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Hemo test 2
  • Princess Henry

  • 問題数 66 • 11/16/2023

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    問題一覧

  • 1

    Transfusion medicine is defined as:

    The procedures involved in collecting, storing, processing, and distributing blood and dispensing blood components to patients.

  • 2

    Immunohematology is defined as:

    The techniques and procedures involving the study of the immunologic responses of blood (RBCs)

  • 3

    All the following are benefits and reasons for blood transfusion except:

    Replace antibiotics in treatment of granulocytic patients with infections.

  • 4

    Fresh frozen plasma is characterized by all the following statement except:

    A source of all coagulation factors

  • 5

    Packed red blood cells are characterized by all the following except:

    Can be used exclusively in cases of massive bleeding without any other fluids.

  • 6

    Platelet concentrates are characterized by all the following except:

    Never need to be crossmatched

  • 7

    Which of the following tests is required in the screening of potential blood donors for transfusion-transmitted disease?

    All the above

  • 8

    8) Autologous donation is characterized as:

    All the above

  • 9

    17) Other blood group systems include.

    All the following

  • 10

    18) The indirect antiglobulin test is performed:

    On serum suspected of containing antibodies

  • 11

    19) The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is performed:

    On RBCs suspected of being coated with antibody

  • 12

    20) When blood is to be transfused to a patient, the most important question is:

    Does the patient’s serum contain an antibody against the donor’s RBCs?

  • 13

    22) Crossmatching of the donor’s RBCs with the patient’s serum could demonstrate:

    Major incompatibility between patient and donor

  • 14

    23) Testing of the patient’s serum with a panel of group O cells for unexpected antibodies can demonstrate:

    Patient antibodies to various no self-antigens

  • 15

    23) Compatibility testing can help to detect:

    All the above

  • 16

    Which of the following are generally characterized as a transfusion reaction?

    All the above

  • 17

    Crossmatching of the donor’s RBCs with the patient serum.

    True

  • 18

    Crossmatching of the patient’s RBCs with the donor serum

    False

  • 19

    Factor VIII

    Treatment of severe von Willebrand’s disease.

  • 20

    Crystalloid solutions or plasma substitutes

    Restore or maintain blood volume.

  • 21

    Fresh frozen plasma

    Source of labile clotting factors

  • 22

    Packed red blood cells

    Restore or maintain oxygen-carrying capacity

  • 23

    Platelet concentrates

    Bleeding caused by low or dysfunctional platelets

  • 24

    Whole blood

    Rarely, if ever, used in transfusion

  • 25

    how often is ABO incompatibility seen ?

    1 out of 5 pregnancies; most often mild or subclinical

  • 26

    Pathogenesis

    Fetomaternal Hemorrhage--> Maternal antibodies formed against paternally derived antigens--> During subsequent pregnancy, placental passage of Maternal IgG antibodies--> maternal antibody attaches to fetal RBC--> fetal RBC hemolysis

  • 27

    what subclass of IgG cause greater red cell destruction ?

    IgG1 and IgG3

  • 28

    What is the most important diagnostic procedure to assess the severity of HDN in utero?

    amniocentesis; the decision to perform is based on maternal AB titter and obstetric history and ultrasound examination

  • 29

    when is intrauterine transfusion used

    - severe anemia when the infant is under 29 weeks gestation, or immature for gestational age and should not be delivered. - accomplished indirectly by infusing packed cells throughout the abdominal wall into the peritoneum( lining of the abdominal cavity)

  • 30

    ultra sound examination can detect symptoms of what diseases

    subcutaneous edema, pericardial effusion, or fetal ascites

  • 31

    Exhange transfusion

    removes bilirubin and maternal anitbodies in additon to replacing antibody coated RBC with compatible donor cells

  • 32

    phototherapy

    exposure to UV light, decomposes bilirubin into non-toxic substances. used to treat low levels of bilirubin in conditions such as ABO-HDN or normal neonatal jaundice

  • 33

    what is the most important serologic test in diagnosis of HDN after childbirth

    Direct antibody test - positivity: indicates that antibody is coating infants RBC's in vivo( in living organisms) - equate may be performed to identify AB

  • 34

    The number of adsorptions performed to remove the suspected autoantibody is dependent on the strength of its reactivity....

    True

  • 35

    Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria AIHA was not associated with syphilis but more recently is seen secondary to viral

    False

  • 36

    A patient had a transfusion reaction. The technologist began the laboratory investigation of the transfusion reaction by assembling pre and post-transfusion specimens and paperwork along with computer printout. He checked the patient's records and talked with the nurse in charge of the patient. What should he do first?

    Check for clerical error

  • 37

    A patient has a haemolytic reaction to blood transfusion 8 days age. What is the most likely cause?

    Delaved immunologic; probably due to an antibody such as anti-JKª.

  • 38

    When hematuria is observed in a recently transfused patient what is the possible Implication?

    Hematuria is indicative of a severe haemolytic reaction

  • 39

    A patient with severe anemia became cyanotic and develop tachycardia, hypertension and difficulty breathing after receiving 3 units of blood. No fever or other symptoms were evident. This is most likely what type of reaction?

    Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)

  • 40

    Autoantibodies are all of the following except:

    Non immune and naturally occurring

  • 41

    Evidence of Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia include:

    Continuous elevation of unconjugated bilirubin levels.

  • 42

    A trauma patient had a severe hemolytic reaction just minutes after receiving a blood transfusion. What is the most likely cause?

    Immediate, immunologic; probably due to clerical error, ABO incompatibility.

  • 43

    All of the following are reasons for performing an adsorption except

    Identification of antibodies causing a positive DAT

  • 44

    What is needed for detection of some drug-induced antibodies?

    Drug-coated cells

  • 45

    After receiving a unit of packed red cells the patient immediately experience flushing, nervousness and a fever spike 102 degrees, shaking, chills and back pain. the plasma hemoglobin was elevated and there was hemoglobinuria. Laboratory investigation of the adverse reaction would likely show:

    an error in ABO grouping

  • 46

    A patient has become refractory to platelet transfusion. which of the following are the probable cause?

    Development of antibodies to HLA antigens

  • 47

    A poor increment in platelet count 1 hour following platelet transfusion is most commonly caused by?

    Alloimmunization to HLA antigens

  • 48

    Symptoms of dyspnea, coughing, hypoxemia and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction?

    TRALI

  • 49

    A 65 year old woman experience fever 102 degrees, chills and shaking approximately 40 minutes after receiving a second unit of packed red cells. The most likely explanation for the patients condition is?

    Transfusion of bacterially contaminated blood

  • 50

    Which of the following transfusion reaction is characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC and renal failure?

    Bacterial Contamination

  • 51

    When evaluating a suspected transfusion reaction, which is the ideal sample collection time for bilirubin determination.

    6 hours post transfusion

  • 52

    During initial investigation of a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction, it was observed that the post transfusion serum sample was yellow in color and the direct antiglobulin test was negative. repeated ABO typing on the post transfusion sample confirmed the pretransfusion results. What is the next step you should take in this investigation?

    No further serological test is necessary

  • 53

    Which of the following antibodies is classified as "biphasic" and an autoantibody?

    Anti-P

  • 54

    A patient receiving ceftriaxone develops haemolytic anaemia. The DAT is positive (IgG + C3). The patient's serum reacts with all test RBC's (no drug added) by the indirect Antiglobulin test, but an eluate prepared from the patient's BC is non-reactive. Which is the most likely explanation for these results?

    Elution

  • 55

    A warn non-specific autoantibody was causing a positive DAT. How can these antibodies can be removed from red cells?

    ZZAP

  • 56

    A patient had a transfusion reaction. His red cells revealed a positive DAT; however, his antibody screen was negative. what procedure would remove the antibody from his red cells to allow for the identification of the probable cause of the transfusion reaction?

    EElution

  • 57

    Post transfusion Purpura is usually caused by white cell antibodies.

    False

  • 58

    Sever intravascular hemolysis is primarily caused by antibodies to the Rh system?

    False

  • 59

    Hives and itching are symptoms of which transfusion reaction.

    Allergic

  • 60

    Clinical findings include renal failure occurs in about 50% of the patients suffering from Drug Induced Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia.

    True

  • 61

    Fresh Frozen Plasma from a group A, Rh-positive donor may be safely transfused to a patient who is group.

    A, Rh-negative

  • 62

    Alternatives to allogenic and autologous blood transfusions include the following ___________ and ________.

    ESA and PAD

  • 63

    To Prevent recurrent or severe allergic reactions, IgA deficient patients is best transfused with

    Washed RBCs