Antagonist

178問 • 2023-10-12

Julia Skellie

通報

Monitors

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Monitors

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Positioning

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Positioning

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arterial vasodilators, peripheral vasodilators, CCB

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arterial vasodilators, peripheral vasodilators, CCB

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AntiArrhythmics

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AntiArrhythmics

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just dont forget:

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just dont forget:

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Rspiratory

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Rspiratory

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Monitored and Conscious Sedation

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Monitored and Conscious Sedation

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Emergence

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Emergence

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PACU

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PACU

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Random

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Random

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pharm exam 3

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pharm exam 3

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Pharm Induction Agents

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Pharm Induction Agents

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Laparoscopic Surgery

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Laparoscopic Surgery

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Hematology Coagulation

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Hematology Coagulation

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LIVER

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LIVER

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ENT

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ENT

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Opioids

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Opioids

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32問 • 2年前

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NeuroSurg

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NeuroSurg

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Burns

Julia Skellie · 89問 · 2年前

Burns

89問 • 2年前

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Regional

Julia Skellie · 11問 · 2年前

Regional

11問 • 2年前

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問題一覧

What Adrenergic antagonist drug bonds covalently?

phenoxybenzamine

Adrenergic antagonist oral prodrug:

phenoxybenzamine

dose of phentalomine

30-70 mcg/kg

least likely adverse effect associated with alpha Adrenergic antagonist:

hyperkalemia

treats intraop hypertensive emergency (pheochrono. manipulation or autonomic hyperreflexia):

phentalomine

least likely to cause tachycardia:

prazosin

treats impotence:

yohimibine

alpha antagonist that will decrease afterload in heart failure:

prazosin

select 2 of the following that alpha antagonism will cause:

bladder relaxation, nasal congestion

fill in the blank: compared to prazosin, tamsulosin is ________ potent and ________ acting.

less, longer

select 3 of the alpha 1 selective antagonist:

tamsulosin, prazosin, terazosin

associated with alpha 2 selective antagonism:

increase of cAMP

most likely associated with alpha 1 selective antagonism:

decrease in IP3 and DAG

not generally used preop for pheochromocytoma:

ACEI

safest drug to give to a patient with COPD:

metoprolol

select 3 of the following that will occur with beta antagonism:

decrease in renin, bronchoconstrition, hyperkalemia

all are beta 2 selective antagonist except:

propranolol

more associated with PVD symptom exacerbation :

beta antagonist

chronic use of beta antagonists should be tapered gradually due to upregulation, if stopped abruptly the patient will risk what adverse effect:

tachycardia

beta antagonism causes __________ secretion of insulin.

decrease

electrolyte imbalance due to beta antagonism most notable:

hyperkalemia

propranolol is a:

nonselctive beta antagonist

propranolol will cause:

decrease in cAMP

Propranolol:

B1 = B2

labetalol:

B1 = B2 > a1

combined alpha and beta antagonist:

labetalol

most likely used in opthalamic procedures to decrease IOP: select 1

Timolol

dose of propranolol IV:

1-10mg

most dangerous med to give to patient in renal failure:

atenolol

safest med to give to patient in liver failure:

atenolol

excreted by plasma esterase:

Esmolol

Esmolol dose:

10-80mg

metoprolol dose: select 1

1-15 mg

all the following are true of metoprolol except: select 1

most selective beta 1 antagonist

which would be MOST safest for patient with asthma:

atenolol

beta 2 antagonism causes all the following except: select 1

orthostatic hypotension

propranolol metabolite:

4-hydroxy propranolol

only available IV:

Esmolol

best to blunt short noxious stimuli:

Esmolol

metabolized in the liver into a glucuronide conjugate:

labetalol

select 2 that are specific to esmolol uses:

thyroid storm, htn due to laryngoscopy

contraindication for Timolol:

pacemaker

Timolol:

B1 = B2

which drug should raise concern when using amide local anesthetics:

propranolol

most protein bound drug:

propranolol

extensive 1st pass effect:

propranolol

Timolol eye drops cause:

decrease HR, decrease BP, increase airway resistance

performing hypotension technique most commonly uses this drug:

Labetalol

labetalol dose: IV

0.1-0.5mg/kg

onset is 5-10 min:

labetalol

Esmolol E1/2t:

9 min

most associated with hyperkalemia:

ACE I

Angiotension II causes:

vasoconstriction

Angiotension II causes:

increase aldosterone secretion

Angiotension converting enzyme is associated with what G protein:

MOA of ACEI involves what:

peptidyl-depeptidase

lisinopril, catapril are examples of what?

ACE I

ACEI cause sodium and water Reabsorbtion ?

false

more likely to have CNS effects:

beta antagonists

the following are true regarding ACEI EXCEPT:

poor patient compliance

select 4 that apply to side effects of ACEI:

persistent cough, prolonged hypotension, angioedema, loss of taste

select 3 that apply to captopril

decreases SVR, onset 15 min, angioedema

ACEI contraindications: 2

renal artery stenosis pregnancy

should not be taken morning of surgery:

lisinopril

ACEI are safe during pregnancy.

false

BP #/# treatment guidelines in adults over 60:

150/90

BP #/# guidelines for adults younger than 40:

140/90

BP guideline for pt with DM or kidney disease regardless of age:

140/90

first line therapy for htn:

thiazide diuretic

select the 3 compelling indications: (in regards to first line therapy treatment for hypertension):

heart failure, MI, high CVD risk

Heart failure treatment of hypertension:

thiazide diuretic, BB, ACEI, ARB, aldosterone antagonist

MI treatment with hypertension:

BB, ACEI, aldosterone antagonist

high CVD risk with hypertension:

thiazide diuretic, BB, ACEI, CCB

hypertensive urgency: select 2

DBP > 120, evidence of progressive end organ damage

hypertensive crisis: select 2

DBP > 120, evidence of end organ failure

goal and treatment of hypertensive urgency: select 2

decrease DBP to 100-105 within 24 hours, clonidine

goal and treatment for hypertensive crisis: select 2

decrease DBP to 100-105 asap, nitroprusside

hypertensive crisis treatments: select 4

nitroprusside, nitroglycerin, labetalol, fenoldapam

nonselective beta antagonist first generation: select 5

Nadolol, penbutolol, pindolol, propranolol, timolol

beta 1 selective antagonists: select 5

acebutolol, atenolol, bisoprolol, esmolol, metoprolol

nonselective mixed alpha and beta antagonist: select 4

carteolol, carvedilol, bucindolol, labetalol

beta 1 selective antagonist third generation: select 3

betaxolol, caliprolol, nebivolol

phentalomine:

a1 = a2

prazosin:

a1>>>>a2

phenoxybenzamine:

a1 > a2

effects of alpha 1 antagonism: select 3

decrease PVR, decrease BP, miosis

which drug would cause more tachycardia:

phentalomine

medication with half life of 24 hours and risks accumulation with repeated doses:

phenoxybenzamine

extravascular dose of phentolamine:

2.5-5.0 mg

intraop htn emergency phentalomine dose:

30-70 mcg/kg

true regarding prazosin: select 4

less likely to cause tachycardia, dilates both arterioles and veins, used pre-op with patients with pheochromocytoma, a1 >>> a2

true regarding phentolamine: select 4

competive bond, peripheral vasodilation, a1 = a2, increase CO

true regarding phenoxybenzamine: select 4

onset 1 hour, use caution with repeated doses, a1 > a2, decrease in SVR

true regarding yohimibine: select 3

alpha 2 selective blocker, treats orthostatic hypotension, treats impotence

true regarding terazosin: select 3

treats BPH, adverse effect: orthostatic hypotension, elimination half time varies

true regarding beta antagonists:

influences inotropy and chronotropy, competitive and reversible, chronic use associated with uppregulation, can provoke bronchospams, vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle

contraindications of beta blockers: select 5

pre-existing AV heart block, cardiac failure, DM (without monitoring), hypovolemia, reactive airway disease

first line therapy for htn, chf, and mitral regurgitation:

ACEI

more effective in DM pts and can delay progression of renal disease:

ACEI

100

ACEI MOA:

prevent conversion of angiotensin I to II