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Air Law

Air Law
50問 • 2年前
  • ユーザ名非公開
    • 通報

    問題一覧

  • 1

    The flight that has the highest priority for landing is

    an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).

  • 2

    Pilots of controlled flights shall inform the appropriate ATS, whenever the average TAS at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from the TAS given in the flight plan by

    5%

  • 3

    When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights under IFR shall be flown at a level that is at least

    1 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

  • 4

    The part of the AIP that contains information about existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas is

    ENR

  • 5

    The aerodrome category determining the rescue and fire fighting equipment is based on the

    over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.

  • 6

    After landing, while taxiing the landing gear sinks into a hole. No person gets injured, but the aircraft sustains structural failure, obliging the crew to delay the departure.

    This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.

  • 7

    A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.

    1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

  • 8

    If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft, heIf an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft, he

    may request and he will obtain an amended clearance if practicable.

  • 9

    Below FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum between controlled opposite traffic is

    1000 feet (300 m).

  • 10

    A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases

    Initial, intermediate, final.

  • 11

    The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa shall be expressed in terms of

    Flight Level.

  • 12

    The part of the AIP that contains a list with "Location Indicators" is called

    GEN

  • 13

    For an aerodrome in Controlled Airspace Class C

    ATC provides separation between flights under IFR and IFR / VFR. ATC does not provide separation between flights under VFR.

  • 14

    Unless instructed otherwise by an air traffic controller, when passing through the transition layer, a pilot shall report the vertical position of the aircraft as

    altitude in descent.

  • 15

    According to international agreements, wind direction indications shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic

    for take-off and landing.

  • 16

    Name the Class of Airspace with the following conditions and services: IFR and VFR permitted, Air traffic control service: none, Separation: not provided, Information: Flight Information Service if requested.

    Airspace Class G

  • 17

    An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements

    AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries

  • 18

    When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if the

    State of Registry considers that the damage sustained is of such nature that the aircraft is still airworthy.

  • 19

    An aircraft commander, that has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit an unlawful act on board the aircraft may

    deliver such person to the competent authorities.

  • 20

    According to the relevant medical requirements, the applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall hold a current:

    Class I medical assessment.

  • 21

    The national civil aviation security programme is established by

    each Contracting State.

  • 22

    According to the relevant FCL requirements, one of the privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence aeroplane is to act as:

    Pilot-in-command on any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation.

  • 23

    When pilot licence holders have reached the age of 40 and are engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers, the validity of a Class 1 medical examination is reduced in accordance with the relevant medical requirements from

    12 to 6 months.

  • 24

    When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each aircraft shall

    alter its heading to the right.

  • 25

    The pilot has observed a luminous signal at night which is requesting help. He indicates that he has received the ground signals by

    switching on and off his landing lights twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.

  • 26

    The Annexes established by the International Civil Aviation Organisation contain established:

    Standards and Recommended Practices binding for Contracting States.

  • 27

    As part of the total flight time requirement of 1 500 hours for the issue of the ATPL in accordance with the relevant FCL requirements, the minimum requirements for night flight time are:As part of the total flight time requirement of 1 500 hours for the issue of the ATPL in accordance with the relevant FCL requirements, the minimum requirements for night flight time are:

    100 hours night flight hours as pilot in command or as co-pilot.

  • 28

    Validity and renewal of airworthiness certificates shall be subject of the

    Laws of the State of registry.

  • 29

    An air traffic control unit

    may ask an aircraft to change its call sign temporarily in the interest of safety when there is a risk of confusion with two or more similar call signs.

  • 30

    On an aerodrome equipped with parallel runways, the designation number of each runway is supplemented as follows:

    In case of two parallel runways by the letter "L" and "R" in the sequence from left to right.

  • 31

    In general, the main factor that determines the design of an instrument departure procedure is:

    The terrain surrounding the aerodrome.

  • 32

    RNP types shall be determined on the basis of

    communication, navigation and air traffic services provided in the airspace concerned.

  • 33

    The pilot-in-command of an aircraft

    may depart from air regulations for safety reasons only.

  • 34

    The person charged with the safe conduct of a flight is the

    pilot-in-command.

  • 35

    Which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) contains Runway (RWY) physical characteristics, declared distances, approach lighting and runway lighting?

    AD.

  • 36

    According to the relevant FCL requirements, the successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training is one of the conditions required for:

    the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes.

  • 37

    Which one of the following statements applies to the general organisation and objectives of the IATA? The IATA is:

    An international trade body which represents, leads and serves airline business in general.

  • 38

    For the boarding of potentially disruptive passengers supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as

    boarding the potentially disruptive passenger prior to all passengers.

  • 39

    RNP means a statement of

    the navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace.

  • 40

    Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated

    immediately a significant change occurs.

  • 41

    According to the relevant FCL requirements, the applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:

    a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR.

  • 42

    The reporting of accident/incidents under the Armenian Aviation Occurrence Reporting System (AAORS) is:

    Mandatory

  • 43

    The general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance is with the

    pilot-in-command.

  • 44

    The phases related for an aircraft to be in the state emergency or believed to be in emergency are

    uncertainty, alert, distress.

  • 45

    The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the

    Pilot-in-command.

  • 46

    In accordance with ICAO Annex 17 what are requirements when individuals who have been subject of judicial or administrative proceedings are required to travel

    Operator and PIC must be informed

  • 47

    What is the primary objective of an Annex 13 (Aircraft Accident and Incident investigation?

    To prevent further accidents and incidents

  • 48

    A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available, prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off, is called

    Stopway.

  • 49

    One of the conditions which allows to descend below the MDA on a circling approach is that

    the required visual references have been established and can be maintained.

  • 50

    Which level should be assigned to the first aircraft to arrive at the holding pattern

    The lowest level in the holding

    • Human Perfomance

    Human Perfomance

    ユーザ名非公開 · 50問 · 2年前

    Human Perfomance

    Human Perfomance

    50問 • 2年前
    ユーザ名非公開

    問題一覧

  • 1

    The flight that has the highest priority for landing is

    an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).

  • 2

    Pilots of controlled flights shall inform the appropriate ATS, whenever the average TAS at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from the TAS given in the flight plan by

    5%

  • 3

    When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights under IFR shall be flown at a level that is at least

    1 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

  • 4

    The part of the AIP that contains information about existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas is

    ENR

  • 5

    The aerodrome category determining the rescue and fire fighting equipment is based on the

    over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.

  • 6

    After landing, while taxiing the landing gear sinks into a hole. No person gets injured, but the aircraft sustains structural failure, obliging the crew to delay the departure.

    This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.

  • 7

    A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.

    1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

  • 8

    If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft, heIf an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft, he

    may request and he will obtain an amended clearance if practicable.

  • 9

    Below FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum between controlled opposite traffic is

    1000 feet (300 m).

  • 10

    A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases

    Initial, intermediate, final.

  • 11

    The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa shall be expressed in terms of

    Flight Level.

  • 12

    The part of the AIP that contains a list with "Location Indicators" is called

    GEN

  • 13

    For an aerodrome in Controlled Airspace Class C

    ATC provides separation between flights under IFR and IFR / VFR. ATC does not provide separation between flights under VFR.

  • 14

    Unless instructed otherwise by an air traffic controller, when passing through the transition layer, a pilot shall report the vertical position of the aircraft as

    altitude in descent.

  • 15

    According to international agreements, wind direction indications shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic

    for take-off and landing.

  • 16

    Name the Class of Airspace with the following conditions and services: IFR and VFR permitted, Air traffic control service: none, Separation: not provided, Information: Flight Information Service if requested.

    Airspace Class G

  • 17

    An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements

    AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries

  • 18

    When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if the

    State of Registry considers that the damage sustained is of such nature that the aircraft is still airworthy.

  • 19

    An aircraft commander, that has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit an unlawful act on board the aircraft may

    deliver such person to the competent authorities.

  • 20

    According to the relevant medical requirements, the applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall hold a current:

    Class I medical assessment.

  • 21

    The national civil aviation security programme is established by

    each Contracting State.

  • 22

    According to the relevant FCL requirements, one of the privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence aeroplane is to act as:

    Pilot-in-command on any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation.

  • 23

    When pilot licence holders have reached the age of 40 and are engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers, the validity of a Class 1 medical examination is reduced in accordance with the relevant medical requirements from

    12 to 6 months.

  • 24

    When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each aircraft shall

    alter its heading to the right.

  • 25

    The pilot has observed a luminous signal at night which is requesting help. He indicates that he has received the ground signals by

    switching on and off his landing lights twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.

  • 26

    The Annexes established by the International Civil Aviation Organisation contain established:

    Standards and Recommended Practices binding for Contracting States.

  • 27

    As part of the total flight time requirement of 1 500 hours for the issue of the ATPL in accordance with the relevant FCL requirements, the minimum requirements for night flight time are:As part of the total flight time requirement of 1 500 hours for the issue of the ATPL in accordance with the relevant FCL requirements, the minimum requirements for night flight time are:

    100 hours night flight hours as pilot in command or as co-pilot.

  • 28

    Validity and renewal of airworthiness certificates shall be subject of the

    Laws of the State of registry.

  • 29

    An air traffic control unit

    may ask an aircraft to change its call sign temporarily in the interest of safety when there is a risk of confusion with two or more similar call signs.

  • 30

    On an aerodrome equipped with parallel runways, the designation number of each runway is supplemented as follows:

    In case of two parallel runways by the letter "L" and "R" in the sequence from left to right.

  • 31

    In general, the main factor that determines the design of an instrument departure procedure is:

    The terrain surrounding the aerodrome.

  • 32

    RNP types shall be determined on the basis of

    communication, navigation and air traffic services provided in the airspace concerned.

  • 33

    The pilot-in-command of an aircraft

    may depart from air regulations for safety reasons only.

  • 34

    The person charged with the safe conduct of a flight is the

    pilot-in-command.

  • 35

    Which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) contains Runway (RWY) physical characteristics, declared distances, approach lighting and runway lighting?

    AD.

  • 36

    According to the relevant FCL requirements, the successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training is one of the conditions required for:

    the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes.

  • 37

    Which one of the following statements applies to the general organisation and objectives of the IATA? The IATA is:

    An international trade body which represents, leads and serves airline business in general.

  • 38

    For the boarding of potentially disruptive passengers supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as

    boarding the potentially disruptive passenger prior to all passengers.

  • 39

    RNP means a statement of

    the navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace.

  • 40

    Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated

    immediately a significant change occurs.

  • 41

    According to the relevant FCL requirements, the applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:

    a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR.

  • 42

    The reporting of accident/incidents under the Armenian Aviation Occurrence Reporting System (AAORS) is:

    Mandatory

  • 43

    The general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance is with the

    pilot-in-command.

  • 44

    The phases related for an aircraft to be in the state emergency or believed to be in emergency are

    uncertainty, alert, distress.

  • 45

    The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the

    Pilot-in-command.

  • 46

    In accordance with ICAO Annex 17 what are requirements when individuals who have been subject of judicial or administrative proceedings are required to travel

    Operator and PIC must be informed

  • 47

    What is the primary objective of an Annex 13 (Aircraft Accident and Incident investigation?

    To prevent further accidents and incidents

  • 48

    A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available, prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off, is called

    Stopway.

  • 49

    One of the conditions which allows to descend below the MDA on a circling approach is that

    the required visual references have been established and can be maintained.

  • 50

    Which level should be assigned to the first aircraft to arrive at the holding pattern

    The lowest level in the holding