clinical microscopy

100問 • 1年前

問題一覧

1.A urine specimen collected on an apparently healthy 25yo man shortly after he finished eating lunch was cloudy but showed normal results on a multiple rgt test strip analysis.The most likely cause of turbidity is:

phosphates

2.A phosphatidylglycerol immunochemical slide test shows no visible agglutination for an amniotic fluid collected at 30wks gestation. This should be reported as:

invalid

3. A sperm count is diluted 1:20 and 50 sperm are counted in 2 secondary squares pf the Neubauer counting chamber. The sperm count is:

5,000,000/mL

4. The reason for performing a Clinitest on a newborn's urine is to check for:

galactose

5. The TAU isoform of transferrin is a carbohydrate deficient protein found only in:

CSF

6. Using polarized light microscopy, which of the following urinary elements are birefringent?

cholesterol

7. The finding of hemosiderin laden macrophages in a CSF sample indicates:

previous hemorrhage

8. A deficiency in arginine vasopressin (ADH) is asso with a:

low urine SG

9. Oval fat bodies are:

RTE cells that contain lipids

10. The normal GFR is:

120 mL/min

11. Increased CSF lactate is found in:

bacterial meningitis

12. Urine from a 50yo man was noted to turn dark red on standing. This change is caused by the presence of:

porphyrins

13. Urine Reagent strips should be stored in a(n):

cool dry area

14. Laboratory characteristics of malabsorption syndrome due to pancreatic insufficiency include:

inc fecal fat

15. An alcoholic or pale/clay-colored stool is:

a posthepatic biliary obstruction

16. The presence of rice bodies in a synovial fluid is strongly associated with:

rheumatoid arthritis

17. Creatinine clearance is reported in:

mL/min

18. A test pad of a urine rgt strip is impregnated with only sodium nitroprusside. This pad will react with:

acetoacetic acid

19. A urine specimen with an elevated urobilinogen and a negative bilirubin may indicate:

hemolytic jaundice

20. An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients who:

has an infection with Proteus spp

21. Which of the following results would be considered abnormal for seminal fluid?

liquefaction time >60 mins

22. A vaginal swab is received in the lab for testing & immediately placed in sterile physiological saline to prepare a suspension. A wet mount is prepared & the laboratorian reports presence of numerous clue cells. This most likely indicates the patient has:

Bacterial vaginosis

23. The presence of which of the following may result in a CSF specimen with an oily appearance?

radiographic contrast media

24. The pH of a urine specimen measures the:

free hydrogen ions

25. The most accurate test to determine renal concentration is:

osmolarity

26. Spherical Transitional Epithelial cells may be confused with:

RTE cells

27. A xanthochromic CSF specimen is centrifuged resulting in a pink-colored supernatant. This indicates the presence of:

Oxyhemoglobin

28. False-positive results can occur for fecal occult blood due to the ingestion of:

horseradish

29. Which of the ff casts is most indicative of end-stage renal disease?

waxy

30. Isosthenuria is associated with a specific gravity which is usually:

fixed around 1.010

31. A urine spx is analyzed for glucose by a glucose oxidase rgt test strip & a copper reduction test. If both results are (+), which of the ff interpretations is correct?

glucose is present

32. Cessation of urine flow is defined as:

anuria

33. An L/S ratio of 2.4 on amniotic fluid collected at 34 weeks' gestation indicates:

fetal lung maturity

34 A urine spx is tested and has the following results: Reagent strip Microscopic findings glucose = 3+ WBCs = >100 / hpf protein = 1+ yeast = many This is indicative of:

diabetes mellitus

35. The most common genetic defect associated with cystic fibrosis is called:

CFTR delta-F508

36.W/c of the ff substances may interfere with the rgt strip pad for leukocyte esterase & yield a false(-) result?

protein >500 mg/dL

37. Tiny colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals were found in an alkaline urine sediment.They are:

calcium carbonate

38. Which of the following can give a false-negative urine protein reading?

very dilute urine

39. A paired fasting plasma specimen was collected at the same time an arthrocentesis was performed. The difference in glucose concentrations between the 2 fluids was reported as 55 mg/dL. This result indicates a(an):

septic condition

40. To prepare the reagent used in confirmatory protein testing, a laboratorian would:

dissolve 3g SSA in 100mL of water

41. Refractive index is a comparison of:

light velocity in air to light velocity in solutions

42. An ↑ IgG index on a CSF specimen indicates:

synthesis of IgG in the CNS

43. Cholesterol crystals will most likely be observed in urine that contains:

4+ protein

44. After warming, a cloudy urine clears. This is due to the presence of:

urates

45. Rapid forward progression of sperm is rated as:

4.0

46. All cast are typically composed of:

uromodulin

47. Polyuria is usually correlated with

diabetes mellitus

48. When using the SSA test, false-positive proteins results may occur in the presence of:

radiographic contrast media

49.Milky urine from a 24yo woman likely contains

many WBC

50. Which marker can be used to identify if a body fluid contains semen?

Acid phosphatase

51. A 50yo man is evaluated for back pain. Urine studies include: Specific gravity= 1.017 blood = negative pH = 6.5 Microscopic findings: Protein = negative Epithelial cells = rare glucose = negative Urine protein electrophoresis: - monoclonal spike in gamma globulin region Which of the ff statements best explains these results?

urine protein is falsely(-) because the method is not sensitive for Bence Jones protein

52. Decrease CSF protein can be found in:

CSF leakage

53. A sweat chloride >60 mEq/L(60mmol/L) is indicative of:

cystic fibrosis

54. When identifying urinary crystals, which reagent test strip result is most important?

55. pH determinations are clinically relevant for which of the following?

pleural fluid

56. A (+) result for bilirubin on a rgt test strip should be followed up by:

performing an ictotest

57. The urine microscopic constituents that best differentiate between cystitis and pyelonephritis are:

WBC casts

58. Amniotic fluid may be tested for the concentration of lamellar bodies. This test is performed to determine:

fetal lung maturity

59. A urine's SG is directly proportional to its:

dissolved solids

60. The method of choice for performing a SG measurement of urine ff admin. of xray contrast dye is:

reagent test strip

61. When using a refractometer to measure urine concentration, the laboratorian must correct for which of the following in their calculations?

glucose

62. Polarized light can often be used to diff between:

uric acid and cystine crystals

63. In synovial fluid, the most characteristic finding in pseudogout is:

calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals

64. Ghost red blood cells are see in urine that is:

alkaline & dilute

65. Ascites is collected by:

paracentesis

66. The area of the nephron that is impermeable to water is the:

ascending LoH

67. Pilocarpine iontophoresis refers to the specific process of: (2 answers)

inducing sweat & measuring ions in sweat

68. A px with uncontrolled DM will most likely have:

pale urine w/ a ↑ SG

69. Peritoneal lavage is used to:

detect intra-abdominal bleeding in blunt injury

70. Urine osmolality is related to:

specific gravity

71. Epithelial cell casts are most indicative of:

tubular necrosis

72. Which stain is used to measure sperm viability?

eosin nigrosin

73. A positive amine or "whiff" test on a vaginal secretion most likely indicates:

proliferation of G. vaginalis

74. The presence of oligoclonal bands in CSF but no in serum is associated with:

multiple sclerosis

75. The chromogen for fecal occult blood test is:

gum guaiac

76. Normal CSF contains all of the ff proteins except:

fibrinogen

77. Which of the following casts most frequently appears to have a brittle consistency?

waxy

78. The primary component of most urinary CALculi is:

calcium

79. Clue cells are a form of:

squamous epithelial cell

80. The principal mucin in synovial fluid is:

hyaluronate

81. Bacteria are considered significant in the urine sediment when the:

leukocytes are present

82. Pleural fluid from a patient with congestive heart failure would be expected to:

clear & pale yellow

83.The results were obtained on urine spx @ 8:00am: pH=5.5 ketones=3+ nitrite(+) protein=2+ blood(-) glucose=3+ bilirubin(+) If this urine spx was stored uncapped at 5.C w/o preservation & retested at 2:00 pm,w/c of the ff test results would be changed due to storage conditions?

ketones

84. A 2yo child had a positive urine ketone. This would most likely be caused by:

vomiting

85. W/c of the ff crystals appear as fine silky needles?

tyrosine

86.The principle of rgt strip test for microalbuminuria:

an immunochemical rxn

87. Which of the following urine results is most likely to be affected by prolonged exposure to light?

bilirubin

88. Which of the following is the best indicator of Reye syndrome for CSF?

glutamine

89. Which of the following would be affected by allowing a urine specimen to remain at room temperature for 3hours before analysis?

90. A white precipitate in a urine specimen with a pH of 7.5 would most probably be caused by:

amorphous phosphates

91. The normal concentration of proteins in CSF, relative to serum protein is

<1mg/dL

92. Acid urine that contains hemoglobin will darken on standing due to the formation of:

methemoglobin

93. Evaluation of sperm morphology is performed by staining an air-dried smear with Wright, Giemsa or Papanicolaou stain and evaluating 200 sperm using:

oil immersion & 100x obj

94. The presence of leukocytes in urine is known as:

pyuria

95. What calculation is used to determine if there is a breach in the blood-brain barrier?

CSF/serum albumin index

96. The normal renal threshold for glucose in the adult is approximately:

160mg/dL (8.8mmol/L)

97. A patient with renal tubular acidosis would most likely excrete a urine with a:

high pH

98. A build up of fluid in a body cavity is called:

effusion

99. Osmolality is a measure of:

dissolve particles, including ions

100

100. Qualitative methods used as screening test for cystic fibrosis include:

sweat conductivity

clinical chemistry

ユーザ名非公開 · 100問 · 1年前

clinical chemistry

100問 • 1年前

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immunology & serology

ユーザ名非公開 · 99問 · 1年前

immunology & serology

hematology

hematology

Bloodbank 1

Bloodbank 1

microbiology

microbiology

molecular biology

molecular biology

ASCPi SIMULATED EXAM1

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ASCPi SIMULATED EXAM1

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ASCPi STIMULATED EXAM 2

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ASCPi STIMULATED EXAM 2

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ASCPi Diagnostic Exam

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ASCPi Diagnostic Exam

FINAL COACHING 1

FINAL COACHING 1

FINAL COACHING ASCPI 2

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FINAL COACHING ASCPI 2

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ASCPi FINAL COACHING 3

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ASCPi FINAL COACHING 3

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cerebro students recalls

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cerebro students recalls

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cerebro students recalls 2

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cerebro students recalls 2

100問 • 11ヶ月前

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問題一覧

phosphates

2.A phosphatidylglycerol immunochemical slide test shows no visible agglutination for an amniotic fluid collected at 30wks gestation. This should be reported as:

invalid

3. A sperm count is diluted 1:20 and 50 sperm are counted in 2 secondary squares pf the Neubauer counting chamber. The sperm count is:

5,000,000/mL

4. The reason for performing a Clinitest on a newborn's urine is to check for:

galactose

5. The TAU isoform of transferrin is a carbohydrate deficient protein found only in:

CSF

6. Using polarized light microscopy, which of the following urinary elements are birefringent?

cholesterol

7. The finding of hemosiderin laden macrophages in a CSF sample indicates:

previous hemorrhage

8. A deficiency in arginine vasopressin (ADH) is asso with a:

low urine SG

9. Oval fat bodies are:

RTE cells that contain lipids

10. The normal GFR is:

120 mL/min

11. Increased CSF lactate is found in:

bacterial meningitis

12. Urine from a 50yo man was noted to turn dark red on standing. This change is caused by the presence of:

porphyrins

13. Urine Reagent strips should be stored in a(n):

cool dry area

14. Laboratory characteristics of malabsorption syndrome due to pancreatic insufficiency include:

inc fecal fat

15. An alcoholic or pale/clay-colored stool is:

a posthepatic biliary obstruction

16. The presence of rice bodies in a synovial fluid is strongly associated with:

rheumatoid arthritis

17. Creatinine clearance is reported in:

mL/min

18. A test pad of a urine rgt strip is impregnated with only sodium nitroprusside. This pad will react with:

acetoacetic acid

19. A urine specimen with an elevated urobilinogen and a negative bilirubin may indicate:

hemolytic jaundice

20. An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients who:

has an infection with Proteus spp

21. Which of the following results would be considered abnormal for seminal fluid?

liquefaction time >60 mins

Bacterial vaginosis

23. The presence of which of the following may result in a CSF specimen with an oily appearance?

radiographic contrast media

24. The pH of a urine specimen measures the:

free hydrogen ions

25. The most accurate test to determine renal concentration is:

osmolarity

26. Spherical Transitional Epithelial cells may be confused with:

RTE cells

27. A xanthochromic CSF specimen is centrifuged resulting in a pink-colored supernatant. This indicates the presence of:

Oxyhemoglobin

28. False-positive results can occur for fecal occult blood due to the ingestion of:

horseradish

29. Which of the ff casts is most indicative of end-stage renal disease?

waxy

30. Isosthenuria is associated with a specific gravity which is usually:

fixed around 1.010

31. A urine spx is analyzed for glucose by a glucose oxidase rgt test strip & a copper reduction test. If both results are (+), which of the ff interpretations is correct?

glucose is present

32. Cessation of urine flow is defined as:

anuria

33. An L/S ratio of 2.4 on amniotic fluid collected at 34 weeks' gestation indicates:

fetal lung maturity

34 A urine spx is tested and has the following results: Reagent strip Microscopic findings glucose = 3+ WBCs = >100 / hpf protein = 1+ yeast = many This is indicative of:

diabetes mellitus

35. The most common genetic defect associated with cystic fibrosis is called:

CFTR delta-F508

36.W/c of the ff substances may interfere with the rgt strip pad for leukocyte esterase & yield a false(-) result?

protein >500 mg/dL

37. Tiny colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals were found in an alkaline urine sediment.They are:

calcium carbonate

38. Which of the following can give a false-negative urine protein reading?

very dilute urine

septic condition

40. To prepare the reagent used in confirmatory protein testing, a laboratorian would:

dissolve 3g SSA in 100mL of water

41. Refractive index is a comparison of:

light velocity in air to light velocity in solutions

42. An ↑ IgG index on a CSF specimen indicates:

synthesis of IgG in the CNS

43. Cholesterol crystals will most likely be observed in urine that contains:

4+ protein

44. After warming, a cloudy urine clears. This is due to the presence of:

urates

45. Rapid forward progression of sperm is rated as:

4.0

46. All cast are typically composed of:

uromodulin

47. Polyuria is usually correlated with

diabetes mellitus

48. When using the SSA test, false-positive proteins results may occur in the presence of:

radiographic contrast media

49.Milky urine from a 24yo woman likely contains

many WBC

50. Which marker can be used to identify if a body fluid contains semen?

Acid phosphatase

urine protein is falsely(-) because the method is not sensitive for Bence Jones protein

52. Decrease CSF protein can be found in:

CSF leakage

53. A sweat chloride >60 mEq/L(60mmol/L) is indicative of:

cystic fibrosis

54. When identifying urinary crystals, which reagent test strip result is most important?

55. pH determinations are clinically relevant for which of the following?

pleural fluid

56. A (+) result for bilirubin on a rgt test strip should be followed up by:

performing an ictotest

57. The urine microscopic constituents that best differentiate between cystitis and pyelonephritis are:

WBC casts

58. Amniotic fluid may be tested for the concentration of lamellar bodies. This test is performed to determine:

fetal lung maturity

59. A urine's SG is directly proportional to its:

dissolved solids

60. The method of choice for performing a SG measurement of urine ff admin. of xray contrast dye is:

reagent test strip

61. When using a refractometer to measure urine concentration, the laboratorian must correct for which of the following in their calculations?

glucose

62. Polarized light can often be used to diff between:

uric acid and cystine crystals

63. In synovial fluid, the most characteristic finding in pseudogout is:

calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals

64. Ghost red blood cells are see in urine that is:

alkaline & dilute

65. Ascites is collected by:

paracentesis

66. The area of the nephron that is impermeable to water is the:

ascending LoH

67. Pilocarpine iontophoresis refers to the specific process of: (2 answers)

inducing sweat & measuring ions in sweat

68. A px with uncontrolled DM will most likely have:

pale urine w/ a ↑ SG

69. Peritoneal lavage is used to:

detect intra-abdominal bleeding in blunt injury

70. Urine osmolality is related to:

specific gravity

71. Epithelial cell casts are most indicative of:

tubular necrosis

72. Which stain is used to measure sperm viability?

eosin nigrosin

73. A positive amine or "whiff" test on a vaginal secretion most likely indicates:

proliferation of G. vaginalis

74. The presence of oligoclonal bands in CSF but no in serum is associated with:

multiple sclerosis

75. The chromogen for fecal occult blood test is:

gum guaiac

76. Normal CSF contains all of the ff proteins except:

fibrinogen

77. Which of the following casts most frequently appears to have a brittle consistency?

waxy

78. The primary component of most urinary CALculi is:

calcium

79. Clue cells are a form of:

squamous epithelial cell

80. The principal mucin in synovial fluid is:

hyaluronate

81. Bacteria are considered significant in the urine sediment when the:

leukocytes are present

82. Pleural fluid from a patient with congestive heart failure would be expected to:

clear & pale yellow

ketones

84. A 2yo child had a positive urine ketone. This would most likely be caused by:

vomiting

85. W/c of the ff crystals appear as fine silky needles?

tyrosine

86.The principle of rgt strip test for microalbuminuria:

an immunochemical rxn

87. Which of the following urine results is most likely to be affected by prolonged exposure to light?

bilirubin

88. Which of the following is the best indicator of Reye syndrome for CSF?

glutamine

89. Which of the following would be affected by allowing a urine specimen to remain at room temperature for 3hours before analysis?

90. A white precipitate in a urine specimen with a pH of 7.5 would most probably be caused by:

amorphous phosphates

91. The normal concentration of proteins in CSF, relative to serum protein is

<1mg/dL

92. Acid urine that contains hemoglobin will darken on standing due to the formation of:

methemoglobin

93. Evaluation of sperm morphology is performed by staining an air-dried smear with Wright, Giemsa or Papanicolaou stain and evaluating 200 sperm using:

oil immersion & 100x obj

94. The presence of leukocytes in urine is known as:

pyuria

95. What calculation is used to determine if there is a breach in the blood-brain barrier?

CSF/serum albumin index

96. The normal renal threshold for glucose in the adult is approximately:

160mg/dL (8.8mmol/L)

97. A patient with renal tubular acidosis would most likely excrete a urine with a:

high pH

98. A build up of fluid in a body cavity is called:

effusion

99. Osmolality is a measure of:

dissolve particles, including ions

100

100. Qualitative methods used as screening test for cystic fibrosis include:

sweat conductivity