問題一覧
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1.A urine specimen collected on an apparently healthy 25yo man shortly after he finished eating lunch was cloudy but showed normal results on a multiple rgt test strip analysis.The most likely cause of turbidity is:
phosphates
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2.A phosphatidylglycerol immunochemical slide test shows no visible agglutination for an amniotic fluid collected at 30wks gestation. This should be reported as:
invalid
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3. A sperm count is diluted 1:20 and 50 sperm are counted in 2 secondary squares pf the Neubauer counting chamber. The sperm count is:
5,000,000/mL
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4. The reason for performing a Clinitest on a newborn's urine is to check for:
galactose
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5. The TAU isoform of transferrin is a carbohydrate deficient protein found only in:
CSF
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6. Using polarized light microscopy, which of the following urinary elements are birefringent?
cholesterol
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7. The finding of hemosiderin laden macrophages in a CSF sample indicates:
previous hemorrhage
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8. A deficiency in arginine vasopressin (ADH) is asso with a:
low urine SG
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9. Oval fat bodies are:
RTE cells that contain lipids
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10. The normal GFR is:
120 mL/min
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11. Increased CSF lactate is found in:
bacterial meningitis
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12. Urine from a 50yo man was noted to turn dark red on standing. This change is caused by the presence of:
porphyrins
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13. Urine Reagent strips should be stored in a(n):
cool dry area
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14. Laboratory characteristics of malabsorption syndrome due to pancreatic insufficiency include:
inc fecal fat
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15. An alcoholic or pale/clay-colored stool is:
a posthepatic biliary obstruction
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16. The presence of rice bodies in a synovial fluid is strongly associated with:
rheumatoid arthritis
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17. Creatinine clearance is reported in:
mL/min
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18. A test pad of a urine rgt strip is impregnated with only sodium nitroprusside. This pad will react with:
acetoacetic acid
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19. A urine specimen with an elevated urobilinogen and a negative bilirubin may indicate:
hemolytic jaundice
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20. An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients who:
has an infection with Proteus spp
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21. Which of the following results would be considered abnormal for seminal fluid?
liquefaction time >60 mins
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22. A vaginal swab is received in the lab for testing & immediately placed in sterile physiological saline to prepare a suspension. A wet mount is prepared & the laboratorian reports presence of numerous clue cells. This most likely indicates the patient has:
Bacterial vaginosis
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23. The presence of which of the following may result in a CSF specimen with an oily appearance?
radiographic contrast media
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24. The pH of a urine specimen measures the:
free hydrogen ions
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25. The most accurate test to determine renal concentration is:
osmolarity
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26. Spherical Transitional Epithelial cells may be confused with:
RTE cells
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27. A xanthochromic CSF specimen is centrifuged resulting in a pink-colored supernatant. This indicates the presence of:
Oxyhemoglobin
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28. False-positive results can occur for fecal occult blood due to the ingestion of:
horseradish
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29. Which of the ff casts is most indicative of end-stage renal disease?
waxy
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30. Isosthenuria is associated with a specific gravity which is usually:
fixed around 1.010
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31. A urine spx is analyzed for glucose by a glucose oxidase rgt test strip & a copper reduction test. If both results are (+), which of the ff interpretations is correct?
glucose is present
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32. Cessation of urine flow is defined as:
anuria
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33. An L/S ratio of 2.4 on amniotic fluid collected at 34 weeks' gestation indicates:
fetal lung maturity
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34 A urine spx is tested and has the following results: Reagent strip Microscopic findings glucose = 3+ WBCs = >100 / hpf protein = 1+ yeast = many This is indicative of:
diabetes mellitus
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35. The most common genetic defect associated with cystic fibrosis is called:
CFTR delta-F508
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36.W/c of the ff substances may interfere with the rgt strip pad for leukocyte esterase & yield a false(-) result?
protein >500 mg/dL
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37. Tiny colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals were found in an alkaline urine sediment.They are:
calcium carbonate
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38. Which of the following can give a false-negative urine protein reading?
very dilute urine
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39. A paired fasting plasma specimen was collected at the same time an arthrocentesis was performed. The difference in glucose concentrations between the 2 fluids was reported as 55 mg/dL. This result indicates a(an):
septic condition
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40. To prepare the reagent used in confirmatory protein testing, a laboratorian would:
dissolve 3g SSA in 100mL of water
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41. Refractive index is a comparison of:
light velocity in air to light velocity in solutions
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42. An ↑ IgG index on a CSF specimen indicates:
synthesis of IgG in the CNS
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43. Cholesterol crystals will most likely be observed in urine that contains:
4+ protein
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44. After warming, a cloudy urine clears. This is due to the presence of:
urates
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45. Rapid forward progression of sperm is rated as:
4.0
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46. All cast are typically composed of:
uromodulin
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47. Polyuria is usually correlated with
diabetes mellitus
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48. When using the SSA test, false-positive proteins results may occur in the presence of:
radiographic contrast media
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49.Milky urine from a 24yo woman likely contains
many WBC
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50. Which marker can be used to identify if a body fluid contains semen?
Acid phosphatase
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51. A 50yo man is evaluated for back pain. Urine studies include: Specific gravity= 1.017 blood = negative pH = 6.5 Microscopic findings: Protein = negative Epithelial cells = rare glucose = negative Urine protein electrophoresis: - monoclonal spike in gamma globulin region Which of the ff statements best explains these results?
urine protein is falsely(-) because the method is not sensitive for Bence Jones protein
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52. Decrease CSF protein can be found in:
CSF leakage
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53. A sweat chloride >60 mEq/L(60mmol/L) is indicative of:
cystic fibrosis
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54. When identifying urinary crystals, which reagent test strip result is most important?
pH
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55. pH determinations are clinically relevant for which of the following?
pleural fluid
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56. A (+) result for bilirubin on a rgt test strip should be followed up by:
performing an ictotest
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57. The urine microscopic constituents that best differentiate between cystitis and pyelonephritis are:
WBC casts
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58. Amniotic fluid may be tested for the concentration of lamellar bodies. This test is performed to determine:
fetal lung maturity
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59. A urine's SG is directly proportional to its:
dissolved solids
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60. The method of choice for performing a SG measurement of urine ff admin. of xray contrast dye is:
reagent test strip
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61. When using a refractometer to measure urine concentration, the laboratorian must correct for which of the following in their calculations?
glucose
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62. Polarized light can often be used to diff between:
uric acid and cystine crystals
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63. In synovial fluid, the most characteristic finding in pseudogout is:
calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals
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64. Ghost red blood cells are see in urine that is:
alkaline & dilute
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65. Ascites is collected by:
paracentesis
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66. The area of the nephron that is impermeable to water is the:
ascending LoH
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67. Pilocarpine iontophoresis refers to the specific process of: (2 answers)
inducing sweat & measuring ions in sweat
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68. A px with uncontrolled DM will most likely have:
pale urine w/ a ↑ SG
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69. Peritoneal lavage is used to:
detect intra-abdominal bleeding in blunt injury
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70. Urine osmolality is related to:
specific gravity
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71. Epithelial cell casts are most indicative of:
tubular necrosis
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72. Which stain is used to measure sperm viability?
eosin nigrosin
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73. A positive amine or "whiff" test on a vaginal secretion most likely indicates:
proliferation of G. vaginalis
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74. The presence of oligoclonal bands in CSF but no in serum is associated with:
multiple sclerosis
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75. The chromogen for fecal occult blood test is:
gum guaiac
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76. Normal CSF contains all of the ff proteins except:
fibrinogen
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77. Which of the following casts most frequently appears to have a brittle consistency?
waxy
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78. The primary component of most urinary CALculi is:
calcium
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79. Clue cells are a form of:
squamous epithelial cell
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80. The principal mucin in synovial fluid is:
hyaluronate
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81. Bacteria are considered significant in the urine sediment when the:
leukocytes are present
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82. Pleural fluid from a patient with congestive heart failure would be expected to:
clear & pale yellow
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83.The results were obtained on urine spx @ 8:00am: pH=5.5 ketones=3+ nitrite(+) protein=2+ blood(-) glucose=3+ bilirubin(+) If this urine spx was stored uncapped at 5.C w/o preservation & retested at 2:00 pm,w/c of the ff test results would be changed due to storage conditions?
ketones
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84. A 2yo child had a positive urine ketone. This would most likely be caused by:
vomiting
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85. W/c of the ff crystals appear as fine silky needles?
tyrosine
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86.The principle of rgt strip test for microalbuminuria:
an immunochemical rxn
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87. Which of the following urine results is most likely to be affected by prolonged exposure to light?
bilirubin
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88. Which of the following is the best indicator of Reye syndrome for CSF?
glutamine
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89. Which of the following would be affected by allowing a urine specimen to remain at room temperature for 3hours before analysis?
pH
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90. A white precipitate in a urine specimen with a pH of 7.5 would most probably be caused by:
amorphous phosphates
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91. The normal concentration of proteins in CSF, relative to serum protein is
<1mg/dL
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92. Acid urine that contains hemoglobin will darken on standing due to the formation of:
methemoglobin
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93. Evaluation of sperm morphology is performed by staining an air-dried smear with Wright, Giemsa or Papanicolaou stain and evaluating 200 sperm using:
oil immersion & 100x obj
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94. The presence of leukocytes in urine is known as:
pyuria
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95. What calculation is used to determine if there is a breach in the blood-brain barrier?
CSF/serum albumin index
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96. The normal renal threshold for glucose in the adult is approximately:
160mg/dL (8.8mmol/L)
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97. A patient with renal tubular acidosis would most likely excrete a urine with a:
high pH
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98. A build up of fluid in a body cavity is called:
effusion
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99. Osmolality is a measure of:
dissolve particles, including ions
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100. Qualitative methods used as screening test for cystic fibrosis include:
sweat conductivity