications of beta blockers: select 5
pre-existing AV heart block , cardiac failure , DM (without monitoring), hypovolemia , reactive airway disease
98
first line therapy for htn, chf, and mitral regurgitation:
ACEI
99
more effective in DM pts and can delay progression of renal disease:
ACEI
100
ACEI MOA:
prevent conversion of angiotensin I to II