Which statement is not a primary objective of general anesthesia? a. Patient remains unresponsive during surgery. b. Patient retains no memory of the surgery. c. Patient’s cardiovascular function remains stable. d. Patient retains muscle tone during surgery.

What are the five phases of general anesthesia in the correct sequence? a. Emergence, preinduction, induction, maintenance, recovery b. Induction, postinduction, emergence, maintenance, recovery c. Induction, postinduction, maintenance, emergence, recovery d. Preinduction, induction, maintenance, emergence, recovery

Which phase of general anesthesia includes preoxygenation of the patient? a. Emergence b. Preinduction c. Recovery d. Induction

Which phase of general anesthesia includes administration of anesthetic agents? a. Emergence b. Preinduction c. Recovery d. Induction

Which phase of general anesthesia includes the administration of muscle relaxants? a. Emergence b. Preinduction c. Recovery d. Induction

Preoperative patient assessment and evaluation are performed during which phase of general anesthesia? a. Emergence b. Preinduction c. Recovery d. Induction e. Maintenance

Patient intubation is performed during which phase of general anesthesia? a. Emergence b. Preinduction c. Recovery d. Induction

The surgical procedure is performed during which phase of general anesthesia? a. Emergence b. Preinduction c. Recovery d. Maintenance

Anesthetic agents are reversed or discontinued, or both, during which phase of general anesthesia? a. Emergence b. Preinduction c. Recovery d. Induction

Which is the postoperative phase of general anesthesia? a. Emergence b. Preinduction c. Recovery d. Induction

Which statement does not apply to endotracheal intubation? a. The patient’s vocal cords are visualized using a laryngoscope. b. The circulator assists the anesthesia provider by applying pressure on the cricoid cartilage. c. An ET tube is placed in the trachea. d. The ET tube is connected to a pulse oximeter.

Which statement is not true about cricoid pressure? a. It is used in rapid sequence induction. b. It reduces the risk of laryngeal spasm. c. It compresses the esophagus. d. It reduces the risk of aspiration.

Which statement is not true of laryngeal masked airway (LMA)? a. Administering muscle relaxants is required. b. It is a reusable airway. c. It is contraindicated for patients with history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). d. It may be used for certain ambulatory procedures.

Where does the recovery phase take place? a. Surgical unit b. PACU c. Patient’s room d. Patient’s home

The patient is most prone to agitation and excitement in which phase of anesthesia? a. Preinduction b. Induction c. Maintenance d. Recovery

The anesthesia technique that uses both inhalation and intravenous agents is called a. monitored anesthesia care (MAC). b. LMA. c. combination anesthesia. d. balanced anesthesia.

Ultra–short-acting intravenous anesthesia agents administered during the induction phase are a. analgesics. b. barbiturates. c. desflurane. d. neuromuscular blocking agents.

Which statement is not true of Pentothal? a. It is the most commonly used barbiturate. b. It is rapidly processed by the brain. c. It is an effective analgesic. d. The generic form is thiopental.

Which statement is not true of benzodiazepines? a. The most commonly used benzodiazepine in surgery is midazolam. b. They are exclusively used in surgery. c. They have both sedative and amnesiac effects. d. They provide no analgesic effect.

Which statement is not true of ketamine? a. It is chemically related to phencyclidine (PCP). b. It is an effective analgesic and amnesiac agent. c. It is available under the trade name Ketalar. d. It is best used for procedures of long duration.

Which drug is a barbiturate? a. Versed b. Valium c. Brevital d. Ativan

Which drug is a not a benzodiazepine? a. Pentothal b. Versed c. Valium d. Ativan

Which drug is best used for superficial procedures of short duration such as skin grafts? a. Versed b. Brevital c. Ativan d. Ketalar

Which drug is used for patients with hypovolemic trauma or short procedures on patients with compromised cardiac function, or both? a. Diprivan b. Amidate c. Ativan d. Ketalar

Which class of drugs is used for its analgesic effect? a. Opioids b. Barbiturates c. Neuromuscular blocking agents d. Induction agents

Analgesics are administered during which phase of general anesthesia? a. Emergence b. Recovery c. Maintenance d. Induction

Which statement is not true of propofol? a. It is a hypnotic agent. b. It has a milky color and must be handled using aseptic technique because it has no antimicrobial preservatives. c. It is available under the trade name Diprivan. d. Patients may experience hallucinations through the emergence phase of anesthesia

Which drug is not an opioid? a. Fentanyl b. Morphine c. Propofol d. Sublimaze

Fentanyl is available under what trade name? a. Alfenta b. Sufenta c. Fluothane d. Sublimaze

Which statement is not true of fentanyl? a. It is 100 times more potent than morphine. b. It can only be used in combination with other anesthetic agents. c. It is 5 to 10 times less potent than Sufenta. d. It has a rapid onset of approximately 30 seconds.

Which opioid has an onset time greater than 30 seconds? a. Alfenta b. Sufenta c. Ultiva d. Sublimaze

Of the following early inhalation agents, which one is still in use? a. Ether b. Chloroform c. Cyclopropane d. Nitrous oxide

Which statement does not apply to inhalation agents? a. They are difficult to control. b. They are eliminated easily from the body. c. They have the potential for cardiovascular depression. d. They are easy to administer.

Sevoflurane is marketed under what trade name? a. Fluothane b. Forane c. Suprane d. Ultane

Isoflurane is marketed under what trade name? a. Fluothane b. Forane c. Suprane d. Sevoflurane

Desflurane is marketed under what trade name? a. Sevoflurane b. Forane c. Suprane d. Ethrane

Each one of the following inhalation agents, either alone or in combination with succinylcholine, is considered a triggering agent for malignant hyperthermia except a. sevoflurane. b. isoflurane. c. nitrous oxide. d. desfluran

Which inhalation agent is a gas, not a vapor? a. Enflurane b. Isoflurane c. Desflurane d. Nitrous oxide

Which group of drugs is given to facilitate intubation, as well as provide better surgical exposure during abdominal procedures? a. Opioids b. Muscle relaxants c. Tranquilizers d. Analgesics

What was the first muscle relaxant used in surgery? a. Cocaine b. Opium c. Purple foxglove d. Curare

What is the neurotransmitter that is released at neuromuscular synapses to stimulate the release of calcium ions? a. Acetylcholine antagonists b. Acetylcholinesterase c. Acetylcholine d. Succinylcholine

Depolarization means a. muscle contraction. b. muscle relaxation. c. fasciculation. d. prevention of muscle contraction.

Small, involuntary muscle twitches just under the skin are known as a. minimum alveolar concentrations. b. fasciculations. c. depolarization. d. nondepolarization.

Which agent is the only depolarizing muscle relaxant presently in use? a. Pancuronium b. Atracurium c. Mivacurium d. Succinylcholine

Which muscle relaxant produces fasciculations, followed by flaccidity? a. Pancuronium b. Atracurium c. Mivacurium d. Succinylcholine

Which is not an adverse effect associated with succinylcholine? a. Increased intragastric pressure b. Increased potential for regurgitation and aspiration c. Decreased intracranial pressure d. Postoperative muscle pain

Which condition is not an adverse effect associated with nondepolarizing muscle relaxants? a. Tachycardia or bradycardia b. Cardiac arrhythmias c. Elevated serum potassium in burn patients d. Hypertension or hypotension

Which muscle relaxant has no reversal agent and must be allowed to wear off? a. Anectine b. Pavulon c. Norcuron d. Tracrium

The effect of nondepolarizing muscle relaxants can be reversed by using a. Anectine. b. Prostigmin. c. Mivacron. d. Tracrium

What is the trade name for pancuronium bromide? a. Pavulon b. Norcuron c. Prostigmin d. Anectine

What is the trade name for naloxone? a. Mazicon b. Norcuron c. Narcan d. Mivacron

Opioids are reversed using a. Mazicon. b. Norcuron. c. Narcan. d. Prostigmin.

Benzodiazepines are reversed using a. Mazicon. b. Norcuron. c. Narcan. d. Prostigmin.

What patient factor does not influence the selection of general anesthesia? a. Patient age b. Patient preference c. Cognitive ability d. Length of hospital stay

Which age group is never a candidate for regional or local anesthesia? a. Geriatric b. Pediatric c. Adult d. Adolescent

In the preanesthesia era, surgery was based on a. speed. b. luck. c. skill. d. shock.

What equipment is a part of the anesthesia workstation? a. Back table b. OR table c. Vaporizer d. Kick bucket

A supraglottic airway is also known as a(n) a. ET tube. b. LMA. c. McGill Forcep. d. mask.

Which structure is encountered when placing an ET tube? a. Trachea b. Esophagus c. Stomach d. Lung

Which is an example of a video laryngoscope? a. Macintosh b. Miller c. McGrath d. McGill

Nasal intubation may be useful for a(n) _________________ procedure. a. abdominal b. oral c. orthopedic d. thoracic

A surgical patient, who is morbidly obese and has a history of GERD, may be intubated by using a. fiberoptic endotracheal intubation. b. nasal intubation. c. a laryngeal masked airway. d. an endotracheal tube.

Which type of surgical patient is at risk for being aware under anesthesia? a. Patients with acute pain b. Trauma patients c. Mentally challenged patients d. Patients with allergies

General anesthesia may be accomplished by administering inhalation or intravenous drugs, or both True/false

true

Analgesics are used in surgery to reduce the necessary amount of anesthesia drugs. True/false

true

Inhalation agents enter the bloodstream from the inhaled air through the alveoli in the lungs. True/false

true