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Antagonist
  • Julia Skellie

  • 問題数 178 • 10/12/2023

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    問題一覧

  • 1

    What Adrenergic antagonist drug bonds covalently?

    phenoxybenzamine

  • 2

    Adrenergic antagonist oral prodrug:

    phenoxybenzamine

  • 3

    dose of phentalomine

    30-70 mcg/kg

  • 4

    least likely adverse effect associated with alpha Adrenergic antagonist:

    hyperkalemia

  • 5

    treats intraop hypertensive emergency (pheochrono. manipulation or autonomic hyperreflexia):

    phentalomine

  • 6

    least likely to cause tachycardia:

    prazosin

  • 7

    treats impotence:

    yohimibine

  • 8

    alpha antagonist that will decrease afterload in heart failure:

    prazosin

  • 9

    select 2 of the following that alpha antagonism will cause:

    bladder relaxation , nasal congestion

  • 10

    fill in the blank: compared to prazosin, tamsulosin is ________ potent and ________ acting.

    less, longer

  • 11

    select 3 of the alpha 1 selective antagonist:

    tamsulosin , prazosin , terazosin

  • 12

    associated with alpha 2 selective antagonism:

    increase of cAMP

  • 13

    most likely associated with alpha 1 selective antagonism:

    decrease in IP3 and DAG

  • 14

    not generally used preop for pheochromocytoma:

    ACEI

  • 15

    safest drug to give to a patient with COPD:

    metoprolol

  • 16

    select 3 of the following that will occur with beta antagonism:

    decrease in renin , bronchoconstrition , hyperkalemia

  • 17

    all are beta 2 selective antagonist except:

    propranolol

  • 18

    more associated with PVD symptom exacerbation :

    beta antagonist

  • 19

    chronic use of beta antagonists should be tapered gradually due to upregulation, if stopped abruptly the patient will risk what adverse effect:

    tachycardia

  • 20

    beta antagonism causes __________ secretion of insulin.

    decrease

  • 21

    electrolyte imbalance due to beta antagonism most notable:

    hyperkalemia

  • 22

    propranolol is a:

    nonselctive beta antagonist

  • 23

    propranolol will cause:

    decrease in cAMP

  • 24

    Propranolol:

    B1 = B2

  • 25

    labetalol:

    B1 = B2 > a1

  • 26

    combined alpha and beta antagonist:

    labetalol

  • 27

    most likely used in opthalamic procedures to decrease IOP: select 1

    Timolol

  • 28

    dose of propranolol IV:

    1-10mg

  • 29

    most dangerous med to give to patient in renal failure:

    atenolol

  • 30

    safest med to give to patient in liver failure:

    atenolol

  • 31

    excreted by plasma esterase:

    Esmolol

  • 32

    Esmolol dose:

    10-80mg

  • 33

    metoprolol dose: select 1

    1-15 mg

  • 34

    all the following are true of metoprolol except: select 1

    most selective beta 1 antagonist

  • 35

    which would be MOST safest for patient with asthma:

    atenolol

  • 36

    beta 2 antagonism causes all the following except: select 1

    orthostatic hypotension

  • 37

    propranolol metabolite:

    4-hydroxy propranolol

  • 38

    only available IV:

    Esmolol

  • 39

    best to blunt short noxious stimuli:

    Esmolol

  • 40

    metabolized in the liver into a glucuronide conjugate:

    labetalol

  • 41

    select 2 that are specific to esmolol uses:

    thyroid storm , htn due to laryngoscopy

  • 42

    contraindication for Timolol:

    pacemaker

  • 43

    Timolol:

    B1 = B2

  • 44

    which drug should raise concern when using amide local anesthetics:

    propranolol

  • 45

    most protein bound drug:

    propranolol

  • 46

    extensive 1st pass effect:

    propranolol

  • 47

    Timolol eye drops cause:

    decrease HR, decrease BP, increase airway resistance

  • 48

    performing hypotension technique most commonly uses this drug:

    Labetalol

  • 49

    labetalol dose: IV

    0.1-0.5mg/kg

  • 50

    onset is 5-10 min:

    labetalol

  • 51

    Esmolol E1/2t:

    9 min

  • 52

    most associated with hyperkalemia:

    ACE I

  • 53

    Angiotension II causes:

    vasoconstriction

  • 54

    Angiotension II causes:

    increase aldosterone secretion

  • 55

    Angiotension converting enzyme is associated with what G protein:

    Gq

  • 56

    MOA of ACEI involves what:

    peptidyl-depeptidase

  • 57

    lisinopril, catapril are examples of what?

    ACE I

  • 58

    ACEI cause sodium and water Reabsorbtion ?

    false

  • 59

    more likely to have CNS effects:

    beta antagonists

  • 60

    the following are true regarding ACEI EXCEPT:

    poor patient compliance

  • 61

    select 4 that apply to side effects of ACEI:

    persistent cough , prolonged hypotension , angioedema , loss of taste

  • 62

    select 3 that apply to captopril

    decreases SVR, onset 15 min, angioedema

  • 63

    ACEI contraindications: 2

    renal artery stenosis pregnancy

  • 64

    should not be taken morning of surgery:

    lisinopril

  • 65

    ACEI are safe during pregnancy.

    false

  • 66

    BP #/# treatment guidelines in adults over 60:

    150/90

  • 67

    BP #/# guidelines for adults younger than 40:

    140/90

  • 68

    BP guideline for pt with DM or kidney disease regardless of age:

    140/90

  • 69

    first line therapy for htn:

    thiazide diuretic

  • 70

    select the 3 compelling indications: (in regards to first line therapy treatment for hypertension):

    heart failure , MI, high CVD risk

  • 71

    Heart failure treatment of hypertension:

    thiazide diuretic, BB, ACEI, ARB, aldosterone antagonist

  • 72

    MI treatment with hypertension:

    BB, ACEI, aldosterone antagonist

  • 73

    high CVD risk with hypertension:

    thiazide diuretic, BB, ACEI, CCB

  • 74

    hypertensive urgency: select 2

    DBP > 120, evidence of progressive end organ damage

  • 75

    hypertensive crisis: select 2

    DBP > 120, evidence of end organ failure

  • 76

    goal and treatment of hypertensive urgency: select 2

    decrease DBP to 100-105 within 24 hours , clonidine

  • 77

    goal and treatment for hypertensive crisis: select 2

    decrease DBP to 100-105 asap, nitroprusside

  • 78

    hypertensive crisis treatments: select 4

    nitroprusside, nitroglycerin , labetalol , fenoldapam

  • 79

    nonselective beta antagonist first generation: select 5

    Nadolol , penbutolol , pindolol , propranolol, timolol

  • 80

    beta 1 selective antagonists: select 5

    acebutolol, atenolol, bisoprolol, esmolol, metoprolol

  • 81

    nonselective mixed alpha and beta antagonist: select 4

    carteolol, carvedilol, bucindolol, labetalol

  • 82

    beta 1 selective antagonist third generation: select 3

    betaxolol, caliprolol , nebivolol

  • 83

    phentalomine:

    a1 = a2

  • 84

    prazosin:

    a1>>>>a2

  • 85

    phenoxybenzamine:

    a1 > a2

  • 86

    effects of alpha 1 antagonism: select 3

    decrease PVR, decrease BP, miosis

  • 87

    which drug would cause more tachycardia:

    phentalomine

  • 88

    medication with half life of 24 hours and risks accumulation with repeated doses:

    phenoxybenzamine

  • 89

    extravascular dose of phentolamine:

    2.5-5.0 mg

  • 90

    intraop htn emergency phentalomine dose:

    30-70 mcg/kg

  • 91

    true regarding prazosin: select 4

    less likely to cause tachycardia , dilates both arterioles and veins , used pre-op with patients with pheochromocytoma , a1 >>> a2

  • 92

    true regarding phentolamine: select 4

    competive bond , peripheral vasodilation , a1 = a2, increase CO

  • 93

    true regarding phenoxybenzamine: select 4

    onset 1 hour , use caution with repeated doses, a1 > a2, decrease in SVR

  • 94

    true regarding yohimibine: select 3

    alpha 2 selective blocker , treats orthostatic hypotension , treats impotence

  • 95

    true regarding terazosin: select 3

    treats BPH, adverse effect: orthostatic hypotension , elimination half time varies

  • 96

    true regarding beta antagonists:

    influences inotropy and chronotropy , competitive and reversible , chronic use associated with uppregulation , can provoke bronchospams , vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle

  • 97

    contraindications of beta blockers: select 5

    pre-existing AV heart block , cardiac failure , DM (without monitoring), hypovolemia , reactive airway disease

  • 98

    first line therapy for htn, chf, and mitral regurgitation:

    ACEI

  • 99

    more effective in DM pts and can delay progression of renal disease:

    ACEI

  • 100

    ACEI MOA:

    prevent conversion of angiotensin I to II