EXAMS

100問 • 2年前

問題一覧

Unless otherwise required, a flight plan for a flight is to be provided with ATC is to be filed at least:

60 bef dep

Q2. The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft in accordance with Annex 8, shall be determined by:

The stat of registry

Q3. What can the commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or is about to commit an offence in the aeroplane that is against the penal law?

a. All answers are correct

Q4. A gyroplane is classified as a

a. Rotor craft

Q5. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take-off and land at an aerodrome within a CTR of airspace class C or D or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the

a. Ceiling is less than 1500ft or the ground visibility is less than 5km.

Q6. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to unlawful interference

c. Each state shall ensure that aircrafts unlawfully seized which have landed In their country are detained on the ground unless the overriding factor is to protect passenger’s lives

Letter L for turbulence

7000kg

Q8. According to JAR FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating:

b. On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and, in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo flights

Q9. If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report “field in sight”, a clearance for visual approach “ may be given under certain conditions

c. The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic

Q10.The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service in each SAR region is the

b. Rescue and Co-ordination centre

Q11. The supposition of a distress phase, compared to an uncertainty or alert phase is best described as when

a. A damaged aircraft whose flying efficiency is known to be impaired and needs immediate assistance

Q12. Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility?

b. The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aeroplane in flight

Q13. When should the word heavy be included as a suffix to the call-sign?

b. On the initial call to ATC if the certified MTOM exceeds 136,000kg

Q14. What is the colour of low intensity obstacle light?

steady red

Q15. Where state has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrains, or in mountainous areas shall be for IFR flight:

b. At least 2000ft, within 8km of the estimated position

Q16. According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date:

d off issue

Q17. Each AIRAC AIP amendment page shall display

c The effective date

Q18. Aerodrome code 4 refers to field length

d 1800m

Q19.Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track

a Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

com failiur code

7600

Q21. An aircraft arriving in the United Kingdom from the USA must land at

c. A designated customs airport

Q22. You can use simulator hours towards the 1500hours required for an ATPL. How are simulator hours limited

Maximum of 100, not more than 25 in a procedural flight trainer

Q.23 alerting service is provided by

The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment

Q24.The absolute (when certain related conditions are met) minimum radar separation provided between aircraft established on the same localizer course within 10NM of the runway shall be:

b 2.5nm

Q25. Runway edge lights are fixed variable intensity unidirectional showing:

withe or yellow

Q26.Which of the following correctly identifies significant wind components (assuming the controller has access to wind component tables)?

b. 10kts head, 2kts tail and 5kts cross

Q27.Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a Navigation accuracy of

c. Plus or minus 4NM on a 95% containment basis

Q28.For RNP1 ATS routes at or above FL200, the suffix letter Y to the route designator indicates

a. The tangential arc of all turns between 30° and 90° shall be to a radius not less than 22.5NM

Q29. A pilot should set a flight level on departure

b. At the transition altitude

Q30.A lower limit of a Control area shall be established at a height above ground level or water of not less than

b 200m

Q31. Where was the convention on International Civil Aviation signed in 1944?

Chicago

Q32.When flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100 degrees relative bearing. Assuming you are on converging courses, you should see his

d. Green navigation light

Q33. On a VRF flight which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358, variation 3°E, and 2° W?

b FL65

Q1. The SIGMET service in the AIP is in the following part

GEN

Q2. A heavy aircraft has made a missed approach to a runway in the opposite direction to normal take-off. What is the separation required for a light aircraft taking off?

2 min

Q3. Taxiway centreline lights other than an exit taxiway shall be

Fixed lights showing green

Q4. Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?

b. If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft

Q5. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:

fixed red

Q6. When should position reports be made?

a. When passing designated significant points referred to as “on request Air Law – CPL(H) reporting points

Q7. Which of the following statements describes the alert phase?

a. An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established

Q8. Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport for the following group of potentially disruptive passengers defined below

a. Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody

Q9. One minute separation may be used between departing aircrafts if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least

c. 45° immediately after take-off

Q10. When should ATC pass the QNH to an aircraft?

d. Only A and C above are correct

Q11. What does the abbreviation AFIS stand for?

d. Aerodrome Flight Information Service

Q12. A MEDIUM (wake turbulence category) aircraft is following a HEAVY category aircraft during a radar approach. What is the minimum wake turbulence radar separation to be applied?

a 5nm

Q13. Aircraft on the manoeuvring area must give way to

c. Aircraft landing and taking off

Q14. According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these criteria is that the aeroplane has

a. Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training

d. A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state Q15. The “Aerodrome Reference Code” is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane’s performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed

d. 2B

Q16. What is the colour of runway edge lights?

d withe

Q17. A VFR flight shall not be flown

c. Over the congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of persons at a height less than 300m (1,000ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600m from the aircraft

Q18. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “resume own navigation”. This phrase means that

a. You are to assume responsibility of your own navigation

Q19. At information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is

a 5kt

Q20. How is flight visibility defined?

b. The visibility forward from the flight deck of an aeroplane in flight

Q21. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not to be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example

d TTT

Q22. Annex 14 to the convention of international civil aviation contains SARPS for

b aerodomes

Q23. An applicant for a commercial pilot’s licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than

b. 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

Q24. What privilege does the first “Freedom of the Air” grant?

d. To fly across the territory of a state without landing in that state

Q25. According to Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the

a. Laws of the state of registry

d. Laws of the state of registry and operation Q26. When flying on an airway on a heading of 255° (M) the correct flight level will be

d usually even

Q27. ICAO personnel Licensing rules and regulations are contained in Annex __ to the Chicago Convention.

d 1

Q28. The vertical position of an aircraft is expressed in altitude when

c. The aircraft is at or below the transition altitude

Q 29 In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes in which meteorological service is provided?

b GEN

Q30. The part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embarking and disembarking passengers, loading and unloading of cargo and refuelling and parking is known as

c. The apron

Q31. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means

c. Disregard any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

Q32 In the event of a controlled flight inadvertently deviating from its flight plan. ATC must be informed when

d. ETA varies by ± 5 minutes

Q33. In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR is separated from IFR and receives traffic information and other VFR traffic

c class c

Q1. Which section of the AIP contains information relating to the provision of a Meteorological Service?

d GEN

Q2. Mandatory signs on an aerodrome use which combination of the following colours?

d. Red and white

Q3. What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?

b. 250 kts for IFR and VFR up to FL100

Q4. Airfield reference code E is used for aircraft with a maximum wingspan of

a. 52 metres or more, but less than 65 metres

Q5. “An area symmetrical about the extended runway centreline the adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway” is the definition for

b. Runway end safety area

Q6. A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported by ATC?

c. Snow, ice and slush

Q7. You receive an IFR en-route clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does this mean?

a. If not airborne before 0920, a new clearance is to be issued

Q8. Which of the following defines flight visibility?

b. The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight

Q9. A MEDIUM (Wake turbulence category) aircraft is following a HEAVY category aircraft during a radar approach. What is the minimum wake turbulence radar separation to be applied?

a 5NM

Q10. Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains

c. Standards only

Q11. What does ADA mean?

d. Advisory airspace

Q12. The second freedom of the air is the

a. Right to land for a technical stop

Q13. Any contracting state may denounce the convention of Montreal by written notification to the Depository Governments. The denunciation shall take effect

b. 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depository Governments

Q14. How long is a Class 1 medical valid for?

a. 12 months if age below 40 and 6 months if above 40

Q15. What is the speed limit in Class E airspace?

a. 250 kts below FL100

Q16. What is the purpose of ATS?

a. To ensure the flow of information necessary for the safety, regularity and efficiency of international air navigation

Q17.Each member state shall designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should be

d. To all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state

Q18. What is the meaning of ATCRU?

d. Air Traffic Control Radar Unit

Q19. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, he submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is

a. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks

Q20. Each contacting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of

b. Integrated Aeronautical Information Package

Q21. You are flying at 5,000ft (above the transition altitude) in class C airspace. What are the VMC criteria?

d. 5km visibility: 1,000ft vertically and 1,500m horizontally clear of cloud

Q22. The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed

a. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point

Q23. The national civil aviation programme shall be established by

a. Each contracting state

Q24. In the airway designator UA1Y, what does the prefix U mean?

b upper

Q25. An aircraft is in controlled airspace under ATC control. The responsibility for ensuring adequate terrain clearance rests with

a. The aircraft commander

Q26. CAT 1 approach lights, (centrelights and crossbars) shall be fixed lights showing

a. Variable intensity lights

Q27. You are in an aircraft at night and the aerodrome control tower begins to flash the taxi and runway lights, what do you do?

a. Vacate the runway and observe the tower for light signal

Q28. Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as Flight Level (FL)

c. Above the transition altitude when applicable

Q29. Load factor has the following meaning

d. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions

Q30. Which of the following correctly defines the NOZ for parallel runway operation?

a. The NOZ extends from runway threshold to the point where aircraft are normally established on the localizer

Q31. Deviation from the TAS in the flight plan is to be reported to ATC. By how much would the TAS have to deviate before it is reported?

d 5%

Q32. A rescue unit is

b. A unit composed of trained personnel and provided with equipment suitable for the expeditious conduct of SAR

Q33. Who shall have the final authority over the disposition of the aircraft?

d the commander

100

Q1. The MEL is drawn up

a. By the operator