Black belts dedicate _______ of their time to quality improvement projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems. A. 10% B. 20% C. 70% D. 100%

Green belts contribute ______ of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions. A. 10% B. 20% C. 70% D. 100%

PLUMBISM - deleterious effect of gradual accumulation of ______ in body tissues, as a result of repeated exposure. A. Arsenic B. Cyanide C. Lead D. Mercury

Oxidase positive, urease negative: A. B. pertussis B. B. parapertussis C. B. bronchiseptica D. None of these

Oxidase and urease positive: A. B. pertussis B. B. parapertussis C. B. bronchiseptica D. None of these

Oxidase negative, urease positive: A. B. pertussis B. B. parapertussis C. B. bronchiseptica D. None of these

Distinct odor that is often referred to as a “chocolate cake” or “burnt chocolate” smell: A. Burkholderia cepacia B. Eikenella corrodens C. Proteus sp. D. Staphylococcus aureus

Convex, smooth, gray, nonhemolytic; rough and mucoid variants can occur; may have a musty or mushroom odor: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Clostridium difficile C. Pasteurella multocida D. Chromobacterium violaceum

The two species of flies responsible for the transmission are Glossina palpalis and Glossina tachinoides: A. Leishmania donovani B. Leishmania tropica C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

The two primary species of fly vectors responsible for transmitting are Glossina morsitans and Glossina pallidipes: A. Leishmania donovani B. Leishmania tropica C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

As little as 0.1 mL of CSF combined with one drop of _______ produces an adequate cell yield when processed with the cytocentrifuge. A. 10% formalin B. 40% formalin C. 10% albumin D. 30% albumin

A DAILY CONTROL SLIDE FOR BACTERIA IN CSF: A. 95% ethanol B. 30% albumin C. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 95% ethanol D. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 30% albumin

RTE cell from the proximal convoluted tubules: A. Columnar or convoluted B. Cuboidal C. Round or oval D. None of these

RTE cell from the distal convoluted tubules: A. Columnar or convoluted B. Cuboidal C. Round or oval D. None of these

RTE cells from the collecting duct: A. Columnar or convoluted B. Cuboidal C. Round or oval D. None of these

Most often, ______ are “dead-end” hosts. A. Ticks B. Mice C. Sheep D. Human

In 1883, he developed a staining technique that bears his name—the Gram stain or Gram staining procedure. A. Hans Anton Gram B. Hans Francis Gram C. Hans Christian Gram D. Hans Gregor Gram

Chocolate agar contains: A. Chocolate B. Clotted blood C. Brown nutrient agar D. Hemolyzed red blood cells

A patient presents with diarrhea and abdominal cramping. The organism isolated from the stool culture is identified as S. dysenteriae (group A). The TSI reaction would have indicated: A. K/K B. K/NC H2S+ C. A/A D. K/A

A selection and enrichment medium for Streptococcus agalactiae in female genital specimens: A. Todd-Hewitt broth B. Selenite broth C. Skirrow agar D. New York City agar

All of the following are differential media except: A. Blood agar B. Chocolate agar C. MacConkey’s agar D. Eosin methylene blue agar

Green zone around the colonies: A. Alpha hemolysis B. Beta hemolysis C. Gamma hemolysis D. Alpha prime hemolysis

The complete clearing of media around bacterial colonies on a blood agar plate is referred to as: A. Alpha hemolysis B. Beta hemolysis C. Gamma hemolysis D. Delta hemolysis

Which of the following agars should be used for culturing Legionella? A. CIN B. BCYE C. SMAC D. XLD

The unique chemical structure of the cell wall of Mycobacterium spp. is associated with the presence of: A. N-glycolylmuramic acid and a decrease in lipid content B. N-acetylmuramic acid and a decrease in lipid content C. N-glycolylmuramic acid and an increase in lipid content D. N-acetylmuramic acid and an increase in lipid content

The use of 0.1% FUCHSIN substituted for safranin in the Gram-stain procedure may enhance the visibility of the organisms: A. Bordetella spp. B. Capnocytophaga spp. C. Francisella spp. D. Legionella spp.

What step in the Gram stain distinguishes between gram-positive and gram-negative organisms? A. Fixing of the cells to the slide using heat or methanol B. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone C. Counterstain of the Gram stain using safranin D. Application of the mordant, Gram’s iodine

DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation) is a complication of bloodstream sepsis and is most often caused by: A. Gram-negative bacteria B. CMV C. Gram-positive bacteria D. Parasites

Incubation of which organism at 25°C produces a characteristic yellow pigment? A. Cronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii B. Plesiomonas shigelloides C. Enterobacter aerogenes D. Hafnia alvei

Which of the following bacteria is able to hydrolyze urea via urease production, which results in an increase in urine pH that is toxic to kidney cells and stimulates the formation of kidney stones? A. E. coli B. Proteus C. S. aureus D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which type of enrichment media is used to isolate Neisseria and Haemophilus organisms? A. Hektoen enteric (HE) agar B. Todd Hewitt broth C. Regan Lowe agar D. Chocolate agar

In patients who are HIV positive or who have AIDS, chronic pulmonary disease may be associated with infection as a result of: A. Mycobacterium gordonae B. Mycobacterium kansasii C. Mycobacterium avium complex D. Mycobacterium fortuitum

Bartonella quintana has been known to cause: A. Carrion’s disease B. Trench fever C. Cat-scratch disease D. Lyme disease

When streaking a throat culture on 5% sheep blood agar, stabbing the agar plate provides enhanced detection for: A. Bile solubility B. Bile esculin hydrolysis C. DNase activity D. Streptolysin O

Loeffler’s agar slant is a special culture medium used to recover which organism? A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Bordetella pertussis D. Neisseria meningitidis

A large, aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rod is isolated from a blood culture. It can be further confirmed as B. anthracis if it is: A. Hemolytic and motile B. Hemolytic and nonmotile C. Nonhemolytic and motile D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile

Transmission of Orientia tsutsugamushi is associated with what vector? A. Ticks B. Fleas C. Lice D. Chiggers

Campylobacter species should be grown at what optimum temperature? A. 25° C B. 37° C C. 42° C D. None of the above

What is the primary etiologic agent in children with epiglottitis? A. Haemophilus influenzae type b B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Staphylococcus aureus

The ETHANOL SHOCK procedure is used to differentiate: A. Actinomyces and Bifidobacterium spp. B. Prevotella and Porphyromonas spp. C. Clostridium and Bacteroides spp. D. Bacteroides and Actinomyces spp.

Which organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis C. Rickettsia rickettsii D. Coxiella burnetii

The two cations known to influence the activity of aminoglycosides are: A. Sodium and potassium B. Calcium and potassium C. Calcium and magnesium D. Sodium and magnesium

Which of the following is the only catalase-negative, gram-positive, non-spore-forming rod that produces H2S on TSI? A. Gardnerella sp. B. Erysipelothrix sp. C. Lactobacillus sp. D. Arcanobacterium sp.

Necrotizing fasciitis is a serious infection associated with: A. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Streptococcus mitis C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

Sulfur granules in a clinical specimen indicate the presence of: A. Clostridium spp. B. Fusobacterium spp. C. Actinomyces spp. D. Peptostreptococcus spp.

Pregnant women and immunocompromised patients should avoid eating which of the following foods to prevent Listeria infection A. Feta cheese B. Peanuts C. Pickles D. Ice cream

Which of the following has been recognized in postinfectious complications of Campylobacter jejuni infection? A. Guillain-Barré syndrome B. Chronic pulmonary disease C. Encephalitis D. Endocarditis

Which organism exhibits end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours A. C. diphtheriae B. C. jeikeium C. Arthrobacter sp. D. L. monocytogenes

1. Seventy (70) percent recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit: A. BSC Class I B. BSC Class II, A1 C. BSC Class II, B1 D. BSC Class II, B2

Thirty (30) percent recirculated, 70% exhausted. Exhaust cabinet air must pass through a dedicated duct to the outside through a HEPA filter. A. BSC Class I B. BSC Class II, A1 C. BSC Class II, B1 D. BSC Class II, B2

No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter. A. BSC Class I B. BSC Class II, A1 C. BSC Class II, B1 D. BSC Class II, B2

The India ink stain is used as a presumptive test for the presence of which organism? A. Aspergillus niger in blood B. Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF C. Histoplasma capsulatum in CSF D. Candida albicans in blood or body fluids

What is the first step to be performed in the identification of an unknown yeast isolate? A. Gram stain smear B. India ink stain C. Catalase test D. Germ tube test

Which of the following yeast enzymes is detected using birdseed (niger seed) agar? A. Phenol oxidase B. Catalase C. Urease D. Nitrate reductase

Dimorphic molds are found in infected tissue in which form A. Mold phase B. Yeast phase C. Encapsulated D. Latent

The Hair Baiting Test is used to differentiate which two species of Trichophyton that produce red colonies on Sabouraud agar plates? A. T. mentagrophytes and T. rubrum B. T. tonsurans and T. schoenleinii C. T. tonsurans and T. violaceum D. T. verrucosum and T. rubrum

Which of the following viruses is implicated along with Epstein–Barr virus as a cause of infectious mononucleosis? A. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) B. Coxsackie A virus C. Coxsackie B virus D. Hepatitis B virus

Which virus belonging to the Reoviridae group causes gastroenteritis in infants and young children but an asymptomatic infection in adults? A. Coxsackie B virus B. Rotavirus C. Respiratory syncytial virus D. Rhabdovirus

A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood disease after rubeola, rubella, varicella, and roseola is: A. Rotavirus B. Adenovirus type 40 C. Coxsackie A virus D. Parvovirus B19

Which virus is associated with venereal and respiratory tract warts and produces lesions of skin and mucous membranes? A. Polyomavirus B. Poxvirus C. Adenovirus D. Papillomavirus

Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue? A. Neutrophil B. Dendritic cell C. Eosinophil D. Basophil

Antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to certain standard cell lines best describes: A. Cytokines B. Clusters of differentiation (CD) C. Neutrophilic granules D. Opsonins

Class II MHC molecules are recognized by which of the following? A. CD4+ T cells B. CD8+ T cells C. Natural killer cells D. Neutrophils

An individual is recovering from a bacterial infection and tests positive for antibodies to a protein normally found in the cytoplasm of this bacterium. Which of the following statements is true of this situation? A. Class I molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD8+ T cells. B. Class I molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells. C. Class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T cells. D. B cells have recognized bacterial antigen without help from T cells.

HLA molecules A, B, and C belong to which MHC class? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

The term for enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is: A. Opsonization B. Agglutination C. Solubilization D. Chemotaxis

The process of inflammation is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A. Increased blood supply to the area. B. Migration of WBCs. C. Decreased capillary permeability. D. Appearance of acute-phase reactants.

The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a: A. Phagosome B. Lysosome C. Vacuole D. Phagolysosome

Which of these are found on a mature B cell? A. IgG and IgD B. IgM and IgD C. Alpha and beta chains D. CD3

Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell? A. μ chains in the cytoplasm B. Complete IgM on the surface C. Presence of CD21 antigen D. Presence of CD25 antigen

HLA-B8 antigen has been associated with which of the following pairs of diseases? A. Ankylosing spondylitis and myasthenia gravis B. Celiac disease and akylosing spondylitis C. Myasthenia gravis and celiac disease D. Reiter disease and multiple sclerosis

There is a strong association between ankylosing spondylitis and: A. HLA-B27 B. HLA-DR3 C. HLA-DR4 D. HLA-A3 E. HLA-BW47

A 28-year-old man is seen by a physician because of several months of intermittent low back pain. The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis. Which of the following laboratory studies would support this diagnosis? A. A decreased synovial fluid CH50 level B. Low serum CH50 level C. Positive HLA-B27 antigen test D. Rheumatoid factor in the synovial fluid

Father of Immunology: (Stevens, Turgeon) A. Edward Jenner B. Louis Pasteur C. Ellie Metchnikoff D. Susumu Tonegawa

Discovery of genetic principles underlying the generation of antibodies with different specificities: A. Gerald Edelman B. Cesar Milstein C. Susumu Tonegawa D. Louis Pasteur

Active hyperemia: A. Nose bleeding B. Gum bleeding C. Blushing D. Bruising

Which cell surface marker is termed the common acute lymphoblastic leukemia marker? A. CD19 B. CD10 C. CD23 D. CD21

Which cell surface membrane marker is used for enumeration of hematopoietic progenictor cell (HPC) enumeration? A. CD4 B. CD8 C. CD34 D. CD45

The HLA complex is located primarily on: A. Chromosomes B. Chromosome 6 C. Chromosome 9 D. Chromosome 17

Which of the following are products of HLA class III genes? A. T-cell immune receptors B. HLA-D antigens on immune cells C. Complement proteins C2, C4, and Factor B D. Immunoglobulin VL regions

A wound (skin lesion) specimen obtained from a newborn grew predominantly β-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci on 5% sheep blood agar. The newborn infant was covered with small skin eruptions that gave the appearance of a “scalding of the skin.” The gram-positive cocci proved to be catalase positive. Which tests should follow for the appropriate identification? A. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR B. Coagulase, glucose fermentation, DNase C. Bacitracin, PYR, 6.5% salt broth D. CAMP, bile-esculin, 6.5% salt broth

An isolate recovered from a vaginal culture obtained from a 25-year-old female patient who is 8 months pregnant is shown to be a gram-positive cocci, catalase negative, and β-hemolytic on blood agar. Which tests are needed for further identification? A. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR B. Bacitracin, CAMP, PYR C. Methicillin, PYR, trehalose D. Coagulase, glucose, PYR

A sputum specimen from an 89-year-old male patient with suspected bacterial pneumonia grew a predominance of gram-positive cocci displaying alpha-hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar. The colonies appeared donut shaped and mucoidy and tested negative for catalase. The most appropriate tests for a final identification are: A. Coagulase, glucose fermentation, lysostaphin B. Penicillin, bacitracin, CAMP C. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR D. Bile esculin, hippurate hydrolysis

A 1-month-old infant underwent a spinal tap to rule out bacterial meningitis. The CSF was cloudy, and the smear showed many pus cells and short gram-positive rods. After 18 hours, many colonies appeared on blood agar that resembled Streptococcus spp. or L. monocytogenes. Which of the following preliminary tests should be performed on the colonies to best differentiate L. monocytogenes from Streptococcus spp.? A. Hanging-drop motility (25°C) and catalase B. PYR and bacitracin C. Oxidase and glucose D. Coagulase and catalase

A radiograph of a 1-year-old boy indicates the lack of a thymus. Complete blood count and flow cytometry confirm a below-normal lymphocyte count and a lack of T cells. Which of the following would most likely be the cause? A. DiGeorge’s syndrome B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome C. Bare lymphocyte syndrome D. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

Which of the following tumor markers is used to monitor persons with breast cancer for recurrence of disease? A. Cathepsin-D B. CA-15-3 C. Retinoblastoma gene D. Estrogen receptor (ER)

Which tumor marker is used to determine the usefulness of TRASTUZUMAB (HERCEPTIN) therapy for breast cancer? A. PR B. CEA C. HER-2/neu D. Myc

Which of the following tests when used together are helpful in monitoring treatment and identifying recurrence of testicular cancer? A. AFP and CEA B. AFP and HCG C. CEA and HCG D. CA 125 and CA 19-9

Which two organs are considered the primary lymphoid organs in which immunocompetent cells originate and mature? A. Thyroid and Peyer’s patches B. Thymus and bone marrow C. Spleen and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) D. Lymph nodes and thoracic duct

Which complement component is found in both the classic and alternative pathways? A. C1 B. C4 C. Factor D D. C3

Which region determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement? A. VH B. CH C. VL D. CL

Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary immune response? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE

Which immunoglobulin appears in highest titer in the secondary response? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE

The interaction between an individual antigen and antibody molecule depends upon several types of bonds such as ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic bonds, and van der Waals forces. How is the strength of this attraction characterized? A. Avidity B. Affinity C. Reactivity D. Valency

Which part of the radial immunodiffusion (RID) test system contains the antisera? A. Center well B. Outer wells C. Gel D. Antisera may be added to any well

Which outcome indicates a negative result in a complement fixation test? A. Hemagglutination B. Absence of hemagglutination C. Hemolysis D. Absence of hemolysis

Which serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis? A. Antibodies against syphilis are undetectable B. Detected 1–3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre C. Detected in 50% of cases before the primarychancre disappears D. Detected within 2 weeks after infection

Which disease is likely to show a rim (peripheral) pattern in an immunofluorescence (IF) microscopy test for ANA? A. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Scleroderma

What disease is indicated by a high titer of anti-Sm (anti-Smith) antibody? A. Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) B. RA C. SLE D. Scleroderma

Which immunofluorescence pattern indicates the need for ENA testing by Ouchterlony immunodiffusion, Multiplex, or ELISA assays? A. Homogeneous or solid B. Peripheral or rim C. Speckled D. Nucleolar